NCLEX RN NEXTGENERATION EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE, Exams of Nursing

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NCLEX RN NEXTGENERATION EXAM

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST

UPDATE

1. What is metoclopramide? A. Anti-cancer medication B. Antiemetic used to treat delayed gastric emptying, and GERD C. NSAID D. Antihistamine Answer: B. Antiemetic used to treat delayed gastric emptying, and GERD 2. What adverse effect/condition is metoclopramide associated with? A. Serotonin syndrome B. Tardive Dyskinesia C. Hypertension D. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome Answer: B. Tardive Dyskinesia 3. What are common symptoms of tardive dyskinesia? A. Lip smacking, puffing cheeks, involuntary movement B. Joint pain, fever, rash C. Severe blistering of skin D. Seizures and tremors Answer: A. Lip smacking, puffing cheeks, involuntary movement 4. NSAIDs can worsen asthma symptoms. A. True B. False Answer: A. True 5. What is the correct administration route for NPH insulin?

A. Intradermal B. Intravenous C. Intramuscular D. Subcutaneous Answer: D. Subcutaneous

6. What is a sausage-shaped mass associated with? A. Intussusception B. Addison’s disease C. Bowel obstruction D. Ectopic pregnancy Answer: A. Intussusception 7. How long before surgery should antiplatelet medication be discontinued? A. 1 to 2 days after the surgery B. Immediately before the surgery C. 3 to 4 weeks before the surgery D. 5 to 7 days before the surgery Answer: D. 5 to 7 days before the surgery 8. What are the 4 interventions to monitor with HELLP syndrome? A. Bone fragments and severed veins B. Preparing for birth, Magnesium sulfate, Deep tendon reflexes, Monitoring clotting factors C. Antibiotics, Blood transfusion, Pain management, Surgery D. Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability Answer: B. Preparing for birth, Magnesium sulfate, Deep tendon reflexes, Monitoring clotting factors 9. Testicular torsion requires which treatment? A. Surgery B. Anticoagulants C. Antibiotics D. Immunosuppressants Answer: A. Surgery 10. Where should the nurse auscultate for heart murmurs?

A. Postpartum depression with psychotic features B. A bowel obstruction disorder with telescoping of intestines C. The presence of 3 or more metabolic factors increasing stroke and cardiovascular risk D. A neuromuscular disease causing paralysis after infection Answer: C. The presence of 3 or more metabolic factors increasing stroke and cardiovascular risk

16. What is Nifedipine used for? A. Slowing cancer cell growth B. Lowering blood pressure by blocking calcium channels C. Treating osteomalacia D. Managing Parkinson’s disease Answer: B. Lowering blood pressure by blocking calcium channels 17. What is carboxyhemoglobin? A. Abnormal softening of bones B. Hemoglobin bound to carbon monoxide C. An acute rheumatic fever symptom D. A complication from a bite Answer: B. Hemoglobin bound to carbon monoxide 18. What is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy? A. A complication causing fetal jaundice B. A liver disorder characterized by itching palms and soles, potentially harming the fetus C. A serotonin syndrome D. A rare blood disorder Answer: B. A liver disorder characterized by itching palms and soles, potentially harming the fetus 19. What should be avoided when using Oxybutynin? A. High-fat foods B. Alcohol C. Exposure to high temperatures and physical exertion D. Dairy products Answer: C. Exposure to high temperatures and physical exertion 20. What does Steven Johnson Syndrome (SJS) look like on the skin?

A. Raised, itchy welts B. Painful, blistering red/purple rash resembling burns C. Yellowing of the skin D. Small, scaly, white patches Answer: B. Painful, blistering red/purple rash resembling burns

21. Fexofenadine is classified as which type of medication? A. Antiemetic B. Antihistamine C. Anticoagulant D. Anticholinergic Answer: B. Antihistamine 22. What are the signs of compartment syndrome? A. Nausea, vomiting, and dizziness B. The 6 Ps: Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesias, Poikilotherma, Paralysis C. Chest pain, sweating, and shortness of breath D. Red, jelly-like stools and vomiting Answer: B. The 6 Ps: Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesias, Poikilotherma, Paralysis 23. What is intrathecal administration? A. Injection into the cerebrospinal fluid by lumbar puncture B. Injection into the muscle tissue C. Medication administered through the oral route D. Inhaled medication through the lungs Answer: A. Injection into the cerebrospinal fluid by lumbar puncture 24. What is DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)? A. A clotting disorder leading to uncontrolled bleeding B. A gastrointestinal infection C. A metabolic condition D. A skin infection due to bacteria Answer: A. A clotting disorder leading to uncontrolled bleeding 25. What should be monitored when giving magnesium sulfate in HELLP syndrome?

