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NCCT Exam Practice Questions and Answers in Medical Assisting and Office Management, Exams of Learning disability

A series of practice questions and answers for the ncct exam in medical assisting and office management. It covers various topics such as management styles, salary reviews, document development, initial employment interviews, overtime pay, nutrients and energy, unhealthy trans unsaturated fatty acids, accession records, letter styles, mail sent under the postal class of bulk mail, transcription turnaround time, occupational safety and health act (osha), bloodborne pathogen standard, hand washing as part of infection control, chemical germicidal agents, temporal artery (ta) thermometer, temperature conversion, pulse sites, respiration abnormalities, breath sounds, blood pressure, sphygmomanometers, and weight measurement.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 02/15/2024

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Download NCCT Exam Practice Questions and Answers in Medical Assisting and Office Management and more Exams Learning disability in PDF only on Docsity!

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Title 1 of the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) mandates that individuals with disabilities are: A) to be provided access to public services B) to be given opportunities for public housing C) not be discriminated against in obtaining employment D) to be provided means of telecommunication - correct answer Answer is C #2 Answer is D - correct answer Which of the following health care issues is NOT covered under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA)? A) Increasing the probability of health insurance B) Addressing health care fraud and abuse C) standardizing the electronic transmission of health data D) Outlining payment of Medicare and Medicaid #3 Answer is A - correct answer Which of the following constitutes a breach of contract by a health care provider? A) Discontinuing treatment because of the patient did not pay in a timely manner B) Discontinuing treatment because it is no longer needed C) Being formally discharged by the patient

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D) Withdrawing from the case due to patient noncompliance or an inability to serve the patient #4 Answer is C - correct answer Under the doctrine of respondeat superior, who can potentially be held legally responsible for an act of negligence by a medical assistant? A) The medical assistant only B) The employee/provider only C) Both the medical assistant and the employer/provider D) The patient #5 Answer is B - correct answer Touching a patient in a manner to which they have not consented is considered a tort of A) invasion of privacy B) battery C) libel D) slander #6 Answer is D - correct answer All of the following minors ( under age

  1. are considered emancipated EXCEPT a minor who is A) a member of the armed forces B) financially responsible and no longer under parental car

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C) married D) being tested for a sexually transmitted disease #7 Answer is A - correct answer Unless public safety is involved, what is required in all cases to release patient medical records after a subpoena is issued? A) the patients written consent B) a court order C) a deposition D) an interrogatory #9 Answer is B - correct answer What normal patient right is suspended upon discovery of child abuse? A) privacy B) confidentiality C) documentation D) standard of care #10 Answer is C - correct answer A POLST dorm is a type of A) document declaring durable power of attorney for health care B) document releasing a provider from liability under Good Samaritan laws

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C) living will or advance directive D) PSDA #11 Answer is C - correct answer Generally, medical assistants are permitted to do certain clinical procedures only under the supervision of an employer/provider because they are NOT A) certifies B) registered C) licenses D) certified, registered, or licensed #12 Answer is B - correct answer Which of the following best describes ethics? A) individual choices relating to conduct B) personal values governing an individuals perceptions of right and wrong C) laws defining acceptable behavior D) creeds to live by #13 Answer is A - correct answer Bioethics is defined as A) any ethical matter that pertains to life and/or health care B) issues regarding abortion and the use of fetal tissue

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C) dealings with individuals who have committed sexual abuse or exploitation D) dealings with individuals who have committed physical or emotional abuse #14 Answer is D - correct answer Which of the following principles for a medical assistant is NOT set forth by the American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA) Code of Ethics? A) respect for the confidentiality of patient information B) performance of service while respecting all patients C) continuous professional improvement D) specific ways of dealing with certain situations #15 Answer is A - correct answer At present, what is the main difference between reposting child abuse and reporting elder or intimate partner abuse? A) child abuse must be reported to authorities in all 50 stares while other types of abuse do not always need to be reported B) sexual abuse is the main offense related to child abuse C) physical abuse is more predominant in elder an intimate partner D) child abuse is more likely to involve a reportable criminal act

