NCLEX MED SURG EXAM / MED SURG NCLEX FINAL EXAM TEST BANK LATEST 2024 -2025 ACTUAL EXAM Q, Exams of Nursing

Download NCLEX MED SURG EXAM / MED SURG NCLEX FINAL EXAM TEST BANK LATEST 2024 -2025 ACTUAL EXAM Q and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NCLEX MED SURG EXAM / MED SURG NCLEX FINAL EXAM TEST BANK LATEST 2024 -2025 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS) A NEW UPDATED VERSION | GUARANTEED PASS A+ NEW!! (REVISED EXAM) A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient? a. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment. b. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress. c. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment. d. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests. -ANSWER->B When a patient has severe respiratory distress, only information pertinent to the current episode is obtained, and a more thorough assessment is deferred until later. Obtaining a comprehensive health history or full physical examination is unnecessary until the acute distress has resolved. Brief questioning and a focused physical assessment should be done rapidly to help determine the cause of the distress and suggest treatment. Checking for allergies is important, but it is not appropriate to complete the entire admission database at this time. The initial respiratory assessment must be completed before any diagnostic tests or interventions can be ordered. The nurse prepares a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion for a thoracentesis. How should the nurse position the patient? a. Supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees b. In a high-Fowlers position with the left arm extended c. On the right side with the left arm extended above the head d. Sitting upright with the arms supported on an over bed table -ANSWER->D The upright position with the arms supported increases lung expansion, allows fluid to collect at the lung bases, and expands the intercostal space so that access to the pleural space is easier. The other positions would increase the work of breathing for the patient and make it more difficult for the health care provider performing the thoracentesis. . A diabetic patients arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.28; PaCO2 34 mm Hg; PaO2 85 mm Hg; HCO3 18 mEq/L. The nurse would expect which finding? a. Intercostal retractions A patient with a chronic cough has a bronchoscopy. After the procedure, which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Elevate the head of the bed to 80 to 90 degrees. b. Keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns. c. Place on bed rest for at least 4 hours after bronchoscopy. d. Notify the health care provider about blood-tinged mucus. - ANSWER->B Risk for aspiration and maintaining an open airway is the priority. Because a local anesthetic is used to suppress the gag/cough reflexes during bronchoscopy, the nurse should monitor for the return of these reflexes before allowing the patient to take oral fluids or food. Blood-tinged mucus is not uncommon after bronchoscopy. The patient does not need to be on bed rest, and the head of the bed does not need to be in the high-Fowlers position. The nurse completes a shift assessment on a patient admitted in the early phase of heart failure. When auscultating the patients lungs, which finding would the nurse most likely hear? a. Continuous rumbling, snoring, or rattling sounds mainly on expiration b. Continuous high-pitched musical sounds on inspiration and expiration c. Discontinuous, high-pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration d. A series of long-duration, discontinuous, low-pitched sounds during inspiration -ANSWER->C Fine crackles are likely to be heard in the early phase of heart failure. Fine crackles are discontinuous, high- pitched sounds of short duration heard on inspiration. . . While caring for a patient with respiratory disease, the nurse observes that the patients SpO2 drops from 93% to 88% while the patient is ambulating in the hallway. What is the priority action of the nurse? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Document the response to exercise. c. Administer the PRN supplemental O2. d. Encourage the patient to pace activity. -ANSWER->C The drop in SpO2 to 85% indicates that the patient is hypoxemic and needs supplemental oxygen when exercising. The other actions are also important, but the first action should be to correct the hypoxemia. The nurse teaches a patient about pulmonary function testing (PFT). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates teaching was effective? a. I will use my inhaler right before the test. b. I wont eat or drink anything 8 hours before the test. c. I should inhale deeply and blow out as hard as I can during the test. d. My blood pressure and pulse will be checked every 15 minutes after the test. -ANSWER->C For PFT, the patient should inhale deeply and exhale as long, hard, and fast as possible. The other actions are not needed with PFT. The administration of inhaled bronchodilators should be avoided 6 hours before the procedure. . The nurse observes a student who is listening to a patients lungs who is having no problems with breathing. Which action by the student indicates a need to review respiratory assessment skills? a. The student starts at the apices of the lungs and moves to the bases. b. The student compares breath sounds from side to side avoiding bony areas. d. Instruct the patient to undress to the waist and remove any metal objects -ANSWER->A Spiral computed tomography (CT) scans are the most commonly used test to diagnose pulmonary emboli, and contrast media may be given IV. A chest x-ray may be ordered but will not be diagnostic for a pulmonary embolus. Preparation for a chest x-ray includes undressing and removing any metal. Bronchoscopy is used to detect changes in the bronchial tree, not to assess for vascular changes, and the patient should be NPO 6 to 12 hours before the procedure. Positron emission tomography (PET) scans are most useful in determining the presence of malignancy, and a radioactive glucose preparation is used. The nurse admits a patient who has a diagnosis of an acute asthma attack. Which statement indicates that the patient may need teaching regarding medication use? a. I have not had any acute asthma attacks during the last year. b. I became short of breath an hour before coming to the hospital. c. Ive been taking Tylenol 650 mg every 6 hours for chest-wall pain. d. Ive been using my albuterol inhaler more frequently over the last 4 days -ANSWER->D The increased need for a rapid-acting bronchodilator should alert the patient that an acute attack may be imminent and that a change in therapy may be needed. The patient should be taught to contact a health care provider if this occurs. The other data do not indicate any need for additional teaching. A patient with acute dyspnea is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan. Which information obtained by the nurse is a priority to communicate to the health care provider before the CT? a. Allergy to shellfish b. Apical pulse of 104 c. Respiratory rate of 30 d. Oxygen saturation of 90% -ANSWER->A Because iodine-based contrast media is used during a spiral CT, the patient may need to have the CT scan without contrast or be pre-medicated before injection of the contrast media. The increased pulse, low oxygen saturation, and tachypnea all indicate a need for further assessment or intervention but do not indicate a need to modify the CT procedure. The nurse analyzes the results of a patients arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action? a. The bicarbonate level (HCO3) is 31 mEq/L. b. