NDEB Exam 2019 NDEB Solved Questions and Correct Answers, Exams of Biology

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NDEB Exam 2019 NDEB Solved Questions and

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The principal reason for a cavosurface bevel on an inlay preparation is to A. remove undermined enamel. B. improve marginal adaptation. C. decrease marginal percolation. D. increase resistance and retention forms. --correct answer-- B. improve marginal adaptation. Lichen planus occurs most frequently on the A. buccal mucosa. B. tongue. C. floor of the mouth. D. gingiva. --correct answer-- A. buccal mucosa. The pulpal floor of a Class II cavity is cut perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth EXCEPT in the A. maxillary first premolar. B. maxillary second premolar. C. mandibular second premolar. D. mandibular first premolar. --correct answer-- D. mandibular first premolar. Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it is observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical dimension. The treatment of choice is to A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically to

provide the necessary clearance. B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance. C. construct new dentures at an increased occlusal vertical dimension to gain the necessary clearance. D. proceed with construction of the denture and reduce the posterior extension of the mandibular denture to eliminate interferences. --correct answer-- B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance. The setting of a zinc-phosphate cement can best be retarded by A. decreasing the particle size. B. increasing the concentration of water in the liquid. C. increasing the rate of addition of the powder to the liquid. D. cooling the glass mixing slab. --correct answer-- D. cooling the glass mixing slab. In the absence of "Hanks balanced salt solution", what is the most appropriate media to transport an avulsed tooth? A. Saliva. B. Milk. C. Saline. D. Tap water. --correct answer-- B. Milk.

What is the most likely diagnosis of a white lesion on the retromolar pad opposing a non-functional molar? A. Alveolar ridge keratosis. B. Candidiasis. C. Lichen planus. D. Squamous cell carcinoma --correct answer-- A. Alveolar ridge keratosis A hinge axis facebow records A. Bennett angle. B. centric relation. C. lateral condylar inclination. D. horizontal condylar inclination. E. opening and closing axis of the mandible. --correct answer-- E. opening and closing axis of the mandible. Which of the following is the most likely cause of osteoporosis, glaucoma, hypertension and peptic ulcers in a 65 year old with Crohn's disease? A. Uncontrolled diabetes. B. Systemic corticosteroid therapy. C. Chronic renal failure. D. Prolonged NSAID therapy. E. Malabsorption syndrome. --correct answer-- B. Systemic corticosteroid therapy. The most important objective of occlusal adjustment of a natural dentition is to A. prevent temporomandibular joint syndrome. B. increase the shearing action in mastication.

C. improve oral hygiene by preventing food impaction. D. achieve a more favorable direction and distribution of forces of occlusion. --correct answer-- D. achieve a more favorable direction and distribution of forces of occlusion. Which condition has NOT been associated with Candida albicans infection? A. Median rhomboid glossitis. B. Angular cheilitis. C. Denture stomatitis. D. Aphthous ulcerations. E. Oral hairy leukoplakia. --correct answer-- D. Aphthous ulcerations. Which of the following is essential for successful periodontal treatment? A. Scaling. B. Final evaluation and maintenance on a oneyear recall. C. Periodontal flap surgery. D. Elimination of local etiologic factors. --correct answer-- D. Elimination of local etiologic factors. If a complete mandibular denture causes a burning sensation in the premolar region, this is due to the denture exerting pressure in/on the A. fibres of the buccinator muscle. B. lingual branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. C. underlying bone. D. mental branch of the inferior alveolar nerve.

E. buccal frenum area. --correct answer-- D. mental branch of the inferior alveolar nerve. A hinge axis facebow records A. Bennett angle. B. centric relation. C. lateral condylar inclination. D. horizontal condylar inclination. E. opening and closing axis of the mandible. --correct answer-- E. opening and closing axis of the mandible. Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root canals? A. Streptococcus viridans. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Lactobacilli. D. Enterococci. E. Staphylococcus albus. --correct answer-- A. Streptococcus viridans. The predominant type of movement produced by a finger spring on a removable appliance is A. torque. B. tipping. C. rotation. D. translation. --correct answer-- B. tipping. Epinephrine should be administered immediately in which of the following emergencies? A. A severe angina attack. B. A mild asthmatic attack. C. Severe anaphylaxis. D. Severe hypotension --correct answer-- C. Severe anaphylaxis. The location and extent of subgingival calculus is

most accurately determined clinically by A. radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs. B. disclosing solution. C. probing with a fine instrument. D. visual inspection --correct answer-- C. probing with a fine instrument. Endotoxin is A. a cell wall component of gram-negative bacteria. B. a potent inflammatory agent. C. present in diseased root cementum. D. All of the above. --correct answer-- D. All of the above. In inhalation analgesia, what is the safe maximal nitrous oxide concentration that can be delivered? A. 50%. B. 60%. C. 70%. D. 80%. --correct answer-- C. 70%. The bond between porcelain and metal in a ceramometal (porcelain bonded to metal) crown is A. chemical. B. mechanical. C. equally chemical and mechanical. D. neither chemical nor mechanical. --correct answer-- A. chemical. The predominant immunoglobulin isolated from saliva is A. IgG. B. IgM. C. IgA.