Answer: D. Using the hands to examine the body

30. Why is palpation done last during an abdominal exam? A. It can induce vomiting B. It can cause pain and interfere with other assessments C. It can alter blood pressure D. It may increase the patient's heart rate Answer: B. It can cause pain and interfere with other assessments 31. What is an antiemetic used for? A. To treat delayed gastric emptying and GERD B. To manage heart failure C. To lower blood pressure D. To treat diabetes Answer: A. To treat delayed gastric emptying and GERD 32. What are symptoms of Tardive Dyskinesia? A. Muscle weakness and fatigue B. Protruding or twisting tongue, lip smacking, puffing cheeks, involuntary movements C. Elevated blood pressure and rapid heart rate D. Sweating and nausea Answer: B. Protruding or twisting tongue, lip smacking, puffing cheeks, involuntary movements 33. What is the therapeutic range for Dilantin (Phenytoin)? A. 1-5 mcg/mL B. 10-20 mcg/mL C. 30-50 mcg/mL D. 50-100 mcg/mL Answer: B. 10-20 mcg/mL 34. What is a symptom of Phenytoin (Dilantin) toxicity? A. Drowsiness B. Horizontal nystagmus and gait unsteadiness C. Increased appetite D. Elevated blood sugar Answer: B. Horizontal nystagmus and gait unsteadiness

35. What is the defense mechanism of "reaction formation"? A. Suppressing unwanted thoughts B. Expressing feelings opposite of one’s true feelings C. Redirecting emotions to a substitute target D. Retreating to an earlier stage of development Answer: B. Expressing feelings opposite of one’s true feelings 36. What is a serotonin modulator used for? A. Treating gastrointestinal issues B. Treating Major Depressive Disorder C. Reducing blood pressure D. Managing epileptic seizures Answer: B. Treating Major Depressive Disorder 37. When should tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) be administered? A. Within 12 hours B. Within 3 to 4 hours C. After 8 hours D. After 24 hours Answer: B. Within 3 to 4 hours 38. What is the contraindication for administering tPA? A. Recent surgery within 2 weeks B. A history of diabetes C. Hypertension D. Respiratory infection Answer: A. Recent surgery within 2 weeks 39. What does green amniotic fluid indicate? A. Infection in the fetus B. The fetus has passed meconium in utero C. Increased fetal movement D. A sign of maternal infection Answer: B. The fetus has passed meconium in utero

A. True B. False Answer: A. True

46. What risk factor or adverse effect is Clozapine (Clozaril) associated with?

A) Hypertension B) Hyperglycemia C) Agranulocytosis D) Stevens-Johnson Syndrome Answer : C) Agranulocytosis

47. What must a patient’s WBC and ANC be to safely take Clozapine?

A) WBC ≥ 3500, ANC ≥ 2000

B) WBC ≥ 3000, ANC ≥ 1500

C) WBC ≥ 2500, ANC ≥ 1000

D) WBC ≥ 4000, ANC ≥ 2500

Answer : A) WBC ≥ 3500, ANC ≥ 2000

48. Dilantin (Phenytoin) is used to treat which condition?

A) Bipolar disorder B) Tonic-clonic seizures C) Hypertension D) Depression Answer : B) Tonic-clonic seizures

49. What are signs of Dilantin toxicity?

A) Tinnitus and nausea

B) Diarrhea and headaches C) Horizontal nystagmus and gait unsteadiness D) Hyperactivity and insomnia Answer : C) Horizontal nystagmus and gait unsteadiness

50. What is Trazadone commonly used for?

A) Treating hypertension B) Treating major depressive disorder C) Treating schizophrenia D) Treating Parkinson’s disease Answer : B) Treating major depressive disorder

51. What common adverse effects are associated with Trazadone?

A) Orthostatic hypotension and sedation B) Tachycardia and insomnia C) Hyperglycemia and weight gain D) Constipation and dry mouth Answer : A) Orthostatic hypotension and sedation

52. What is a major symptom of Rotavirus?

A) Weight gain B) Diarrhea C) Chest pain D) Abdominal distension Answer : B) Diarrhea

53. Which medication has beta-2 blocking effects that can cause bronchial smooth

muscle constriction?

