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NCSBN PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS /ACTUAL VERIFIED
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST 2025-
A nurse is working with one licensed practical nurse (LPN) and a mental health tech (an unlicensed assistive personnel). Which newly admitted client would be appropriate to assign to the mental health tech? A. An adolescent diagnosed with dehydration and anorexia B. A young adult who reports to be a heroin addict and states, "I am in withdrawal and seeing spiders." C. A 76 year-old client diagnosed with severe depression D. A middle-aged client diagnosed with an obsessive compulsive disorder Correct Answer D The mental health tech (a type of unlicensed assistive personnel or UAP) can be assigned to care for a client with a chronic condition after an initial assessment by the nurse. This client has minimal risk of instability of condition and has a situation of expected outcomes. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and who becomes dyspneic. The nurse should take which action?
A. Administer oxygen at six liters per minute via nasal cannula B. Place the client in a low Fowler's position C. Instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag D. Assist the client with pursed-lip breathing Correct Answer D Pursed-lip breathing should be encouraged during periods of dyspnea in COPD to control rate and depth of respiration, to prevent alveolar collapse and to improve respiratory muscle coordination. Clients with COPD are usually on lower doses of oxygen, titrated to maintain an oxygen saturation of 88- 91%. Semi-Fowler's position is usually most comfortable for someone with COPD, because this position allows the client's diaphragm to expand. A client taking isoniazid for tuberculosis (TB) asks the nurse about the side effects of this medication. The client should be instructed to report which of these findings? A. Extremity tingling and numbness B. Confusion and light-headedness C. Double vision and visual halos D. Photosensitivity and photophobia Correct Answer A Peripheral neuropathy is a common side effect of isoniazid and other antitubercular medications and should be reported to the health care provider. Daily doses of pyridoxine
lessen the number of and severity of hot flashes include yoga, as well as avoiding alcohol, spicy foods and caffeine. Eating a more plant-based diet can also help. A 15 year-old client has been placed in a Milwaukee brace. Which statement made by the client is incorrect and indicates a need for additional teaching? "I should inspect my skin under the brace every day" "The brace has to be worn all day and night." "I will only have to wear this for six months." "I can take it off when I shower or take a bath." Correct Answer C The brace must be worn long-term, during periods of growth, usually for one to two years. It is used to correct scoliosis, the lateral curvature of the spine. A new task force has been created at a hospital to address a recent increase in patient falls. The first meeting is scheduled with members from several departments. Which of the following statements by the nurse leader indicate intent to increase meeting effectiveness? (Select all that apply.) A. "During our meeting today we will share the information we have on falls."
B. "Let's discuss when next we should meet and what information we will bring." C. "Please introduce yourselves and your departments." D. "Let's focus on the number of falls first and then we can talk about staffing." E. "Today I will review the problem with falls on our units." F. "This meeting can go as long as needed to get things done." Correct Answer A,B,C,D A leader increases meeting effectiveness by not permitting one person not to dominate the discussion, encouraging brainstorming, encouraging others to further develop ideas and helping to engage the team in future discussions. An effective team leader will periodically summarize the information and ensure that all ideas are recorded for all to see (for example, on a whiteboard) and then follow up with minutes of the meeting. Beginning and ending on time is also important to keep everyone focused on the task at hand and to demonstrate respect team members' other commitments. A nurse is teaching a client to select foods rich in potassium to prevent digitalis toxicity. Which choice indicates the client understands this dietary requirement and recognizes which foods are highest in potassium? A. Naval orange B. Three apricots
The nurse is evaluating a developmentally challenged 2 year-old child. During the evaluation, what goal should the nurse stress when talking to the child's mother? A. Help the family decide on long-term care B. Prepare for independent toileting C. Teach the child self-care skills D. Promote the child's optimal development Correct Answer D The primary goal of nursing care for a developmentally challenged child is to promote the child's optimal development. The client with cancer is being treated with a biological response modifier. Which of the following side effects does the nurse anticipate with biologic therapy? A. Constipation B. Hematuria C. Photophobia and sun sensitivity D. Chills and fever Correct Answer D Biological response modifier cancer therapy agents (for example, interferons and interleukins) are drugs that stimulate the body's own defense mechanisms to fight cancer cells. Flu-like findings such as chills, fever and nausea, are common side effects of this type of therapy. The