D. IgD. --correct answer-- C. IgA. Soft tissue pockets CANNOT be reduced by A. occlusal adjustment. B. scaling and root planing (debridement). C. open flap curettage. D. guided tissue regeneration --correct answer-- A. occlusal adjustment. Roots of the permanent maxillary central incisors are completed by what age? A. 8 years. B. 10 years. C. 12 years. D. Later than 12 years. --correct answer-- B. 10 years. When designing a removable partial denture, changing the tilt of the cast on the surveyor alters the A. path of insertion of the planned removable partial denture. B. the position of the survey line on the cast. C. the undercut and non-undercut areas. D. the direction of forces applied to the partial denture. --correct answer-- A. path of insertion of the planned removable partial denture. Increased overjet, moderate facial convexity and a deep labio-mental sulcus is most characteristic of which facial type? A. Prognathic. B. Orthognathic. C. Retrognathic. --correct answer-- C. Retrognathic. Needle deflection increases as A. depth of injection increases.

B. needle length increases. C. needle gauge decreases. D. All of the above. --correct answer-- D. All of the above. Acute or subacute suppurative osteomyelitis occurs most frequently in the A. anterior maxilla. B. posterior mandible. C. posterior maxilla. D. anterior mandible. --correct answer-- B. posterior mandible. The line drawn through the occlusal rests of two principal abutments is A. survey line. B. terminal line. C. axis of rotation/fulcrum line. D. line of greatest torque. --correct answer-- C. axis of rotation/fulcrum line. Intraoral soft tissue examination will NOT assist in the diagnosis of A. lichen planus. B. sinusitis. C. erythema multiforme. D. anemia. E. vitamin deficiencies --correct answer-- B. sinusitis. An anxious 67 year old patient presents for consultation to extract tooth 4.6. The medical history includes a heart murmur, hypertension and a cerebrovascular accident 5 years ago. Medications include clopidrogel, hydrochlorothiazide and rosuvastatin. What is the most appropriate preoperative management?

A. Prescribing antibiotic prophylaxis. B. Ordering an INR test within 24 hours prior to procedure. C. Discussing with the patient the use of sedation. D. Requesting a complete blood count. --correct answer-- C. Discussing with the patient the use of sedation. Which of the following improves the prognosis of pulp vitality after indirect pulp capping? A. Use of calcium hydroxide. B. Having a well sealed restoration. C. Reducing other traumas to the pulp. D. Removing all demineralized dentin. --correct answer-- B. Having a well sealed restoration. In clinical dentistry, stiffness of wire is a function of A. length of the wire segment. B. diameter of the wire segment. C. alloy composition. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. --correct answer-- D. All of the above. An 8 year old patient has a permanent central incisor with a necrotic pulp and a wide open apex. The most appropriate management is to perform a/an A. pulpotomy. B. apexification. C. regenerative endodontics. D. root canal therapy. --correct answer-- B. apexification. Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following? A. Epulis fissuratum.

B. Lingual varicosities. C. Squamous cell carcinoma. D. Median rhomboid glossitis. E. Prominent fungiform papillae --correct answer-- C. Squamous cell carcinoma. The major disadvantage of zinc phosphate used to cement crowns is the A. development of heat during setting. B. pulp irritation. C. lack of edge strength. D. low crushing strength. --correct answer-- B. pulp irritation. The most effective way of minimizing a patient's radiation dose is A. a lead apron and thyroid collar. B. prescription radiography. C. fast emulsion film. D. intensifying screens. --correct answer-- B. prescription radiography. An acute periapical abscess originating from a mandibular third molar generally points and drains in the A. submandibular space. B. pterygomandibular space. C. buccal vestibule. D. buccal space. --correct answer-- A. submandibular space. Which of the following require prophylactic antibiotics prior to dental procedures causing a bacteremia? A. Implanted cardiac pacemakers. B. Prosthetic cardiac valves.