A) Propranolol

B) Monitor blood pressure every 2 hours C) Encourage fluid intake before administration D) Administer an antihistamine concurrently Answer : A) Administer within 3 to 4 hours

58. Which of the following describes Guillain-Barré Syndrome?

A) Ascending symmetric muscle paralysis and areflexia B) Hyperreflexia and spastic muscle movement C) Sudden onset of confusion and seizures D) Gradual onset of unilateral weakness Answer : A) Ascending symmetric muscle paralysis and areflexia

59. What is a contraindication for administering thrombolytic agents?

A) Fever in the past week B) Recent surgeries within the past 2 weeks C) Controlled diabetes D) Pregnancy in the third trimester Answer : B) Recent surgeries within the past 2 weeks

60. Which symptom is characteristic of Mononucleosis?

A) Enlarged spleen with sudden left upper quadrant pain B) Frequent urination and increased thirst C) Joint pain and morning stiffness D) Abdominal bloating and diarrhea Answer : A) Enlarged spleen with sudden left upper quadrant pain

61. Which statement is correct about Isotretinoin (Accutane) use?

A) It is safe to use during pregnancy B) It is a BLACK BOX medication due to its teratogenic effects

C) It treats hypertension in acne-prone patients D) It is used for weight loss Answer : B) It is a BLACK BOX medication due to its teratogenic effects

62. What is the best indicator of improved nutrition and response to treatment for

malnutrition?

A) Diarrhea resolution B) Weight gain C) Chest pain improvement D) Reduction in fatigue Answer : B) Weight gain

63. Which lifestyle modification can help reduce symptoms of GERD?

A) Eat large meals before bedtime B) Avoid alcohol, tobacco, and caffeine C) Increase chocolate and peppermint intake D) Take medication with a full meal Answer : B) Avoid alcohol, tobacco, and caffeine

64. Which of the following tasks can an LPN perform?

A) Initial client education B) Monitoring RN findings C) Administering chemotherapy D) Discharge education Answer : B) Monitoring RN findings

65. What is a common symptom of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic Syndrome

(HHS)?

A) Abdominal pain and ketones in urine B) Blood glucose levels above 600 mg/dL and altered mental status

C) An ulcer caused by bacterial infection D) A skin infection resulting from excessive exposure to sunlight Answer : A) A type of stress ulcer due to burns or trauma

70. What is the defense mechanism of introjection?

A) Expressing feelings opposite to what is truly felt B) Returning to a previous developmental stage C) Taking on another person's beliefs and attitudes D) Redirecting unacceptable feelings into socially acceptable activities Answer : C) Taking on another person's beliefs and attitudes

7 1. What is the antidote to benzodiazepines? A) Naloxone B) Diarrhea C) Flumazenil D) Pyloric Stenosis Answer: C) Flumazenil

72. What is the role of bisphosphonates (e.g., alendronate)? A) Bacterial infection after a bite B) Inhibit osteoclast to allow bone mineralization C) Stress-related gastric or duodenal ulcers D) Abnormal softening of bones **Answer: B) Inhibit osteoclast to allow bone mineralization

73. What is methotrexate used for?** A) Gout medication B) Calcium channel blocker C) Anti-cancer medication D) Treatment for stevens johnsons syndrome **Answer: C) Anti-cancer medication
74. How often should a patient's readiness to wean off a ventilator be assessed?** A) Monthly B) Annually C) Daily

A) Surgery B) Radiation and chemotherapy C) Antibiotics D) Steroid therapy Answer: B) Radiation and chemotherapy

80. What are examples of SSRIs and their common side effects? A) Propranolol and Timolol; weight loss B) Sertraline and Escitalopram; sexual dysfunction C) Amoxicillin and Erythromycin; dizziness D) Metformin and Glipizide; constipation **Answer: B) Sertraline and Escitalopram; sexual dysfunction

81. What is the 9th cranial nerve?** A) Facial B) Vestibulocochlear C) Glossopharyngeal D) Subcutaneous **Answer: C) Glossopharyngeal
82. What is priapism?** A) Painful urination B) A prolonged and painful erection C) A complication of CSF leak D) Poor perfusion **Answer: B) A prolonged and painful erection
83. What is Hirschsprung disease?** A) Loss of nerve cells in intestines causing megacolon B) Hypertension in newborns C) Jaundice after birth D) Abnormal calcium metabolism

Answer: A) Loss of nerve cells in intestines causing megacolon

84. What disease is associated with a bullseye rash, flu-like symptoms, and joint pain after a bite? A) Tetanus B) Lyme disease C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever D) Eczema **Answer: B) Lyme disease

85. How long can unused prepared formula be kept in the fridge?** A) 12 hours B) 24 hours C) 48 hours D) 72 hours **Answer: B) 24 hours
86. Which defense mechanism involves transforming unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable actions?** A) Sublimation B) Regression C) Projection D) Denial **Answer: A) Sublimation
87. What are interventions to reduce mucus viscosity?** A) Deep breathing exercises B) Increase fluids and use cool mist humidifiers C) Chest physiotherapy only D) Avoid all physical exertion **Answer: B) Increase fluids and use cool mist humidifiers
88. What complication can arise from acute pancreatitis?**