other assessment findings are not what you would expect when the body is fighting pathogens. A client is admitted with severe injuries resulting from an auto accident. The client's vital signs are BP 120/50, pulse rate 110, and respiratory rate of 28. What should be the initial nursing intervention? A. Administer oxygen as ordered B. Initiate continuous blood pressure monitoring C. Initiate the ordered intravenous therapy D. Institute continuous cardiac monitoring Correct Answer A Early findings of shock are associated with hypoxia and manifested by a rapid heart rate and rapid respirations. Therefore, oxygen is the most critical initial intervention; the other interventions are secondary to oxygen therapy. A newborn who is delivered at home and without a birth attendant is admitted to the hospital for observation. The initial temperature is 95 F (35 C) axillary. The nurse should recognize that cold stress may lead to what complication? A. Hyperglycemia B. Reduced partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) C.Metabolic alkalosis
A nurse is teaching a class on human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) prevention. Which activity should be cautioned against since it is shown to increase the risk of HIV? A. Donation of blood to the state agencies B. Physical touch of a person with autoimmune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) C. Use of public bathrooms in any city D. Engaging in unprotected sexual encounters Correct Answer D Because HIV is spread through exposure to bodily fluids, unprotected intercourse and shared drug paraphernalia remain the highest risks for this infection. The other actions are not at risk behaviors for HIV. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had a total hip prosthesis implanted. During teaching, the nurse should include which content in the instructions for home care? A. Do not cross your legs at the ankles or knees B. Ambulate using crutches only C. Sleep only on your back and not on your side D. Avoid climbing stairs for three months Correct Answer A These clients should avoid the bringing of the knees together. Clients are to use a pillow between their legs when lying down and can lie on the back or side. Crossing the legs or bringing the
knees together results in a strain on the hip joint. This increases the risk of a malfunction of the prosthesis where the ball may pop out. A walker or crutches may be used as assistive devices. These and other precautions are minimally followed for six weeks postoperative and sometimes longer as indicated. The charge nurse is making assignments for the shift. Which of these clients would be appropriate to assign to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)? A. A confused client whose family complains about the nursing care two days after the client's surgery B. An older adult client diagnosed with cystitis and has an indwelling urethral catheter C. A client admitted with the diagnosis of possible transient ischemic attack with unstable neurological signs D. A trauma victim with multiple lacerations that require complex dressing changes Correct Answer B The most stable client is the one diagnosed with cystitis. Care for this client has predictable outcomes and there is only a minimal risk for complications. The other clients require more complex care and independent, specialized nursing knowledge, skill or judgment that only an RN can provide.
D. The femoral artery is the preferred sample site Correct Answer B The radial artery is preferred; the second choice is the brachial artery and then the femoral artery. If a client is receiving oxygen, it should not be turned off unless ordered. After drawing the sample, it's very important to press a gauze pad firmly over the puncture site until bleeding stops or at least five minutes. Do not ask the client to hold the pad because if insufficient pressure is used, a large painful hematoma may form. The sample of arterial blood must be kept cold, preferably on ice to minimize chemical reactions in the blood. Following an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list the clients who can potentially be discharged. Which one of these clients should the charge nurse select? A. An older adult client with an implantable cardiac defibrillator (ICD) admitted yesterday after receiving multiple shocks B. A school-aged child admitted earlier today with a diagnosis of suspected bacterial meningitis C. An adult client, diagnosed with type 1 diabetes at age 10, admitted 36 hours ago with diabetic ketoacidosis D. An adolescent admitted the previous evening with Tylenol intoxication Correct Answer C The client with type 1 diabetes is the only one with a chronic condition who has been treated for more than a day and whose
condition is the most stable. The other clients' conditions are either unstable and/or more acute. Tylenol intoxication requires at least three to four days of intensive observation for the risk of hepatic failure. Because acute bacterial meningitis can lead to permanent brain damage or death, treatment must be started as soon as possible. It is considered a medical emergency for someone with an ICD who experiences multiple shocks. A client has had a positive reaction to purified protein derivative (PPD). When the client asks, "What does this mean?" the nurse should respond with which statement? A. "You have been exposed to the organism Mycobacterium tuberculosis." B. "This means you have never had or been around someone with tuberculosis." C. "You are mostly likely have a natural immunity to the bacteria." D. "You most likely have a resistant form of active tuberculosis." Correct Answer A The PPD skin test is used to determine the presence of tuberculosis antibodies. In an otherwise healthy person, an induration greater than or equal to 15 mm is considered a positive skin test. This indicates that the client has been exposed to the organism Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Additional tests such as a chest x-ray and sputum culture will be needed to determine if active tuberculosis is present. The sputum cytology test is the only definitive test to confirm a diagnosis of active TB.