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%. c. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg. d. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg. -ANSWER->D All the values are abnormal, but the low PaO2 indicates that the patient is at the point on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve where a small change in the PaO2 will cause a large drop in the O2 saturation and a decrease in tissue oxygenation. The nurse should intervene immediately to improve the patients oxygenation. . When assessing the respiratory system of an older patient, which finding indicates that the nurse should take immediate action? a. Weak cough effort b. Barrel-shaped chest c. Dry mucous membranes d. Bilateral crackles at lung bases -ANSWER->D Crackles in the lower half of the lungs indicate that the patient may have an acute problem such as heart failure. The nurse should immediately accomplish further assessments, such as oxygen saturation, and notify the health care provider. These ABGs indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis and should be reported to the health care provider. The other values are normal or close to normal. The nurse assesses a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been admitted with increasing dyspnea over the last 3 days. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Respirations are 36 breaths/minute. b. Anterior-posterior chest ratio is 1:1. c. Lung expansion is decreased bilaterally. d. Hyperresonance to percussion is present. -ANSWER->A The increase in respiratory rate indicates respiratory distress and a need for rapid interventions such as administration of oxygen or medications. The other findings are common chronic changes occurring in patients with COPD. Using the illustrated technique, the nurse is assessing for which finding in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? a. Hyperresonance b. Tripod positioning c. Accessory muscle use d. Reduced chest expansion -ANSWER->D The technique for palpation for chest expansion is shown in the illustrated technique. Reduced chest movement would be noted on palpation of a patients chest with COPD. Hyperresonance would be assessed through percussion. Accessory muscle use and tripod positioning would be assessed by inspection. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Listen to a patients lung sounds for wheezes or rhonchi. b. Label specimens obtained during percutaneous lung biopsy. c. Instruct a patient about how to use home spirometry testing. d. Measure induration at the site of a patients intradermal skin test. -ANSWER->B Labeling of specimens is within the scope of practice of UAP. The other actions require nursing judgment and should be done by licensed nursing personnel. A patient is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) of the chest with contrast media. Which assessment findings should the nurse immediately report to the health care provider (select all that apply)? a. Patient is claustrophobic. b. Patient is allergic to shellfish. c. Patient recently used a bronchodilator inhaler. d. Patient is not able to remove a wedding band. e. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels are elevated. -ANSWER->B, E Because the contrast media is iodine-based and may cause dehydration and decreased renal blood flow, asking about iodine allergies (such as allergy to shellfish) and monitoring renal function before the CT scan are necessary. The other actions are not contraindications for CT of the chest, although they may be for other diagnostic tests, such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or pulmonary function testing (PFT). The nurse teaches a patient about discharge instructions after a rhinoplasty. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that the teaching was successful? a. I can take 800 mg ibuprofen for pain control. b. I will safely remove and reapply nasal packing daily. c. My nose will look normal after 24 hours when the swelling goes away. d. I will keep my head elevated for 48 hours to minimize swelling and pain. -ANSWER->D Maintaining the head in an elevated position will decrease the amount of nasal swelling. d. Preoxygenate the patient for 3 minutes before suctioning. - ANSWER->C This patient needs suctioning now to secure a patent airway. Sterile gloves and a sterile catheter are used when suctioning a tracheostomy. Preoxygenation for 3 minutes is not necessary. Incentive spirometer (IS) use opens alveoli and can induce coughing, which can mobilize secretions. However, the patient with a tracheostomy may not be able to use an incentive spirometer. Increasing oral fluid intake would not moisten and help mobilize secretions in a timely manner. A patient with a tracheostomy has a new order for a fenestrated tracheostomy tube. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care in collaboration with the speech therapist? a. Leave the tracheostomy inner cannula inserted at all times. b. Place the decannulation cap in the tube before cuff deflation. c. Assess the ability to swallow before using the fenestrated tube. d. Inflate the tracheostomy cuff during use of the fenestrated tube. -ANSWER->C Because the cuff is deflated when using a fenestrated tube, the patients risk for aspiration should be assessed before changing to a fenestrated tracheostomy tube. The decannulation cap is never inserted before cuff deflation because to do so would obstruct the patients airway. The cuff is deflated and the inner cannula removed to allow air to flow across the patients vocal cords when using a fenestrated tube. The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient with a cuffed tracheostomy tube. Which action by the nurse would best determine if the cuff has been properly inflated? a. Use a manometer to ensure cuff pressure is at an appropriate level. b. Check the amount of cuff pressure ordered by the health care provider. c. Suction the patient first with a fenestrated inner cannula to clear secretions. d. Insert the decannulation plug before the nonfenestrated inner cannula is removed. -ANSWER->A Measurement of cuff pressure using a manometer to ensure that cuff pressure is 20 mm Hg or lower will avoid compression of the tracheal wall and capillaries. Never insert the decannulation plug in a tracheostomy tube until the cuff is deflated and the nonfenestrated inner cannula is removed. Otherwise, the patients airway is occluded. A health care providers order is not required to determine safe cuff pressure. A nonfenestrated inner cannula must be used to suction a patient to prevent tracheal damage occurring from the suction catheter passing through the fenestrated openings. Which statement by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective for a patient scheduled for radiation therapy of the larynx? a. I will need to buy a water bottle to carry with me. b. I should not use any lotions on my neck and throat. c. Until the radiation is complete, I may have diarrhea. d. Alcohol-based mouthwashes will help clean oral ulcers. - ANSWER->A Xerostomia can be partially alleviated by drinking fluids at frequent intervals. Radiation will damage tissues at the site being radiated but should not affect the abdominal organs, so loose stools are not a usual complication of head and neck radiation therapy. Frequent oral rinsing with nonalcohol-based rinses is recommended. Prescribed lotions and sunscreen may be used on radiated skin, although they should not be used just before the radiation therapy. A nurse obtains a health history from a patient who has a 35 pack-year smoking history. The patient complains of hoarseness and tightness in the throat and difficulty swallowing. