NCLEX-PN EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS 2023/2024 UPDATES 100% CORRECT, Exams of Nursing

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NCLEX-PN EXAM QUESTIONS WITH

ANSWERS 2023/2024 UPDATES 100% CORRECT

1. A 24-year-old female client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the nurse? A. Taking the vital signs B. Obtaining the permit C. Explaining the procedure D. Checking the lab work
2. The nurse is working in the emergency room when a client arrives with severe burns of the left arm, hands, face, and neck. Which action should receive priority? A. Starting an IV B. Applying oxygen C. Obtaining blood gases D. Medicating the client for pain
3. The nurse is visiting a home health client with osteoporosis. The client has a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which instruction should be given to the client? A. Rest in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes B. Avoid rapid movements after taking the medication C. Take the medication with water only D. Allow at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and taking other medications

4. The nurse is making initial rounds on a client with a C5 fracture and crutchfield tongs. Which equipment should be kept at the bedside? A. A pair of forceps B. A torque wrench C. A pair of wire cutters D. A screwdriver
5. An infant weighs 7 pounds at birth. The expected weight by 1 year should be: A. 10 pounds B. 12 pounds C. 18 pounds D. 21 pounds
6. A client is admitted with a Ewing’s sarcoma. Which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor’s location? A. Hemiplegia B. Aphasia C. Nausea D. Bone pain
7. The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory value might indicate a serious side effect of this drug? A. Uric acid of 5mg/dL

B. Hematocrit of 33% C. WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter D. Platelets 150,000 per cubic millimeter

8. A 6-month-old client is admitted with possible intussuception. Which question during the nursing history is least helpful in obtaining information regarding this diagnosis? A. “Tell me about his pain.” B. “What does his vomit look like?” C. “Describe his usual diet.” D. “Have you noticed changes in his abdominal size?”
9. The nurse is assisting a client with diverticulosis to select appropriate foods. Which food should be avoided? A. Bran B. Fresh peaches C. Cucumber salad D. Yeast rolls
10. A client has rectal cancer and is scheduled for an abdominal perineal resection. What should be the priority nursing care during the post-op period? A. Teaching how to irrigate the illeostomy B. Stopping electrolyte loss in the incisional area C. Encouraging a high-fiber diet D. Facilitating perineal wound drainage

11. The nurse is performing discharge teaching on a client with diverticulitis who has been placed on a low-roughage diet. Which food would have to be eliminated from this client’s diet? A. Roasted chicken B. Noodles C. Cooked broccoli D. Custard
12. A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for: A. Trendelenburg position B. Ice to the entire extremity C. Buck’s traction D. An abduction pillow
13. A client with cancer is to undergo an intravenous pyelogram. The nurse should: A. Force fluids 24 hours before the procedure B. Ask the client to void immediately before the study C. Hold medication that affects the central nervous system for 12 hours pre- and post-test D. Cover the client’s reproductive organs with an x-ray shield
14. The nurse is caring for a client with a malignancy. The classification of the primary tumor is Tis. The nurse should plan care for a tumor: A. That cannot be assessed B. That is in situ

C. With increasing lymph node involvement D. With distant metastasis

15. A client is 2 days post-operative colon resection. After a coughing episode, the client’s wound eviscerates. Which nursing action is most appropriate? A. Reinsert the protruding organ and cover with 4×4s B. Cover the wound with a sterile 4×4 and ABD dressing C. Cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing D. Apply an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound
16. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which item is most important to remove before sending the client to surgery? A. Hearing aid B. Contact lenses C. Wedding ring D. Artificial eye
17. The nurse on the 3–11 shift is assessing the chart of a client with an abdominal aneurysm scheduled for surgery in the morning and finds that the consent form has been signed, but the client is unclear about the surgery and possible complications. Which is the most appropriate action? A. Call the surgeon and ask him or her to see the client to clarify the information B. Explain the procedure and complications to the client C. Check in the physician’s progress notes to see if understanding has been documented D. Check with the client’s family to see if they understand the procedure fully

18. The client with diabetes is preparing for discharge. During discharge teaching, the nurse assesses the client’s ability to care for himself. Which statement made by the client would indicate a need for follow-up after discharge? A. “I live by myself.” B. “I have trouble seeing.” C. “I have a cat in the house with me.” D. “I usually drive myself to the doctor.”
19. The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which lab test should be evaluated while the client is receiving TPN? A. Hemoglobin B. Creatinine C. Blood glucose D. White blood cell count
20. The client with a myocardial infarction comes to the nurse’s station stating that he is ready to go home because there is nothing wrong with him. Which defense mechanism is the client using? A. Rationalization B. Denial C. Projection D. Conversion reaction

21. Which laboratory test would be the least effective in making the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction? A. AST B. Troponin C. CK-MB D. Myoglobin
22. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the post-partal unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam? A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby
23. The first exercise that should be performed by the client who had a mastectomy is: A. Walking the hand up the wall B. Sweeping the floor C. Combing her hair D. Squeezing a ball
24. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?

