NCC study guide questions with correct answers, Exams of Nursing

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NCC study guide questions with correct answers

Hyperaldosteronism - Answer Increased K excretion in distal tubules What increases the risk of renal anomalies? - Answer ETOH, maternal diabetes, and maternal drug use What can occur with congenital nephrotic syndrome? - Answer Fetal Hydrops Oliohydramnios can occur in which conditions - Answer Sever urinary tract obstruction, renal agensis, pulmonary hypoplasia (Potter's), PPROM What is Potter's syndrome? - Answer Renal agensis and pulmonary hypoplasia- lethal Physical anomalies of Potter's - Answer flat nose, low set ears, receding chin, arthrogryposis, bell-shaped chest What dysmorphic features can suggest renal disease? - Answer abnormal ears, single umbilical artery, hypospadius, anorectal abnormalities, polythelia (supernumerary nipples), vertebral anomalies, and esophageal atresia- W or W/O TEF What can cause lateral abdominal mass - Answer polycystic /multicystic kidneys, hydonephrosis, tumor (Wilms) Urinary ascites is caused by - Answer rupture of an obstructed urinary tract

What can cause a suprapubic mass - Answer enlarged bladder secondary to urinary obstruction What can cause abdominal wall defects - Answer extrophy of bladder, cloacal extrophy, prune belly What is prune belly syndrome? - Answer AKA Eagle Barrett Syndrome Triad:

1. Deficient abdominal musculature D/T fetal urinary ascites
2. Undescended testes
3. Urinary tract abnormalities (usually posterior urethral valves) Why would you be unable to palpate a kidney - Answer renal agensis, renal malposition, horsehoe kidney What is the most common cause of hypertension in the newborn - Answer renal clots -UAC What is the second most common cause of HTN in newborn - Answer Renal disease Hgb F causes a shift to the ???? on the oxygen dissociation curve - Answer Left Treatment options for anemia include - Answer transfusion, EPO, and minimizing blood draws causes of hemolytic anemia - Answer ABO, Rh, G6PD

IgG - Answer maternal initially transplacentally acquired in 3rd trimester reaches maternal levels at 2 months adults levels by 10-12 months Intracranial calcifications can be seen in - Answer TORCH infections esp CMV Blueberry muffin spots are seen in - Answer CMV Rubella HSV Most sensitive test for syphilis is - Answer FTA-ABS, MHA-TP Hallmark sign for HIV in infant is - Answer recurrent infections How do you treat systemic fungal infections - Answer Amphotericin and 5-FU If Ecoli is found in a cath sample - Answer treat repeat BC renal ultrasound What percent of infant who have GBS will have a positive blood culture - Answer 50% Urine culture is obtained when ???? sepsis is suspected - Answer Late

I/T ratio - Answer Bands/meta/mylo divided by segs/bands/meta/mylo ANC is - Answer (Bands+segs+metas+mylos) * WBC A PCR test for HSV tests for - Answer DNA Omphalitis you need what type of antibiotic therapy - Answer systemic What should be considered in an infant with a prolonged retention of umbilical cord and recurrent infections - Answer Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency When does systemic HSV infection appear - Answer 2-3 wks of life CNS involvement of HSV is a - Answer late sign Congenital syphilis - Answer acquired transplacentally Feeding whole milk can cause - Answer hyperphosphatemia What do early feedings do? - Answer Stimulates hormones and gut maturation Breastmilk causes - Answer hyponatremia, hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia How much NA in mEq/kg/day does NS flush provide - Answer 154 mEq/L or .154 mEq.

What can soy formulas treat - Answer hyperchloremia What is the major carb in breast milk - Answer lactose What do premie formulas have in them - Answer Glucose polymers What do glucose polymers do in premie formulas - Answer aid with mucousal lactase activity What diseases should you use soy formula for - Answer Galactosemia lactase deficiency documented allergy to cow's milk strict vegetarian diet What is added to all soy formula - Answer Methionine Early feedings are important because - Answer causes surges in GI hormones, entero glucagon and pancreatic polypeptides. What produces more mature small intestine motor activity - Answer minimal enternal feedings Breast milk is insufficient in - Answer Na/ Phos/ Ca Advantages of human milk - Answer decreased NEC

faster GI emptying times improved long-term cognitive outcomes why is fat in human milk well absorbed - Answer palmitic acid is in beta position what does bile salts and pancreatic lipase aid in - Answer fat absorption A decrease in bile salts and pancreatic lipase can result in - Answer decrease fat absorption and increased TG levels if on lipids Spastic diplegia is related to - Answer IVH What is the most area of IVH - Answer The hemorrhagic area Myelination occurs fastest - Answer in the first year of life What does smoking do - Answer causes a build up of carboxyhemoglobin and carbon dioxide What drug can cause Epstein anomaly - Answer Lithium What does Dilantin exposure cause - Answer facial anomalies limb defects mental retardation Which drug causes facial anomalies