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask? a. How much alcohol do you drink in an average week? b. Do you have a family history of head or neck cancer? Letting the nurse and spouse provide care and requesting no visitors may indicate that the patient is still experiencing hopelessness. The nurse completes discharge instructions for a patient with a total laryngectomy. Which statement by the patient indicates that additional instruction is needed? a. I must keep the stoma covered with an occlusive dressing at all times. b. I can participate in most of my prior fitness activities except swimming. c. I should wear a Medic-Alert bracelet that identifies me as a neck breather. d. I need to be sure that I have smoke and carbon monoxide detectors installed. -ANSWER->A The stoma may be covered with clothing or a loose dressing, but this is not essential. An occlusive dressing will completely block the patients airway. The other patient comments are all accurate and indicate that the teaching has been effective. . Which action should the nurse take first when a patient develops a nosebleed? a. Pinch the lower portion of the nose for 10 minutes. b. Pack the affected nare tightly with an epistaxis balloon. c. Obtain silver nitrate that will be needed for cauterization. d. Apply ice compresses over the patients nose and cheeks. . -ANSWER->A The first nursing action for epistaxis is to apply direct pressure by pinching the nostrils. Application of cold packs may decrease blood flow to the area, but will not be sufficient to stop bleeding. Cauterization and nasal packing are medical interventions that may be needed if pressure to the nares does not stop the bleeding, but these are not the first actions to take for a nosebleed. A nurse is caring for a patient who has had a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection. During the first 24 hours after surgery what is the priority nursing action? a. Monitor for bleeding. b. Maintain adequate IV fluid intake. c. Suction tracheostomy every eight hours. d. Keep the patient in semi-Fowlers position. -ANSWER->D The most important goals after a laryngectomy and radical neck dissection are to maintain the airway and ensure adequate oxygenation. Keeping the patient in a semi-Fowlers position will decrease edema and limit tension on the suture lines to help ensure an open airway. Maintenance of IV fluids and monitoring for bleeding are important, but maintaining an open airway is the priority. Tracheostomy care and suctioning should be provided as needed. During the immediate postoperative period, the patient with a laryngectomy requires frequent suctioning of the tracheostomy tube. Following a laryngectomy a patient coughs violently during suctioning and dislodges the tracheostomy tube. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Cover stoma with sterile gauze and ventilate through stoma. b. Attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube with the obturator in place. c. Assess the patients oxygen saturation and notify the health care provider. d. Ventilate the patient with a manual bag and face mask until the health care provider arrives. -ANSWER->B The first action should be to attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube to maintain the patients airway. Assessing the patients oxygenation is an important action, but it is not the most appropriate first action in this situation. Covering the stoma with a dressing and manually ventilating the patient may be an appropriate action if the nurse is unable to reinsert the tracheostomy tube. Ventilating with a facemask is not Suctioning of a stable patient can be delegated to LPNs/LVNs. Patient assessment and patient teaching should be done by the RN. . The nurse is caring for a hospitalized older patient who has nasal packing in place to treat a nosebleed. Which assessment finding will require the most immediate action by the nurse? a. The oxygen saturation is 89%. b. The nose appears red and swollen. c. The patients temperature is 100.1 F (37.8 C). d. The patient complains of level 8 (0 to 10 scale) pain. - ANSWER->A Older patients with nasal packing are at risk of aspiration or airway obstruction. An O2 saturation of 89% should alert the nurse to further assess for these complications. The other assessment data also indicate a need for nursing action but not as immediately as the low O2 saturation. After being hit by a baseball, a patient arrives in the emergency department with a possible nasal fracture. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Clear nasal drainage b. Complaint of nasal pain c. Bilateral nose swelling and bruising d. Inability to breathe through the nose -ANSWER->A Clear nasal drainage may indicate a meningeal tear with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid. This would place the patient at risk for complications such as meningitis. The other findings are typical with a nasal fracture and do not indicate any complications. A patient arrives in the ear, nose, and throat clinic complaining of a piece of tissue being stuck up my nose and with foul- smelling nasal drainage from the right nare. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the clinic health care provider. b. Obtain aerobic culture specimens of the drainage. c. Ask the patient about how the cotton got into the nose. d. Have the patient occlude the left nare and blow the nose. - ANSWER->D Because the highest priority action is to remove the foreign object from the nare, the nurses first action should be to assist the patient to remove the object. The other actions are also appropriate but should be done after attempting to clear the nose. . The nurse is caring for a patient who has acute pharyngitis caused by Candida albicans. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care? a. Avoid giving patient warm liquids to drink. b. Assess patient for allergies to penicillin antibiotics. c. Teach the patient about the need to sleep in a warm, dry environment. d. Teach patient to swish and swallow prescribed oral nystatin (Mycostatin). -ANSWER->D Oral or pharyngeal fungal infections are treated with nystatin solution. The goal of the swish and swallow technique is to expose all of the oral mucosa to the anti-fungal agent. Warm liquids may be soothing to a sore throat. The patient should be taught to use a cool mist humidifier. There is no need to assess for penicillin/cephalosporin allergies because Candida albicans infection is treated with antifungals. When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the nurse notes anterior cervical lymph node swelling, a temperature of 101.6 F (38.7 C), and yellow patches on the tonsils. Which action will the nurse anticipate taking? a. Teach the patient about the use of expectorants. Individuals who are pregnant, residents of nursing homes, or are immunocompromised or who have chronic medical conditions should receive inactivated vaccine by injection. The corticosteroid use by the 30-year-old increases the risk for infection. The nurse assumes care of a patient who just returned from surgery for a total laryngectomy and radical neck dissection and notes the following problems. In which order should the nurse address the problems? a. The patient is in a side-lying position with the head of the bed flat. b. The patient is coughing blood-tinged secretions from the tracheostomy. c. The nasogastric (NG) tube is disconnected from suction and clamped off. d. The wound drain in the neck incision contains 200 mL of bloody drainage. -ANSWER->A, B, D, C - The patient should first be placed in a semi-Fowlers position to maintain the airway and reduce incisional swelling. - The blood-tinged secretions may obstruct the airway, so suctioning is the next appropriate action. - Then the wound drain should be drained because the 200 mL of drainage will decrease the amount of suction in the wound drain and could lead to incisional swelling and poor healing. - Finally, the NG tube should be reconnected to suction to prevent gastric dilation, nausea, and vomiting. Following assessment of a patient with pneumonia, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance. Which assessment data best supports this diagnosis? a. Weak, nonproductive cough effort b. Large amounts of greenish sputum c. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute d. Resting pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 85% -ANSWER->A The weak, nonproductive cough indicates that the patient is unable to clear the airway effectively. The other data would be used to support diagnoses such as impaired gas exchange and ineffective breathing pattern. . The nurse assesses the chest of a patient with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which finding would the nurse expect? a. Increased tactile fremitus b. Dry, nonproductive cough c. Hyperresonance to percussion d. A grating sound on auscultation . -ANSWER->A Increased tactile fremitus over the area of pulmonary consolidation is expected with bacterial pneumonias. Dullness to percussion would be expected. Pneumococcal pneumonia typically presents with a loose, productive cough. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles and wheezes are typical. A grating sound is more representative of a pleural friction rub rather than pneumonia. A patient with bacterial pneumonia has rhonchi and thick sputum. What is the nurses most appropriate action to promote airway clearance? a. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing. b. Teach the patient about the need for fluid restrictions. c. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal oxygen cannula. d. Instruct the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique. - ANSWER->A Coughing is less painful and more likely to be effective when the patient splints the chest during coughing. Fluids should be encouraged to help liquefy secretions. Nasal oxygen will improve gas exchange, but will not improve airway clearance. Pursed lip breathing is used to improve gas exchange in patients with COPD, but will not improve airway clearance. d. Increased tactile fremitus is palpable over the right chest. - ANSWER->C The normal WBC count indicates that the antibiotics have been effective. All the other data suggest that a change in treatment is needed. . The health care provider writes an order for bacteriologic testing for a patient who has a positive tuberculosis skin test. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach about the reason for the blood tests. b. Schedule an appointment for a chest x-ray. c. Teach about the need to get sputum specimens for 2 to 3 consecutive days. d. Instruct the patient to expectorate three specimens as soon as possible. -ANSWER->C Sputum specimens are obtained on 2 to 3 consecutive days for bacteriologic testing for M. tuberculosis. The patient should not provide all the specimens at once. Blood cultures are not used for tuberculosis testing. A chest x- ray is not bacteriologic testing. Although the findings on chest x-ray examination are important, it is not possible to make a diagnosis of TB solely based on chest x-ray findings because other diseases can mimic the appearance of TB. A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a health care providers order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented? A. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates. B. TB medications have been taken for 6 months. C. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm. D. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative - ANSWER->D Negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. Chest x-rays are not used to determine whether treatment has been successful. Taking medications for 6 months is necessary, but the multidrug-resistant forms of the disease might not be eradicated after 6 months of therapy. Repeat Mantoux testing would not be done because the result will not change even with effective treatment. The nurse teaches a patient about the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. I will avoid being outdoors whenever possible. b. My husband will be sleeping in the guest bedroom. c. I will take the bus instead of driving to visit my friends. d. I will keep the windows closed at home to contain the germs. -ANSWER->B Teach the patient how to minimize exposure to close contacts and household members. Homes should be well ventilated, especially the areas where the infected person spends a lot of time. While still infectious, the patient should sleep alone, spend as much time as possible outdoors, and minimize time in congregate settings or on public transportation. A patient who is taking rifampin (Rifadin) for tuberculosis calls the clinic and reports having orange discolored urine and tears. Which is the best response by the nurse? a. Ask if the patient is experiencing shortness of breath, hives, or itching. b. Ask the patient about any visual abnormalities such as red- green color discrimination. c. Explain that orange discolored urine and tears are normal while taking this medication. d. Advise the patient to stop the drug and report the symptoms to the health care provider. -ANSWER->C Orange-colored body secretions are a side effect of rifampin. The first action should be to determine whether the patient has been compliant with drug therapy because negative sputum smears would be expected if the TB bacillus is susceptible to the medications and if the medications have been taken correctly. Assessment is the first step in the nursing process. Depending on whether the patient has been compliant or not, different medications or directly observed therapy may be indicated. The other options are interventions based on assumptions until an assessment has been completed. Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a negative chest x-ray for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has no symptoms of TB. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse? a. Standard four-drug therapy for TB b. Need for annual repeat TB skin testing c. Use and side effects of isoniazid (INH) d. Bacille Calmette-Gurin (BCG) vaccine -ANSWER->C The nurse is considered to have a latent TB infection and should be treated with INH daily for 6 to 9 months. The four-drug therapy would be appropriate if the nurse had active TB. TB skin testing is not done for individuals who have already had a positive skin test. BCG vaccine is not used in the United States for TB and would not be helpful for this individual, who already has a TB infection. When caring for a patient who is hospitalized with active tuberculosis (TB), the nurse observes a student nurse who is assigned to take care of a patient. Which action, if performed by the student nurse, would require an intervention by the nurse? A. The patient is offered a tissue from the box at the bedside. B. A surgical face mask is applied before visiting the patient. C. A snack is brought to the patient from the unit refrigerator. D. Hand washing is performed before entering the patients room -ANSWER->B A high-efficiency particulate-absorbing (HEPA) mask, rather than a standard surgical mask, should be used when entering the patients room because the HEPA mask can filter out 100% of small airborne particles. Hand washing before entering the patients room is