A. Atropine sulfate B. Furosemide C. Prostigmin D. Promethazine

25. The client is scheduled for a pericentesis. Which instruction should be given to the client before the exam? A. “You will need to lay flat during the exam.” B. “You need to empty your bladder before the procedure.” C. “You will be asleep during the procedure.” D. “The doctor will inject a medication to treat your illness during the procedure.”
26. To ensure safety while administering a nitroglycerine patch, the nurse should: A. Wear gloves B. Shave the area where the patch will be applied C. Wash the area thoroughly with soap and rinse with hot water D. Apply the patch to the buttocks
27. The physician has prescribed tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) 10mg bid. The nurse should teach the client to refrain from eating foods containing tyramine because it may cause: A. Hypertension B. Hyperthermia C. Melanoma D. Urinary retention

28. The child with seizure disorder is being treated with Dilantin (phenytoin). Which of the following statements by the patient’s mother indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a side effect of Dilantin therapy? A. “She is very irritable lately.” B. “She sleeps quite a bit of the time.” C. “Her gums look too big for her teeth.” D. “She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months.”
29. A 5-year-old is admitted to the unit following a tonsillectomy. Which of the following would indicate a complication of the surgery? A. Decreased appetite B. A low-grade fever C. Chest congestion D. Constant swallowing
30. A 6-year-old with cerebral palsy functions at the level of an 18-month- old. Which finding would support that assessment? A. She dresses herself. B. She pulls a toy behind her. C. She can build a tower of eight blocks. D. She can copy a horizontal or vertical line.

31. Which information obtained from the mother of a child with cerebral palsy most likely correlates to the diagnosis? A. She was born at 42 weeks gestation. B. She had meningitis when she was 6 months old. C. She had physiologic jaundice after delivery. D. She has frequent sore throats.
32. A 10-year-old is being treated for asthma. Before administering Theodur, the nurse should check the: A. Urinary output B. Blood pressure C. Pulse D. Temperature
33. An elderly client is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has surgery followed by chemotherapy with a fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the nurse do if she notices crystals and cloudiness in the IV medication? A. Discard the solution and order a new bag B. Warm the solution C. Continue the infusion and document the finding D. Discontinue the medication
34. The client is diagnosed with multiple myoloma. The doctor has ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given to the client?

A. “Walk about a mile a day to prevent calcium loss.” B. “Increase the fiber in your diet.” C. “Report nausea to the doctor immediately.” D. “Drink at least eight large glasses of water a day.”

35. The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication? A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night D. Telling the client to take the medication if night sweats occur
36. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus errythymatosis. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning? A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning. B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning. C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal. D. Morning administration mimics the body’s natural secretion of corticosteroid.
37. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan? A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.

B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics. C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together. D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.

38. A 60-year-old diabetic is taking glyburide (Diabeta) 1.25mg daily to treat Type II diabetes mellitus. Which statement indicates the need for further teaching? A. “I will keep candy with me just in case my blood sugar drops.” B. “I need to stay out of the sun as much as possible.” C. “I often skip dinner because I don’t feel hungry.” D. “I always wear my medical identification.”
39. The physician prescribes regular insulin, 5 units subcutaneous. Regular insulin begins to exert an effect: A. In 5–10 minutes B. In 10–20 minutes C. In 30–60 minutes D. In 60–120 minutes
40. Vitamin K (aquamephyton) is administered to a newborn shortly after birth for which of the following reasons? A. To prevent dehydration B. To treat infection C. To replace electrolytes D. To facilitate clotting

41. The client with an ileostomy is being discharged. Which teaching should be included in the plan of care? A. Use Karaya powder to seal the bag. B. Irrigate the ileostomy daily. C. Stomahesive is the best skin protector. D. Neosporin ointment can be used to protect the skin.
42. The client has an order for FeSo4 liquid. Which method of administration would be best? A. Administer the medication with milk B. Administer the medication with a meal C. Administer the medication with orange juice D. Administer the medication undiluted
43. The client arrives in the emergency room with a hyphema. Which action by the nurse would be best? A. Elevate the head of the bed and apply ice to the eye B. Place the client in a supine position and apply heat to the knee C. Insert a Foley catheter and measure the intake and output D. Perform a vaginal exam and check for a discharge
44. The nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the nursing assistant?