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#16 Answer is C - correct answer A provider is dealing with a patient with HIV or AIDS. Which of the following statements regarding the providers legal or ethical requirements is NOT TRUE? A) the provider cannot withhold treatment to the HIV positive patient B) the provider should protect the patients confidentiality C) the provider can ethically deny treatment D) the patients intimate partner should be notified by the patient, the provider, or authorities #17 Answer is B - correct answer What is the time frame during which an abortion can be legally performed in all stares? A)there is no universal time frame for all states B) abortion can be performed during the first trimester C) abortion can be performed during the first trimester only in cases of rape D) abortion can be performed during the first and second trimesters #18Answer is A - correct answer Therapeutic communication interjects what element into communication? A) empathy B) advice C) recommendations D) knowledge of the process of communication

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#19 Answer is C - correct answer Active listening requires A) being alert and interested B) being attuned only to what the other is saying C) being attuned to what the other person is saying and what they are communicating nonverbally D) being able to respond quickly with a corrective action #20 Answer is D - correct answer In order for verbal communication between two people to be effective, the senders message must be A) complete B) clear and concise C) cohesive D) all of the above #21 Answer is B - correct answer In the United Stares, what do most people consider a comfortable personal space for dealing on a personal ( not intimate) level with another individual? A) in contact to 1-1/2 feet B) between 1-1/2 and 4 feet C) between 4 and 12 feet D) between 12 and 15 feet

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#22 Answer is C - correct answer The use of a defense mechanism in which a person unconsciously ascribes their own undesirable acts or impulses to someone else is known as A) sublimation B) repression C) projection D) compensation #23 Answer is A - correct answer According to maslows hierarchy of needs, what is the first level of need that people must satisfy before all others ?. A) physiological and survival needs B) necessities for safety and security C) needs related to loving and belonging D) conditions promoting prestige and esteem #24 Answer is C - correct answer A cultural broker is someone who A) physiological and survival needs B) necessities for safety and security C) needs related to loving belonging D) conditions promoting prestige and esteem

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#25 Answer is B - correct answer When interviewing a patient, which of the following types of question prompts only a yes or no response? A) indirect statement B) closed question C) open ended question D) active question #26 Answer is A - correct answer Which of the following does NOT initially occur when a person is exposed to an acute stressor? A) triggering of the parasympathetic nervous system B) activation of the "flight or fight" response C) releasing of adrenaline and other hormones into the bloodstream D) increased respiration rate #27 Answer is D - correct answer In order, what are the four stages of job burnout? A) value, ambiguity, overload, conflict B) value, reality, dissatisfaction, detachment C) honeymoon, Dissatisfaction, reality, a sad state D) honeymoon, reality, dissatisfaction, a sad state

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#28 Answer is C - correct answer Which of the following activities does NOT relieve stress? A) goal setting B) meditation C) gladly accepting all assigned work D) taking time off for lunch or a break #29 Answer is D - correct answer The symptoms lethargy and weight loss can be associated with which of the following conditions? A) AIDS B) cancer C) end stage renal disease D) all of the above #30 Answer is B - correct answer According to Dr. kubler-ross, what are the most likely stages of grief experienced by a patient with a life threatening illness, in order? A) denial, bargaining, anger, depression, acceptance B) denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance C) acceptance of reality, experience of pain, adjustment, development of a new reality D) denial followed by any number of stages leading to acceptance in the end

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#31 Answer is C - correct answer Which of the following management styles offers rewards to subordinates in terms of teamwork, recognition by other workers, and self- actualization? A) authoritarian management B) micromanagement C) participatory management D) management by walking around #32 Answer is B - correct answer In an officer manager is using a teamwork approach, what is the first step in getting the team started? A) brainstorming with the team B) developing a work statement with the team C) looking at benchmarks from other institutions D) developing a time frame and standards for goal achievement #33 Answer is C - correct answer As an office manager, when is the best time to carry out a salary review for employees? A) at the same time as their performance evaluation B) When the employee asks for a salary review C) at the beginning of each year