appropriate. Because anorexia and weight loss are frequent problems in patients with TB, bringing food to the patient is appropriate. The student nurse should perform hand washing after handling a tissue that the patient has used, but no precautions are necessary when giving the patient an unused tissue. An occupational health nurse works at a manufacturing plant where there is potential exposure to inhaled dust. Which action, if recommended by the nurse, will be most helpful in reducing the incidence of lung disease? a. Treat workers with pulmonary fibrosis. b. Teach about symptoms of lung disease. c. Require the use of protective equipment. d. Monitor workers for coughing and wheezing. -ANSWER->C Prevention of lung disease requires the use of appropriate protective equipment such as masks. The other actions will help in recognition or early treatment of lung disease but will not be effective in prevention of lung damage. Repeated exposure eventually results in diffuse pulmonary fibrosis. Fibrosis is the result of tissue repair after inflammation. The clinic nurse teaches a patient with a 42 pack-year history of cigarette smoking about lung disease. Which information will be most important for the nurse to include? a. Options for smoking cessation b. Reasons for annual sputum cytology testing c. Erlotinib (Tarceva) therapy to prevent tumor risk d. Computed tomography (CT) screening for lung cancer - ANSWER->A A patient with newly diagnosed lung cancer tells the nurse, I dont think Im going to live to see my next birthday. Which response by the nurse is best? a. Would you like to talk to the hospital chaplain about your feelings? b. Can you tell me what it is that makes you think you will die so soon? c. Are you afraid that the treatment for your cancer will not be effective? d. Do you think that taking an antidepressant medication would be helpful? -ANSWER->B The nurses initial response should be to collect more assessment data about the patients statement. The answer beginning Can you tell me what it is is the most open-ended question and will offer the best opportunity for obtaining more data. The answer beginning, Are you afraid implies that the patient thinks that the cancer will be immediately fatal, although the patients statement may not be related to the cancer diagnosis. The remaining two answers offer interventions that may be helpful to the patient, but more assessment is needed to determine whether these interventions are appropriate. The nurse monitors a patient after chest tube placement for a hemopneumothorax. The nurse is most concerned if which assessment finding is observed? a. A large air leak in the water-seal chamber b. 400 mL of blood in the collection chamber c. Complaint of pain with each deep inspiration d. Subcutaneous emphysema at the insertion site -ANSWER->B The large amount of blood may indicate that the patient is in danger of developing hypovolemic shock. An air leak would be expected immediately after chest tube placement for a pneumothorax. Initially, brisk bubbling of air occurs in this chamber when a pneumothorax is evacuated. The pain should be treated but is not as urgent a concern as the possibility of continued hemorrhage. Subcutaneous emphysema should be monitored but is not unusual in a patient with pneumothorax. A small amount of subcutaneous air is harmless and will be reabsorbed. A patient experiences a chest wall contusion as a result of being struck in the chest with a baseball bat. The emergency department nurse would be most concerned if which finding is observed during the initial assessment? a. Paradoxic chest movement b. Complaint of chest wall pain c. Heart rate of 110 beats/minute d. Large bruised area on the chest -ANSWER->A Paradoxic chest movement indicates that the patient may have flail chest, which can severely compromise gas exchange and can rapidly lead to hypoxemia. Chest wall pain, a slightly elevated pulse rate, and chest bruising all require further assessment or intervention, but the priority concern is poor gas exchange. When assessing a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident, the emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right lung. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient? a. Emergency pericardiocentesis b. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape c. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator d. Insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system - ANSWER->D The patients history and absent breath sounds suggest a right- sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage. The other therapies would be appropriate for an acute asthma attack, flail chest, or cardiac tamponade, but the patients clinical manifestations are not consistent with these problems. A patient who has a right-sided chest tube following a thoracotomy has continuous bubbling in the suction- control right upper-quadrant abdominal tenderness would be expected. Crackles in the lungs are likely to be heard with left-sided heart failure. Findings in cor pulmonale include evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy on electrocardiogram (ECG) & an increase in intensity of the second heart sound. Heaves or thrills are not common with cor pulmonale. Chronic hypoxemia leads to polycythemia & increased total blood volume & viscosity of the blood. The hemoglobin & hematocrit values are more likely to be elevated with cor pulmonale than decreased. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patients condition is improving? a. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg. b. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea. c. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute. d. Patients chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields. -ANSWER->B Because a major symptom of IPAH is exertional dyspnea, an improvement in this symptom would indicate that the medication was effective. Nifedipine will affect BP and heart rate, but these parameters would not be used to monitor the effectiveness of therapy for a patient with IPAH. The chest x-ray will show clear lung fields even if the therapy is not effective. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for the procedure? a. Start a peripheral IV line to administer the necessary sedative drugs. b. Position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. c. Obtain a large collection device to hold 2 to 3 liters of pleural fluid at one time. d. Remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for 6 hours. -ANSWER->B When the patient is sitting up, fluid accumulates in the pleural space at the lung bases and can more easily be located and removed. The patient does not usually require sedation for the procedure, and there are no restrictions on oral intake because the patient is not sedated or unconscious. Usually only 1000 to 1200 mL of pleural fluid is removed at one time. Rapid removal of a large volume can result in hypotension, hypoxemia, or pulmonary edema. The nurse completes discharge teaching for a patient who has had a lung transplant. The nurse evaluates that the teaching has been effective if the patient makes which statement? a. I will make an appointment to see the doctor every year. b. I will stop taking the prednisone if I experience a dry cough. c. I will not worry if I feel a little short of breath with exercise. d. I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever. -ANSWER->D Low-grade fever may indicate infection or acute rejection so the patient should notify the health care provider immediately if the temperature is elevated. Patients require frequent follow-up visits with the transplant team. Annual health care provider visits would not be sufficient. Home oxygen use is not an expectation after lung transplant. Shortness of breath should be reported. Low-grade fever, fatigue, dyspnea, dry cough, and oxygen desaturation are signs of rejection. Immunosuppressive therapy, including prednisone, needs to be continued to prevent rejection. A patient has just been admitted with probable bacterial pneumonia and sepsis. Which order should the nurse implement first? a. Chest x-ray via stretcher b. Blood cultures from two sites c. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 400 mg IV d. The patient has a cough that is productive of blood-tinged mucus. -ANSWER->C Drug interactions can occur between the antiretrovirals used to treat HIV infection and the medications used to treat TB. The other data are expected in a patient with HIV and TB. . A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority? a. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness b. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness c. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions d. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion - ANSWER->D All these nursing diagnoses are appropriate for the patient, but the patients oxygen saturation indicates that all body tissues are at risk for hypoxia unless the gas exchange is improved. . . The nurse supervises unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are providing care for a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia. The nurse should intervene if which action by UAP is observed? a. UAP splint the patients chest during coughing. b. UAP assist the patient to ambulate to the bathroom. c. UAP help the patient to a bedside chair for meals. d. UAP lower the head of the patients bed to 15 degrees. - ANSWER->D Positioning the patient with the head of the bed lowered will decrease ventilation. The other actions are appropriate for a patient with pneumonia. . A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/minute, blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy. b. Notify the patients health care provider. c. Prepare patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT). d. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowlers position. - ANSWER->D The patient has symptoms consistent with a pulmonary embolism (PE). Elevating the head of the bed will improve ventilation and gas exchange. The other actions can be accomplished after the head is elevated (and oxygen is started). A spiral CT may be ordered by the health care provider to identify PE. Anticoagulants may be ordered after confirmation of the diagnosis of PE. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled b. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath c. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes d. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2 F (37.8 C) - ANSWER->B Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism and d. Observe the patient use the incentive spirometer. -ANSWER- >C A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain (which increases with deep breathing and coughing). The first action by the nurse should be to medicate the patient to minimize incisional pain. The other actions are all appropriate ways to improve airway clearance but should be done after the morphine is given. The nurse is caring for a patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) who is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse? a. The oxygen saturation is 94%. b. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg. c. The patients central IV line is disconnected. d. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged. - ANSWER->C The half-life of this drug is 6 minutes, so the nurse will need to restart the infusion as soon as possible to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. The other data also indicate a need for ongoing monitoring or intervention, but the priority action is to reconnect the infusion. . A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain of 7 (based on 0 to 10 scale) whenever I take a deep breath. Which action will the nurse take next? a. Auscultate breath sounds. b. Administer the PRN morphine. c. Have the patient cough forcefully. d. Notify the patients health care provider. -ANSWER->A The patients statement indicates that pleurisy or a pleural effusion may have developed and the nurse will need to listen for a pleural friction rub and/or decreased breath sounds. Assessment should occur before administration of pain medications. The patient is unlikely to be able to cough forcefully until pain medication has been administered. The nurse will want to obtain more assessment data before calling the health care provider. A patient has acute bronchitis with a nonproductive cough and wheezes. Which topic should the nurse plan to include in the teaching plan? A. Purpose of antibiotic therapy B. Ways to limit oral fluid intake C. Appropriate use of cough suppressants D. Safety concerns with home oxygen therapy -ANSWER->C Cough suppressants are frequently prescribed for acute bronchitis. Because most acute bronchitis is viral in origin, antibiotics are not prescribed unless there are systemic symptoms. Fluid intake is encouraged. Home oxygen is not prescribed for acute bronchitis, although it may be used for chronic bronchitis. Which action by the nurse will be most effective in decreasing the spread of pertussis in a community setting? a. Providing supportive care to patients diagnosed with pertussis b. Teaching family members about the need for careful hand washing c. Teaching patients about the need for adult pertussis immunizations d. Encouraging patients to complete the prescribed course of antibiotics -ANSWER->C The nurse provides discharge teaching for a patient who has two fractured ribs from an automobile accident. Which statement, if made by the patient, would indicate that teaching has been effective? a. I am going to buy a rib binder to wear during the day. b. I can take shallow breaths to prevent my chest from hurting. c. I should plan on taking the pain pills only at bedtime so I can sleep. d. I will use the incentive spirometer every hour or two during the day. -ANSWER->D Prevention of the complications of atelectasis and pneumonia is a priority after rib fracture. This can be ensured by deep breathing and coughing. Use of a rib binder, shallow breathing, and taking pain medications only at night are likely to result in atelectasis. . The nurse is caring for a patient who has a right-sided chest tube after a right lower lobectomy. Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Document the amount of drainage every eight hours. b. Obtain samples of drainage for culture from the system. c. Assess patient pain level associated with the chest tube. d. Check the water-seal chamber for the correct fluid level. - ANSWER->A UAP education includes documentation of intake and output. The other actions are within the scope of practice and education of licensed nursing personnel. . After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 72-year-old with cor pulmonale who has 4+ bilateral edema in his legs and feet b. 28-year-old with a history of a lung transplant and a temperature of 101 F (38.3 C) c. 40-year-old with a pleural effusion who is complaining of severe stabbing chest pain d. 64-year-old with lung cancer and tracheal deviation after subclavian catheter insertion . -ANSWER->D The patients history and symptoms suggest possible tension pneumothorax, a medical emergency. The other patients also require assessment as soon as possible, but tension pneumothorax will require immediate treatment to avoid death from inadequate cardiac output or hypoxemia. . Which factors will the nurse consider when calculating the CURB-65 score for a patient with pneumonia (select all that apply)? a. Age b. Blood pressure c. Respiratory rate d. Oxygen saturation e. Presence of confusion f. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level -ANSWER->A, B, C, E, F Data collected for the CURB-65 are: - mental status (confusion), - BUN (elevated), - blood pressure (decreased), - respiratory rate (increased), - and age (65 and older). The other information is also essential to assess, but are not used for CURB-65 scoring. The patient has a temperature of 105.2° F. The nurse is attempting to lower temperature by providing tepid sponge baths and placing cool compresses in strategic body locations. Which technique is the nurse using to lower the patient's temperature? a. Radiation b. Conduction c. Convection d. Evaporation -ANSWER->B Applying an ice pack or bathing a patient with a cool cloth increases conductive heat loss because of the direct contact. Radiation is the transfer of heat from the surface of one object to the surface of another without direct contact between the two. Evaporation is the transfer of heat energy when a liquid is changed to a gas. Convection is the transfer of heat away from the body by air movement A nurse is focusing on temperature regulation of newborns and infants. Which action will the nurse take? a. Apply just a diaper. b. Double the clothing. c. Place a cap on their heads. d. Increase room temperature to 90 degrees . -ANSWER->C A newborn loses up to 30% of body heat through the head and therefore needs to wear a cap to prevent heat loss. Temperature control mechanisms in newborns are immature and respond drastically to changes in the environment; do not increase the room temperature to 90 degrees. Take extra care to protect newborns from environmental temperatures. Provide adequate clothing; do not double the clothing or apply just a diaper The nurse is working the night shift on a surgical unit and is making 4:00 AM rounds. The nurse notices that the patient's temperature is 96.8° F (36° C), whereas at 4:00 PM the preceding day, it was 98.6° F (37° C). What should the nurse do? a. Call the health care provider immediately to report a possible infection. b. Administer medication to lower the temperature further. c. Provide another blanket to conserve body temperature. d. Realize that this is a normal temperature variation -ANSWER- >D Body temperature normally changes 0.5° to 1° C (0.9° to 1.8° F) during a 24-hour period and is usually lowest between 1:00 and 4:00 AM, with a maximum temperature at 4:00 PM, making this variation normal for the time of day. Unless the patient reports being cold, there is no physiological need for providing an extra blanket or medication to lower the body temperature further. There is also no need to call a health care provider to report a normal temperature variation. The nurse is caring for a patient who has a temperature reading of 100.4° F (38° C). The patient's last two temperature readings were 98.6° F (37° C) and 96.8° F (36° C). Which action will the nurse take? a. Wait 30 minutes and recheck the patient's temperature. b. Assume that the patient has an infection and order blood cultures. c. Encourage the patient to move around to increase muscular activity. d. Be aware that temperatures this high are harmful and affect patient safety -ANSWER->A Waiting 30 minutes and rechecking the patient's temperature would be the most appropriate action in this case. A fever is usually not harmful if it stays below 102.2° F (39° C), & a single temperature reading does not always indicate a fever. In addition to physical signs & symptoms of infection, a fever determination is based on several temperature readings at different times of the day compared with the usual value for that person at that time. Nurses should base actions on knowledge, not on assumptions. Encouraging the patient to increase muscular activity will cause heat production to rises. Myocardial hypoxia produces angina. Cerebral hypoxia produces confusion. Dehydration is a serious problem through increased respiration and diaphoresis. The patient is at risk for fluid volume deficit. Fluids should not be restricted, even though the patient has heart failure; the patient needs fluids at this time due to the fever. Increasing the metabolic rate further would not be advisable. Coughing will increase muscular activity, which will increase fever The patient requires temperatures to be taken every 2 hours. Which task will the nurse assign to an RN? a. Using appropriate route and device b. Assessing changes in body temperature c. Being aware of the usual values for the patient d. Obtaining temperature measurement at ordered frequency . -ANSWER->B The nurse is responsible for assessing changes in body temperature. T he nursing assistive personnel can use the appropriate route and device to measure temperature, obtain temperature measurement at ordered frequency, and be aware of the usual values for the patient . The patient requires routine temperature assessment but is confused, easily agitated, and has a history of seizures. Which route will the nurse use to obtain the patient's temperature? a. Oral b. Rectal c. Axillary d. Tympanic . -ANSWER->D The tympanic route is easily accessible, requires minimal patient repositioning, and often can be used without disturbing the patient. It also has a very rapid measurement time. Oral temperatures require patient cooperation and are not recommended for patients with a history of seizures. Rectal temperatures require positioning and may increase patient agitation. Axillary temperatures need long measurement times and continuous positioning. The patient's agitation state may not allow for long periods of attention The patient is being admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. The patient's jaw is broken with several broken teeth. The patient is ashen, has cool skin, and is diaphoretic (sweating). Which route will the nurse use to obtain an accurate temperature reading? a. Oral b. Axillary c. Tympanic d. Temporal -ANSWER->C The tympanic route is the best choice in this situation. - Oral temperatures are not used for patients who have had oral surgery, trauma, history of epilepsy, or shaking chills. - Axillary temperature is affected by exposure to the environment, including time to place the thermometer. It also requires a long measurement time. - Temporal artery temperature is affected by skin moisture such as diaphoresis or sweating The nurse is caring for an infant and is obtaining the patient's vital signs. Which artery will the nurse use to best obtain the infant's pulse? a. Radial b. Brachial c. Femoral d. Popliteal . -ANSWER->B The brachial or apical pulse is the best site for assessing an infant's or a young child's pulse because other peripheral pulses . -ANSWER->C Do not let a patient know that you are assessing respirations. A patient aware of the assessment can alter the rate and depth of breathing. Assess respirations immediately after measuring pulse rate, with your hand still on the patient's wrist as it rests over the chest or abdomen. Respirations are the easiest of all vital signs to assess, but they are often the most haphazardly measured. Do not estimate respirations. The patient's blood pressure is 140/60. Which value will the nurse record for the pulse pressure? a. 60 b. 80 c. 140 d. 200 . -ANSWER->B The difference between the systolic pressure and the diastolic pressure is the pulse pressure. For a blood pressure of 140/60, the pulse pressure is 80 (140 − 60 = 80). 