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NCLEX-PN LATEST 2025 EXAM
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- A 24 - year-old female client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the nurse? A. Taking the vital signs B. Obtaining the permit C. Explaining the procedure D. Checking the lab work
- The nurse is working in the emergency room when a client arrives with severe burns of the left arm, hands, face, and neck. Which action should receive priority? A. Starting an IV B. Applying oxygen C. Obtaining blood gases D. Medicating the client for pain
- The nurse is visiting a home health client with osteoporosis. The client has a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which instruction should be given to the client? A. Rest in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes B. Avoid rapid movements after taking the medication C. Take the medication with water only D. Allow at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and taking other medications
- The nurse is making initial rounds on a client with a C5 fracture and crutchfield tongs. Which equipment should be kept at the bedside? A. A pair of forceps B. A torque wrench C. A pair of wire cutters D. A screwdriver
- An infant weighs 7 pounds at birth. The expected weight by 1 year should be: A. 10 pounds B. 12 pounds C. 18 pounds D. 21 pounds
- A client is admitted with a Ewing’s sarcoma. Which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor’s location? A. Hemiplegia B. Aphasia C. Nausea D. Bone pain
- The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory value might indicate a serious side effect of this drug? A. Uric acid of 5mg/dL
- The nurse is performing discharge teaching on a client with diverticulitis who has been placed on a low-roughage diet. Which food would have to be eliminated from this client’s diet? A. Roasted chicken B. Noodles C. Cooked broccoli D. Custard
- A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for: A. Trendelenburg position B. Ice to the entire extremity C. Buck’s traction D. An abduction pillow
- A client with cancer is to undergo an intravenous pyelogram. The nurse should: A. Force fluids 24 hours before the procedure B. Ask the client to void immediately before the study C. Hold medication that affects the central nervous system for 12 hours pre- and post-test D. Cover the client’s reproductive organs with an x-ray shield
- The nurse is caring for a client with a malignancy. The classification of the primary tumor is Tis. The nurse should plan care for a tumor: A. That cannot be assessed B. That is in situ
C. With increasing lymph node involvement D. With distant metastasis
- A client is 2 days post-operative colon resection. After a coughing episode, the client’s wound eviscerates. Which nursing action is most appropriate? A. Reinsert the protruding organ and cover with 4×4s B. Cover the wound with a sterile 4×4 and ABD dressing C. Cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing D. Apply an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound
- The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. Which item is most important to remove before sending the client to surgery? A. Hearing aid B. Contact lenses C. Wedding ring D. Artificial eye
- The nurse on the 3 – 11 shift is assessing the chart of a client with an abdominal aneurysm scheduled for surgery in the morning and finds that the consent form has been signed, but the client is unclear about the surgery and possible complications. Which is the most appropriate action? A. Call the surgeon and ask him or her to see the client to clarify the information B. Explain the procedure and complications to the client C. Check in the physician’s progress notes to see if understanding has been documented D. Check with the client’s family to see if they understand the procedure fully
- Which laboratory test would be the least effective in making the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction? A. AST B. Troponin C. CK-MB D. Myoglobin
- The licensed practical nurse assigned to the post-partal unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam? A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby
- The first exercise that should be performed by the client who had a mastectomy is: A. Walking the hand up the wall B. Sweeping the floor C. Combing her hair D. Squeezing a ball
- The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?
A. Atropine sulfate B. Furosemide C. Prostigmin D. Promethazine
- The client is scheduled for a pericentesis. Which instruction should be given to the client before the exam? A. “You will need to lay flat during the exam.” B. “You need to empty your bladder before the procedure.” C. “You will be asleep during the procedure.” D. “The doctor will inject a medication to treat your illness during the procedure.”
- To ensure safety while administering a nitroglycerine patch, the nurse should: A. Wear gloves B. Shave the area where the patch will be applied C. Wash the area thoroughly with soap and rinse with hot water D. Apply the patch to the buttocks
- The physician has prescribed tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) 10mg bid. The nurse should teach the client to refrain from eating foods containing tyramine because it may cause: A. Hypertension B. Hyperthermia C. Melanoma D. Urinary retention
- Which information obtained from the mother of a child with cerebral palsy most likely correlates to the diagnosis? A. She was born at 42 weeks gestation. B. She had meningitis when she was 6 months old. C. She had physiologic jaundice after delivery. D. She has frequent sore throats.
- A 10 - year-old is being treated for asthma. Before administering Theodur, the nurse should check the: A. Urinary output B. Blood pressure C. Pulse D. Temperature
- An elderly client is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has surgery followed by chemotherapy with a fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the nurse do if she notices crystals and cloudiness in the IV medication? A. Discard the solution and order a new bag B. Warm the solution C. Continue the infusion and document the finding D. Discontinue the medication
- The client is diagnosed with multiple myoloma. The doctor has ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given to the client?
A. “Walk about a mile a day to prevent calcium loss.” B. “Increase the fiber in your diet.” C. “Report nausea to the doctor immediately.” D. “Drink at least eight large glasses of water a day.”
- The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication? A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the urine C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night D. Telling the client to take the medication if night sweats occur
- The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus errythymatosis. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning? A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning. B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning. C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal. D. Morning administration mimics the body’s natural secretion of corticosteroid.