D. Listen quietly without comment Correct Answer D The client's comments demonstrate grandiose ideas. The most therapeutic response is to listen but to also avoid being pulled into the client's delusional system. At some point validation of the present situation will need to be done. Confrontation at this time would be an inappropriate action and is not therapeutic. Nursing students are reviewing the various types of oxygen delivery systems. Which oxygen delivery system is the most accurate? A. A nasal cannula B. A partial nonrebreather mask C. The simple face mask D. The Venturi mask Correct Answer D The most accurate way to deliver oxygen to the client is through a Venturi system such as the Venti Mask. The Venti Mask is a high flow device that entrains room air into a reservoir device on the mask and mixes the room air with 100% oxygen. The size of the opening to the reservoir determines the concentration of oxygen. The client's respiratory rate and respiratory pattern do not affect the concentration of oxygen delivered. The maximum amount of oxygen that can be delivered by this system is 55%. A 3 year-old has just returned from surgery for application of a hip spica cast. What nursing action will be the priority?
A. Drying the cast using a hair dryer set to "warm" B. Apply waterproof plastic tape to the cast around the genital area C. Use the crossbar to help turn the child from side to side D. Position the child flat in bed, repositioning from back to stomach every two to four hours Correct Answer B The most important aspects of caring for the cast is to keep it clean and dry. Shortly after returning from surgery, waterproof plastic tape will be applied around the genital area to prevent soiling. The child should be turned every two hours to help facilitate drying, from side to side and front to back, with the head elevated at all times. If a crossbar is used to stabilize the legs, it should not be used to turn the child (it may break off). After the cast has completely dried and it becomes damp, it can be either exposed to air or a hair dryer (set to cool) may be used to help dry the cast. At the beginning of the shift, the nurse is reviewing the status of each of the assigned clients in the labor and delivery unit. Which of these clients should the nurse check first? A. An adolescent who is 18-weeks pregnant with a report of no fetal heart tones and is coughing up frothy sputum B. A middle-aged woman with a history of two prior vaginal term births and who is 2 cm dilated
during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. Although aspirin has anticoagulant properties, low dose aspirin therapy (81 mg), with or without heparin, is more often used prophylactically to prevent the development of deep vein thrombosis. The nurse is preparing to administer a feeding through a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. What nursing action is needed before starting the infusion? (Select all that apply.) A. Palpate the abdomen B. Verify the length and placement of the tube C. Milk or massage the tube D. Keep the feeding product refrigerated until ready to use E. Elevate the head of the bed 30-45 degrees F. Flush the tube with 30 mL of warm water Correct Answer B,E,F Prior to starting every feeding, the nurse should verify the length and placement of the tube, flush the tube with 30 mL of warm (not hot and not cold) water, and elevate the head of the client's bed at least 30 degrees. The nurse should also verify the presence of bowel sounds before starting the infusion. There's no need to milk the tube unless it's obstructed. Feeding products should be brought to room temperature before the infusion to prevent gastrointestinal discomfort.
A group of nurses on a unit are discussing stoma care for clients who have had a stoma made for fecal diversion. Which stomal diversion poses the highest risk for skin breakdown? A. Ileal conduit B. Transverse colostomy C. Sigmoid colostomy D. Ileostomy Correct Answer D Ileostomy output, which is from the small intestine, is of continuous, liquid nature. This high pH, alkaline output contains gastric and enzymatic agents that when present on skin can denude skin in a few hours. Because of the caustic nature of this stoma output, adequate peristomal skin protection must be delivered to prevent skin breakdown. With a transverse colostomy the stool is of a somewhat mushy and soft nature. With a sigmoid colostomy the output is formed with an intermittent output. An ileal conduit is a urinary diversion with the ureters being brought out to the abdominal wall. The nurse is instructing a 65 year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. What is the most important instruction about exercise? A. Exercise to reduce weight over a few months B. Use exercise to strengthen muscles and protect bones C. Avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