What does peak measure - Answer dosage What measures if dosage is correct - Answer peak What measures if the medication interval is correct - Answer trough What does trough measure - Answer if time interval is correct What does lasix do - Answer blocks Na, Cl, Ca reabsorption in the loop of Henle and causes diuretic effect in distal tubule as excessive Na leaves and H20 follows Where is Na, Cl, Ca blocked with lasix - Answer Loop of Henle Where is water/Na lost with lasix - Answer distal tubule How do you treat systemic fungal infection - Answer Amphotericin and 5 Fu Why do you use Ampho and 5 Fu together in systemic fungal infections - Answer synergiestic and better CNS penetration How does epi increases - Answer increases alpha andregenic response to improve cardiac output and volume What must you give if you paralysis - Answer sedation- Fentanyl If you Dc' steroids too quickly, what can you cause - Answer adrenal insufficiency

Where are aminoglycosides eliminated - Answer Kidneys- dependent on GFR With decreased GFR, what can happen - Answer drug toxicity can cause hearing loss Once a drug is absorbed, its distribution is dependent on - Answer cardiac output What is the half life of Adenosine - Answer 20-30 sec How does Adenosine work - Answer slows conduction time through the AV node, can interrupt the reentry pathways through the AV node and can restore normal sinus rhythm in patients with PSVT and WPW What can effect GFR - Answer perfusion How does epi work - Answer works on alpha/beta receptors increases myocardial contraction increases systolic pressure decreases diastolic pressure What can high does of epi do - Answer causes pulmonary vasodilation What effect does epi have on the heart - Answer increases O2 consuption to increase work load of the heart

Non-maleficence - Answer do no harm Do no harm - Answer Nonmaleficence What is an expert witness used for - Answer to establish, define, and relate standards of practice Justice - Answer equal opportunity to all equal opportunity - Answer justice autonomy - Answer allowed to take direction in accordance to own/best self interest decide for self - Answer autonomy Whole milk can cause - Answer hyperphosphatemia Normal Na - Answer 135- Normal K - Answer 3.5-5. Normal Ca - Answer 8.5-10. normal Mg - Answer 1.5-2.

Normal Phos - Answer 4.9-8. Early protein - Answer 4- later protein - Answer 4- how many calories is protein - Answer 4 kcal/gm how many calories is 1% Dex - Answer 0.034 kcal how many calories is 1% Il - Answer 1.1 kcal/ml how many calories is 2% IL - Answer 2 kcal/ml 0.9% NS is how much Na - Answer 0.154 mEq/ml 0.9% NS @ 1ml/hr is how much Na - Answer 4 mEq ml/hr of lipids - Answer gr/kg/day*wt/24/ to find how how much lyte is in bag - Answer volume of IVF/ ml/kg/day times mEq Hyperkalemia - Answer peaked T prolonged PR

Omphalocele hypoglycemia large tongue - Answer Beckwidth Weidman Reglan stimulates - Answer gut motility What digests carbohydrates - Answer amylase What is NEC - Answer bacterial fermentation that leads to gas in wall of bowel lumen Risk factors of NEC - Answer prematurity and feeding Hepatic glucose release in response to hypoglycemia - Answer glycogyenolesis-

glucagon and epinephrine Bloody stool, vomiting in 2 day old - Answer malrotation/volvulus How does Hirschprungs present on Xray - Answer distended bowel loops with no distal gas pattern How is malrotation repaired - Answer LADD What does LADD repair - Answer malrotation

Where does reabsorption of H20 occur - Answer distal tubule meconium ileus is a possible sign of - Answer cystic fibrous Zantac is - Answer H2 antagonist Prevacid is - Answer proton pump inhibitor Octretide - Answer tempers excessive insulin secretion and is used in chylothorax A c/s is not always needed in which defects - Answer abdominal wall defects Abdominal masses are associated with - Answer Renal causes What is the main differentiating factor between volvulous and NEC - Answer Pneumotosis Pneumotosis is seen with - Answer Volvulous and NEC Bilious vomiting is more common in - Answer malrotation Bloody stools are more common in - Answer volvulous What is omphalocele associated with - Answer BW Trisomy 13, pentology of Cantrell

What are the benefits of 3rd generation cephalosporins - Answer low toxicity and does not require serum level measurements Cefotaxome is a what type of drug - Answer 3rd generation cephalosporin Why should Ceftriazone be avoided in infants - Answer It displaces bilirubin from albumin and increase the incidence of kernicterous How long do treat for gram positive meningitis - Answer 14 days How long do you treat for gram negative meningitis - Answer 21 days How long do you treat for bacterial sepsis - Answer 7-10 days How is GBS transmitted - Answer sexually Infant at greater risk for HSV is - Answer a mother with primary asymptomatic infection Disseminated HSV with CNS disease has - Answer a poor prognosis IT ratios may be normal in - Answer Coag neg staph What is the most reliable method to detect CMV - Answer Urine What is the most congenital infection - Answer CMV

When should infants exposed to HIV be tested - Answer Birth 1 month 3 month When should an infant be treated for syphilis - Answer any evidence of active disease reactive CSF VDRL Abnormal CSF Non-terponemal antibodies 4 times greater than mothers What test is not recommended for screening infants for syphilis - Answer Treponemal antibody test What test should be used to screen an infant for syphilis - Answer RPR/VDR non trep test- same as mother What is Hutchinson's triad? - Answer Hutchinson's triad is found in a pediatric patient infected with congenital syphilis. It is identified in a patient with:

• Peg-shaped, wide-spaced incisors
• Interstitial keratitis
• Deafness Infants that should be evaluated fort syphilis include - Answer mothers untreated treated <1 month PTD treated with non PCN G