A. The 18-year-old with a fracture to two cervical vertebrae B. The infant with meningitis C. The elderly client with a thyroidectomy 4 days ago D. The client with a thoracotomy 2 days ago

45. The client arrives in the emergency room with a “bull’s eye” rash. Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client? A. “Have you found any ticks on your body?” B. “Have you had any nausea in the last 24 hours?” C. “Have you been outside the country in the last 6 months?” D. “Have you had any fever for the past few days?”
46. Which of the following is the best indicator of the diagnosis of HIV? A. White blood cell count B. ELISA C. Western Blot D. Complete blood count
47. The nurse is evaluating nutritional outcomes for an elderly client with anorexia. Which data best indicates that the plan of care is effective? A. The client selects a balanced diet from the menu. B. The client’s hematocrit improves. C. The client’s tissue turgor improves. D. The client gains weight.

48. The client is admitted following repair of a fractured femur with cast application. Which nursing assessment should be reported to the doctor? A. Pain B. Warm toes C. Pedal pulses rapid D. Paresthesia of the toes
49. Which would be an expected finding during injection of dye with a cardiac catheterization? A. Cold extremity distant to the injection site B. Warmth in the extremity C. Extreme chest pain D. Itching in the extremities
50. Which action by the healthcare worker indicates a need for further teaching? A. The nursing assistant wears gloves while giving the client a bath. B. The nurse wears goggles while drawing blood from the client. C. The doctor washes his hands before examining the client. D. The nurse wears gloves to take the client’s vital signs.
51. The client is having electroconvulsive therapy for treatment of severe depression. Which of the following indicates that the client’s ECT has been effective?

A. The client loses consciousness. B. The client vomits. C. The client’s ECG indicates tachycardia. D. The client has a grand mal seizure.

52. A 5-year-old is being tested for pinworms. To collect a specimen for assessment of pinworms, the nurse should teach the mother to: A. Examine the perianal area with a flashlight 2–3 hours after the child is asleep and to collect any eggs on a clear tape B. Scrape the skin with a piece of cardboard and bring it to the clinic C. Obtain a stool specimen in the afternoon D. Bring a hair sample to the clinic for evaluation
53. Which instruction should be given regarding the medication used to treat enterobiasis (pinworms)? A. Treatment is not recommended for children less than 10 years of age. B. The entire family should be treated. C. Medication therapy will continue for 1 year. D. Intravenous antibiotic therapy will be ordered.
54. Which client should be assigned to the pregnant licensed practical nurse? A. The client who just returned after receiving linear accelerator radiation therapy for lung cancer B. The client with a radium implant for cervical cancer

C. The client who has just been administered soluble brachytherapy for thyroid cancer D. The client who has returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer

55. Which client should be assigned to a private room if only one is available? A. The client with Cushing’s syndrome B. The client with diabetes C. The client with acromegaly D. The client with myxedema
56. The nurse caring for a client on the pediatric unit administers adult- strength Digitalis to the 3-pound infant. As a result of her actions, the baby suffers permanent heart and brain damage. The nurse can be charged with: A. Negligence B. Tort C. Assault D. Malpractice
57. Which assignment should not be performed by the licensed practical nurse? A. Inserting a Foley catheter B. Discontinuing a nasogastric tube C. Obtaining a sputum specimen D. Initiating a blood transfusion

58. A client in the family planning clinic asks the nurse about the most likely time for her to conceive. The nurse explains that conception is most likely to occur when: A. Estrogen levels are low. B. Lutenizing hormone is high. C. The endometrial lining is thin. D. The progesterone level is low.
59. A client tells the nurse that she plans to use the rhythm method of birth control. The nurse is aware that the success of the rhythm method depends on the: A. Age of the client B. Frequency of intercourse C. Regularity of the menses D. Range of the client’s temperature
60. A client with diabetes asks the nurse for advice regarding methods of birth control. Which method of birth control is most suitable for the client with diabetes? A. Intrauterine device B. Oral contraceptives C. Diaphragm D. Contraceptive sponge
61. The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is consistent with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy? A. Painless vaginal bleeding

B. Abdominal cramping C. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant D. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant

62. The nurse is teaching a pregnant client about nutritional needs during pregnancy. Which menu selection will best meet the nutritional needs of the pregnant client? A. Hamburger pattie, green beans, French fries, and iced tea B. Roast beef sandwich, potato chips, baked beans, and cola C. Baked chicken, fruit cup, potato salad, coleslaw, yogurt, and iced tea D. Fish sandwich, gelatin with fruit, and coffee
63. The client with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for developing: A. Respiratory alkalosis without dehydration B. Metabolic acidosis with dehydration C. Respiratory acidosis without dehydration D. Metabolic alkalosis with dehydration
64. A client with a fractured hip has been placed in traction. Which statement is true regarding balanced skeletal traction? Balanced skeletal traction: A. Utilizes a pin through bones B. Requires that both legs be secured C. Utilizes Kirschner wires D. Is used primarily to heal the fractured hips