- A 20 - year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan? A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
- The client with an ileostomy is being discharged. Which teaching should be included in the plan of care? A. Use Karaya powder to seal the bag. B. Irrigate the ileostomy daily. C. Stomahesive is the best skin protector. D. Neosporin ointment can be used to protect the skin.
- The client has an order for FeSo4 liquid. Which method of administration would be best? A. Administer the medication with milk B. Administer the medication with a meal C. Administer the medication with orange juice D. Administer the medication undiluted
- The client arrives in the emergency room with a hyphema. Which action by the nurse would be best? A. Elevate the head of the bed and apply ice to the eye B. Place the client in a supine position and apply heat to the knee C. Insert a Foley catheter and measure the intake and output D. Perform a vaginal exam and check for a discharge
- The nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the nursing assistant?
A. The 18 - year-old with a fracture to two cervical vertebrae B. The infant with meningitis C. The elderly client with a thyroidectomy 4 days ago D. The client with a thoracotomy 2 days ago
- The client arrives in the emergency room with a “bull’s eye” rash. Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask the client? A. “Have you found any ticks on your body?” B. “Have you had any nausea in the last 24 hours?” C. “Have you been outside the country in the last 6 months?” D. “Have you had any fever for the past few days?”
- Which of the following is the best indicator of the diagnosis of HIV? A. White blood cell count B. ELISA C. Western Blot D. Complete blood count
- The nurse is evaluating nutritional outcomes for an elderly client with anorexia. Which data best indicates that the plan of care is effective? A. The client selects a balanced diet from the menu. B. The client’s hematocrit improves. C. The client’s tissue turgor improves. D. The client gains weight.
A. The client loses consciousness. B. The client vomits. C. The client’s ECG indicates tachycardia. D. The client has a grand mal seizure.
- A 5 - year-old is being tested for pinworms. To collect a specimen for assessment of pinworms, the nurse should teach the mother to: A. Examine the perianal area with a flashlight 2 – 3 hours after the child is asleep and to collect any eggs on a clear tape B. Scrape the skin with a piece of cardboard and bring it to the clinic C. Obtain a stool specimen in the afternoon D. Bring a hair sample to the clinic for evaluation
- Which instruction should be given regarding the medication used to treat enterobiasis (pinworms)? A. Treatment is not recommended for children less than 10 years of age. B. The entire family should be treated. C. Medication therapy will continue for 1 year. D. Intravenous antibiotic therapy will be ordered.
- Which client should be assigned to the pregnant licensed practical nurse? A. The client who just returned after receiving linear accelerator radiation therapy for lung cancer B. The client with a radium implant for cervical cancer
C. The client who has just been administered soluble brachytherapy for thyroid cancer D. The client who has returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer
- Which client should be assigned to a private room if only one is available? A. The client with Cushing’s syndrome B. The client with diabetes C. The client with acromegaly D. The client with myxedema
- The nurse caring for a client on the pediatric unit administers adult- strength Digitalis to the 3-pound infant. As a result of her actions, the baby suffers permanent heart and brain damage. The nurse can be charged with: A. Negligence B. Tort C. Assault D. Malpractice
- Which assignment should not be performed by the licensed practical nurse? A. Inserting a Foley catheter B. Discontinuing a nasogastric tube C. Obtaining a sputum specimen D. Initiating a blood transfusion
B. Abdominal cramping C. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant D. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant
- The nurse is teaching a pregnant client about nutritional needs during pregnancy. Which menu selection will best meet the nutritional needs of the pregnant client? A. Hamburger pattie, green beans, French fries, and iced tea B. Roast beef sandwich, potato chips, baked beans, and cola C. Baked chicken, fruit cup, potato salad, coleslaw, yogurt, and iced tea D. Fish sandwich, gelatin with fruit, and coffee
- The client with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for developing: A. Respiratory alkalosis without dehydration B. Metabolic acidosis with dehydration C. Respiratory acidosis without dehydration D. Metabolic alkalosis with dehydration
- A client with a fractured hip has been placed in traction. Which statement is true regarding balanced skeletal traction? Balanced skeletal traction: A. Utilizes a pin through bones B. Requires that both legs be secured C. Utilizes Kirschner wires D. Is used primarily to heal the fractured hips
- The client is admitted for an open reduction internal fixation of a fractured hip. Immediately following surgery, the nurse should give priority to assessing the client for: A. Hypovolemia B. Pain C. Nutritional status D. Immobilizer
- Which statement made by the family member caring for the client with a percutaneous gastrotomy tube indicates understanding of the nurse’s teaching? A. “I must flush the tube with water after feedings and clamp the tube.” B. “I must check placement four times per day.” C. “I will report to the doctor any signs of indigestion.” D. “If my father is unable to swallow, I will discontinue the feeding and call the clinic.”
- The nurse is assessing the client with a total knee replacement 2 hours post-operative. Which information requires notification of the doctor? A. Bleeding on the dressing is 2cm in diameter. B. The client has a low-grade temperature. C. The client’s hemoglobin is 6g/dL. D. The client voids after surgery.
- The nurse is caring for the client with a 5 - year-old diagnosed with plumbism. Which information in the health history is most likely related to the development of plumbism?