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D) when the office experiences changes in funding #34 Answer is A - correct answer A medical assistant who functions as a Human Resources manager is responsible for developing and updating which of the following documents? A) office policy manual B) office procedure manual C) HIPAA manual D) safety data sheets #35 Answer is D - correct answer Which of the following actions during an initial employment interview is discouraged? A) providing a time frame for decisions on hiring or additional interviews B) using predetermined questions during the interview C) providing a quiet and private environment for the interview D) offering the applicant the job at that time #36 Answer is B - correct answer The standard rate of overtime pay for administrative or clinical medical assistant is generally A) twice the regular hourly rate for each hour over 40 in a week B) at least one and one half times the regular hourly rate for each hour over 40 in a week

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C) not applicable because most medical assistant are considered exempt employees D) only applicable in terms of increasing benefits outside pay #37 Answer is A - correct answer Medical assistants and other individuals who handle finances in the medical office should A) be bonded B) purchase professional liability insurance C) be registered D) be licensed #38 Answer is B - correct answer When must a medical assistant functioning as an office manager pay federal and state taxes related to employee wages? A) monthly B) quarterly C) at the end of the year D) upon filing of a- form #39 Answer is D - correct answer What types of nutrients can be converted into energy? A) carbohydrates

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B) fats C) proteins D) all of the above #40 Answer is C - correct answer Unhealthy trans unsaturated fatty acids are found in A) olive and canola oils B) linoleum acid C) stick margarine D) unhydrogenated oils #41 Answer is B - correct answer Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding a persons basal metabolic rate (BMR)? A) It is the level of energy needed when the body is resting B) it is higher in people who have a larger percentage of body fat C) it is elevated in children during growth spurts D) it is increase when a woman is pregnant #42 Answer is B - correct answer According to the new food pyramid issued by the U.S. Department of Agriculture, what is the recommended daily intake of vegetables? A) 2 cups

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B) 2-1/2 cups C) 3 cups D) 6 ounces #43 Answer is C - correct answer What are the main inorganic nutrients that act as antioxidants? A) Vitamin K and folic acid B) Vitamin D and the minerals calcium and phosphorus C) Vitamins A, C, and E, and the mineral selenium D) several B-complex vitamins and the minerals phosphorus, magnesium, and sulfur #44 Answer is A - correct answer What type of diabetes mellitus requires the individual to take insulin regularly throughout life? A) Type 1 only B) Type @ only C) Types 1 and 2 D) Gestational #45 Answer is B - correct answer What is the cardiovascular disease in which arteries narrow due to inner deposition of cholesterol and fat? A) Hypertension

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B) Atherosclerosis C) Arteriosclerosis D) Myocardial infarction #46 Answer is A - correct answer Cancerous cells that are derived from epiithelial cells are know as A) carcinomas B) sarcomas C) lymphomas D) germ cell tumors #47 Answer is C - correct answer Which of the following characteristics does NOT distinguish a virus from oher types of microorganisms? A) A virus can only reproduce within another type of living cell B) Viruses are pathogenic C) Viruses produce spores D) Viruses cannot be observed directly under light microscope #48 Answer is B - correct answer An organism that serves as a carrier of a disease to another organism such as a human is known as a A) fomite B) vector

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C) bloodborne carrier D) exudate #49 Answer is C - correct answer Which of the following currently available vaccines are contraindicated in pregnant women, immunocompromised patients, and those with active AIDS? A) Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) B) MMR and influenza C) MMR, varicella, and zoster D) Hepatitis A and B #50 Answer is A - correct answer Pathogenic microorganisms, cancer cells, and transplanted tissues are initially recognized as foreign by A) macrophages and helper T cells B) B cells C) memory and killer T cells D) immunoglobulins #51 Answer is B - correct answer The biggest concern regarding the infectious diseases methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and tuberculosis is that A) identification of the infectious agent is difficult

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B) they are highly drug resistant, limiting antibiotic treatment options C) they are viral and cannot be cured D) It becomes a chronic infection #52 Answer is D - correct answer Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Hepatitis A infection? A) it is spread via the oral fecal route B) it can be prevented by an available vaccine C) patients usually develop jaundice, dark urine, and flu-like symptoms D) it becomes a chronic infection #54 Answer is A - correct answer Which of the following is the neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction between axons of moter neurons and the motor end plate? A) acetylcholine B) GABA C) Serotonin D) dopamine #55 Answer is D - correct answer A streptococcal infection might be linked to all of the following circulatory disorders, EXCEPT A) rheumatic fever