65. The client is admitted for an open reduction internal fixation of a fractured hip. Immediately following surgery, the nurse should give priority to assessing the client for: A. Hypovolemia B. Pain C. Nutritional status D. Immobilizer
66. Which statement made by the family member caring for the client with a percutaneous gastrotomy tube indicates understanding of the nurse’s teaching? A. “I must flush the tube with water after feedings and clamp the tube.” B. “I must check placement four times per day.” C. “I will report to the doctor any signs of indigestion.” D. “If my father is unable to swallow, I will discontinue the feeding and call the clinic.”
67. The nurse is assessing the client with a total knee replacement 2 hours post- operative. Which information requires notification of the doctor? A. Bleeding on the dressing is 2cm in diameter. B. The client has a low-grade temperature. C. The client’s hemoglobin is 6g/dL. D. The client voids after surgery.
68. The nurse is caring for the client with a 5-year-old diagnosed with plumbism. Which information in the health history is most likely related to the development of plumbism?

A. The client has traveled out of the country in the last 6 months. B. The client’s parents are skilled stained-glass artists. C. The client lives in a house built in 1990. D. The client has several brothers and sisters.

69. A client with a total hip replacement requires special equipment. Which equipment would assist the client with a total hip replacement with prevention of dislocation of the prosthesis? A. An abduction pillow B. A straight chair C. A pair of crutches D. A soft mattress
70. The client with a joint replacement is scheduled to receive Lovenox (enoxaparin). Which lab value should be reported to the doctor? A. PT of 20 seconds B. PTT of 300 seconds C. Protime of 30 seconds D. INR 3
71. The nurse is responsible for performing a neonatal assessment on a full- term infant. At 1 minute, the nurse could expect to find: A. An apical pulse of 100 B. Absence of tonus

C. Cyanosis of the feet and hands D. Jaundice of the skin and sclera

72. A client with sickle cell anemia is admitted to the labor and delivery unit during the first phase of labor. The nurse should anticipate the client’s need for: A. Supplemental oxygen B. Fluid restriction C. Blood transfusion D. Delivery by Caesarean section
73. A client with diabetes has an order for ultrasonography. Preparation for an ultrasound includes: A. Increasing fluid intake B. Limiting ambulation C. Administering an enema D. Withholding food for 8 hours
74. An infant who weighs 8 pounds at birth would be expected to weigh how many pounds at 1 year? A. 14 pounds B. 16 pounds C. 18 pounds D. 24 pounds

75. A pregnant client with a history of alcohol addiction is scheduled for a nonstress test. The nonstress test: A. Determines the lung maturity of the fetus B. Measures the activity of the fetus C. Shows the effect of contractions on the fetal heart rate D. Measures the neurological well-being of the fetus
76. A full-term male has hypospadias. Which statement describes hypospadias? A. The urethral opening is absent. B. The urethra opens on the dorsal side of the penis. C. The penis is shorter than usual. D. The urethra opens on the ventral side of the penis.
77. A gravida III para II is admitted to the labor unit. Vaginal exam reveals that the client’s cervix is 8cm dilated withcomplete effacement. The priority nursing diagnosis at this time is: A. Alteration in coping related to pain B. Potential for injury related to precipitate delivery C. Alteration in elimination related to anesthesia D. Potential for fluid volume deficit related to NPO status
78. The client with varicella will most likely have an order for which category of medication? A. Antibiotics

B. Antipyretics C. Antivirals D. Anticoagulants

79. A client is admitted with complaints of chest pain. Which of the following drug orders should the nurse question? A. Nitroglycerin B. Ampicillin C. Propranolol D. Verapamil
80. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching for the client with rheumatoid arthritis? A. Avoid exercise because it fatigues the joints. B. Take prescribed anti-inflammatory medications with meals. C. Alternate hot and cold packs to affected joints. D. Avoid weight-bearing activity.
81. A client with acute pancreatitis is experiencing severe abdominal pain. Which of the following orders should the nurse question? A. Meperidine B. Mylanta C. Cimetadine D. Morphine

82. The primary reason for rapid continuous rewarming of the area affected by frostbite is to: A. Lessen the amount of cellular damage B. Prevent the formation of blisters C. Promote movement D. Prevent pain and discomfort
83. A client recently started on hemodialysis wants to know how the dialysis will take the place of his kidneys. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that hemodialysis works by: A. Passing water through the dialyzing membrane B. Eliminating plasma proteins from the blood C. Lowering the pH by removing nonvolatile acids D. Filtering waste through a dialyzing membrane
84. During a home visit, a client with AIDS tells the nurse that he has been exposed to measles. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Administering an antibiotic B. Contacting the physician for an order for immune globulin C. Administering an antiviral D. Telling the client that he should remain in isolation for 2 weeks
85. A client hospitalized with MRSA (methicillin-resistant staph aureus) is placed on contact precautions. Which statement is true regarding precautions for infections spread by contact?