140 is the systolic pressure. 60 is the diastolic pressure. 200 is the systolic (140) added to the diastolic (60), but this has no clinical significance The nurse reviews the laboratory results for a patient and determines the viscosity of the blood is thick. Which laboratory result did the nurse check? a. Arterial blood gas b. Blood culture c. Hematocrit d. Potassium -ANSWER->C The hematocrit, or the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, determines blood viscosity. Blood cultures determine the causative agent of an infection. Abnormal potassium levels can cause dysrhythmias. Arterial blood gases determine acid-base balance or the pH levels of the blood. . The patient is being admitted to the emergency department with reports of shortness of breath. The patient has had chronic lung disease for many years but still smokes. What will the nurse do? a. Allow the patient to breathe into a paper bag. b. Use oxygen cautiously in this patient. c. Administer high levels of oxygen. d. Give CO2 via mask -ANSWER->B Oxygen must be used cautiously in these types of patients. Hypoxemia helps to control ventilation in patients with chronic lung disease. Because low levels of arterial O2 provide the stimulus that allows a patient to breathe, administration of high oxygen levels may be fatal for patients with chronic lung disease. Patients with chronic lung disease have ongoing hypercarbia (elevated CO2 levels) and do not need to have CO2 administered or "rebreathed" with a paper bag A nurse is reviewing capnography results for adult patients. Which value will cause the nurse to follow up? a. 35 mm Hg b. 40 mm Hg c. 45 mm Hg d. 50 mm Hg . -ANSWER->D 50 mm Hg is abnormal so the nurse will follow up. Normal capnography results are 35 to 45 mm Hg . The concentration of hemoglobin reflects the patient's capacity to carry oxygen, which if low can lead to shortness of breath and chest discomfort. Normal hemoglobin levels range from 14 to 18 g/100 mL in males and from 12 to 16 g/100 mL in females. Hemoglobin of 8.0 is low and indicates a decreased ability to deliver oxygen to meet bodily needs. All other values in the selection are considered normal. A nurse reviews blood pressures of several patients. Which finding will the nurse report as prehypertension? a. 98/50 in a 7-year-old child b. 115/70 in an infant c. 120/80 in a middle-aged adult d. 146/90 in an older adult . -ANSWER->C An adult's blood pressure tends to rise with advancing age. The optimal blood pressure for a healthy, middle-aged adult is less than 120/80. Values of 120 to 139/80 to 89 mm Hg are considered prehypertension. Blood pressure greater than 140/90 is defined as hypertension. Blood pressure of 98/50 is normal for a child, whereas 115/70 can be normal for an infant The nurse is providing a blood pressure clinic for the community. Which group will the nurse most likely address? a. Non-Hispanic Caucasians b. European Americans c. African-Americans d. Asian Americans . -ANSWER->C The incidence of hypertension is greater in diabetic patients, older adults, and African-Americans. The incidence of hypertension (high BP) is higher in African- Americans than in European Americans . A nurse is caring for a patient who smokes and drinks caffeine. Which point is important for the nurse to understand before assessing the patient's blood pressure (BP)? a. Smoking increases BP for up to 3 hours. b. Caffeine increases BP for up to 15 minutes. c. Smoking result in vasoconstriction, falsely elevating BP. d. Caffeine intake should not have occurred 30 to 40 minutes before BP measurement -ANSWER->C Smoking results in vasoconstriction, a narrowing of blood vessels. BP rises when a person smokes and returns to baseline about 15-20 minutes after stopping smoking. Caffeine increases BP for up to 3 hours. Be sure that patient has not ingested caffeine or smoked 20 to 30 minutes before BP measurement. . When taking the pulse of an infant, the nurse notices that the rate is 145 beats/min and the rhythm is regular. How should the nurse interpret this finding? a. This is normal for an infant. b. This is too fast for an infant. c. This is too slow for an infant. d. This is not a rate for an infant but for a toddler -ANSWER->A The normal rate for an infant is 120 to 160 beats/min. The rate obtained (145 beats/min) is within the normal range for an infant. The normal rate for a toddler is between 90 and 140 beats/min; 145 is too high for a toddler. The nurse is caring for a newborn infant in the hospital nursery and notices that the infant is breathing rapidly but is pink, warm, and dry. Which normal respiratory rate will the nurse consider when planning care for this newborn? a. 30 to 60 b. 22 to 28 c. 16 to 20 d. 10 to 15 -ANSWER->A The acceptable respiratory rate range for a newborn is 30 to 60 breaths/min. An infant (6 months) is expected to have a rate between 30 and 50 breaths/min. - A toddler's respiratory range is 25 to 32 breaths/min. A child should breathe 20 to 30 times a minute. - An adolescent should breathe 16 to 20 times a minute. - An adult should breathe 12 to 20 times a minute. The nurse is preparing to obtain an oxygen saturation reading on a toddler. Which action will the nurse take? a. Secure the sensor to the toddler's earlobe. b. Determine whether the toddler has a latex allergy. c. Place the sensor on the bridge of the toddler's nose. d. Overlook variations between an oximeter pulse rate and the toddler's pulse rate. . -ANSWER->B The nurse should determine whether the patient has a latex allergy because disposable adhesive probes should not be used on patients with latex allergies. Earlobe and bridge of the nose sensors should not be used on infants and toddlers because of skin fragility. Oximeter pulse rate and the patient's apical pulse rate should be the same. Any difference requires re-evaluation of oximeter sensor probe placement and reassessment of pulse rates. The nurse is preparing to assess the blood pressure of a 3-year- old. How should the nurse proceed? a. Use the diaphragm portion of the stethoscope to detect Korotkoff sounds. b. Obtain the reading before the child has a chance to "settle down." c. Choose the cuff that says "Child" instead of "Infant." d. Explain the procedure to the child . -ANSWER->D The child's cooperation is increased when you or the parent have prepared the child for the unusual sensation of the BP cuff. Most children understand the analogy of a "tight hug on your arm." Different arm sizes require careful and appropriate cuff size selection. Do not choose a cuff based on the name of the cuff. An "Infant" cuff is too small for some infants. Readings are difficult to obtain in restless or anxious infants and children. Allow at least 15 minutes for children to recover from recent activities and become less apprehensive. Korotkoff sounds are difficult to hear in children because of low frequency and amplitude. A pediatric stethoscope bell is often helpful. A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient will the nurse see first? a. A crying infant with P-165 and R-54 b. A sleeping toddler with P-88 and R-23 c. A calm adolescent with P-95 and R-26 d. An exercising adult with P-108 and R-24 . -ANSWER->C A calm adolescent should have the following findings: P—60-90 and R—16-20. Since both findings are elevated, the nurse should see this patient first. - An infant should have the following findings: P— 120-160 and R—30-50; however, since the infant is crying these values will be elevated and this is normal. - A toddler should have the following findings: P—90-140 and R—25-32; however, since the toddler is sleeping these values can be slightly decreased and this is normal.