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B) mitral valve stenosis C) congestive heart failure D) varicose veins #56 Answer is B - correct answer Which of the following types of anemia can be controlled by injecting the patient with vitamin B12? A) iron deficiency anemia B) pernicious anemia C) sickle cell anemia D) Hodgkin disease #57 Answer is B - correct answer What layer of the skin contains blood vessels, nerve endings,, and glands? A) epidermis B) dermis C) hypodermis D) intergumentary #58 Answer is C - correct answer Which of the following is a contagious skin disorder characterized by pustules and caused by staphylococi and/ or streptococci? A) dermatitis

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B) dermatophytosis C) impetigo D) psoriasis #59 Answer is D - correct answer Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding herpes zoster infection? A) it is caused by the same virus associated with varicella or chicken pox in children B) it usually presents as a linear area of a skin rash C) a later symptom can be post herpetic neuralgia D) Since it is caused by a virus, there is no available vaccine #60 Answer is A - correct answer The purpose of immunotherapy for allergies is to use extracts of allergens to A) induce production of blocking 1gG class antibodies toward the allergens B) induce production of IgE class antibodies toward the allergens C) generally build up the immune system D) use immunomodulation to suppress the immune system #61 Answer is C - correct answer Which of the following urinary tract disorders should be suspected if a patient has chills, fever, abrupt back pain, and tenderness in the suprapublic region?

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A) cystitis B) glomerulonephritis C) pyelonephritis D) renal calculi #62 Answer is D - correct answer Which of the following functions is NOT performed by the kidneys? A) regulation of water and acid-base balance B) filtration of the blood to remove waste C) regulation of blood pressure D) collection and storage prior to urinary excretion #63 Answer is B - correct answer Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is caused by A) lesions in the mucous membranes in the stomach or duodenum B) return of stomach acid due to leakage of the valve leading to the stomach C) inflammation of diverticula D) inflammation of the ileum #64 Answer is C - correct answer Which of the following statements about the pancreas is FALSE?

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A) it functions as both an endocrine and an exocrine gland B) it is involved in the secretion of insulin C) It can develop stones, causing pain D) it can become inflamed, which can be life-threatening #65 Answer is A - correct answer In order, the large intestine is comprised of the A) cecum, colon, and rectum B) duodenum, jejunum, and ileum C) ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colons D) liver, gall bladder, and pancreas #66 Answer is C - correct answer What is the chief cause of blindness in the United States? A) retinal detachment B) glaucoma C) diabetic retinopathy D) presbyopia #67 Answer is B - correct answer The gel occupying space between the lends and retina of the eye is called the A) fovea centralis

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B) vitreous body C) sclera D) aqueous humor #68 Answer is B - correct answer In patients with myopia, light rays entering the eye focus A) on several areas of the retina B) in front of the retina C) beyond the retina D) on the retina #69 Answer is A - correct answer When a person moves their head, their equilibrium is usually maintained by A) the vestibular system in the inner ear B) the tympanic cavity in the middle ear C) the auricle D) the cochlea #70 Answer is C - correct answer Hearing loss due to hardening of the stapes of the middle ear is known as A) tinnitus B) otitis media

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C) otosclerosis D) meniere disease #71 Answer is D - correct answer Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of epistaxis? A) allergic rhinitis B) blunt force C) hypertension D) childbirth #72 Answer is D - correct answer In the respiratory system, gas exchange between oxygen breathed in and carbon dioxide to be removed takes place in the A) pharynx B) trachea C) bronchi D) alveoli #73 Answer is C - correct answer The main characteristics that distinguishes asthma from forms of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is that asthma A) does not cause dyspnea

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B) is characterized by a permanent narrowing of the airways C) can usually be reversed either spontaneously or through use of agents such as bronchodilators D) is caused by a loss of elasticity of the alveoli #74 Answer is D - correct answer Which of the following can cause pneumonia? A) bacteria B) fungi C) viruses D) all of the above #75 Answer is D - correct answer Which of the following is a spinal defects in which there is a sideways curvature of the spiney? A) lordosis B) kyphosis C) paget disease of bone D) scoliosis #76 Answer is B - correct answer A fracture in which of the bone is broken into a number of fragments is described as A) greenstick