C. Coronary artery bypass grafts. D. Cardiac stents one year after placement. --correct answer-- B. Prosthetic cardiac valves. Which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia? A. Salivary glands. B. Teeth. C. Sweat glands. D. Hair. E. Fingernails. --correct answer-- A. Salivary glands. A bite-wing radiograph of tooth 1.4 reveals caries penetrating one third into the mesial enamel. The most appropriate management of tooth 1.4 is to A. place an amalgam restoration. B. place a porcelain inlay. C. place a direct composite restoration. D. apply fluoride and improve oral hygiene. --correct answer-- D. apply fluoride and improve oral hygiene. The smear layer created by root canal instrumentation can be removed by A. hydrogen peroxide and ethyl chloride. B. sodium hypochlorite and EDTA. C. chlorhexidine and chloroform. D. calcium hydroxide and pheno --correct answer-- B. sodium hypochlorite and EDTA. Desquamation of the gingiva usually occurs as a result of A. inflammation. B. benign neoplasia.

C. normal cell turnover. D. a developmental abnormality. --correct answer-- C. normal cell turnover. Abrasion is most commonly seen on the A. lingual surface of posterior teeth. B. occlusal surface of posterior teeth. C. incisal edges. D. facial surfaces of teeth. --correct answer-- D. facial surfaces of teeth. The most appropriate management of an avulsed maxillary central incisor in a 10 year old is the placement of a A. removable space maintainer. B. bonded resin bridge (Maryland bridge). C. conventional fixed partial denture. D. single tooth implant. --correct answer-- A. removable space maintainer. In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar, which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. Mesio-angular. B. Horizontal. C. Vertical. D. Disto-angular. --correct answer-- D. Disto-angular. A laboratory remount of processed dentures is done in order to correct occlusal disharmony produced by errors primarily in the A. mounting of the casts on the articulator. B. registration of jaw relation records. C. processing of acrylic dentures. D. registration of condylar guidance. --correct answer-- C. processing of acrylic dentures.

During extraction of a maxillary third molar, the tuberosity is fractured. The tooth with the tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding soft tissue. You should A. remove both and suture. B. leave both and stabilize, if possible. C. remove both, fill the defect with Gelfoam and suture. D. reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in place and suture. --correct answer-- B. leave both and stabilize, if possible. An adult patient has several multilocular lesions associated with vital mandibular teeth. A histopathologic analysis reveals the presence of multinucleated giant cells. The most appropriate management for this patient is to A. extract the involved teeth. B. obtain a serum parathormone (PTH) level. C. commence antibiotic therapy. D. initiate endodontic treatments. E. perform a mandibular resection --correct answer-- B. obtain a serum parathormone (PTH) level. If a tooth has an inadequate ferrule, which of the following is an effective strategy to increase tooth structure available for crown preparation? A. Cementation of the restoration with a glass ionomer cement. B. Sub-gingival preparation and prolonged temporization.

C. Orthodontic eruption. D. Elective endodontic treatment and a post core. --correct answer-- C. Orthodontic eruption. The tissue which is most sensitive to radiation is A. nerve. B. dental pulp. C. lymphoid. D. muscle. --correct answer-- C. lymphoid. Methemoglobinemia is a potential complication of an excessive dose of A. bupivacaine. B. lidocaine. C. mepivacaine. D. prilocaine. --correct answer-- D. prilocaine. The level of streptococcus mutans has been shown to be significantly higher in the bacterial plaque adjacent to which type of posterior restoration? A. Glass-ionomer. B. Composite resin. C. Amalgam. D. Gold castings. --correct answer-- B. Composite resin. Maxillary skeletal arch expansion A. is easiest in the preadolescent patient. B. requires surgery in skeletally immature patients. C. decreases arch space. D. increases overbite. --correct answer-- A. is easiest in the preadolescent patient. Warfarin (Coumadin®) acts by

A. preventing formation of thromboplastin. B. preventing fibrinogen conversion to fibrin. C. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver. D. incorporating ionic calcium. --correct answer-- C. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver In complete denture contruction, the physiologic rest position A. provides a quide to establish the vertical dimension of occlusion. B. determines the level of the occlusal plane. C. provides a guide for the selection of cusp inclination. D. determines the shape of the compensating curve. E. is useful to the determination of condylar inclination. --correct answer-- A. provides a quide to establish the vertical dimension of occlusion. In the pterygomandibular space, the inferior alveolar nerve passes A. anterior to the deep tendon of the temporal muscle. B. lateral to the sphenomandibular ligament. C. medial to the medial pterygoid muscle. D. medial to the pterygomandibular raphe. --correct answer-- B. lateral to the sphenomandibular ligament. Upon stimulation of salivary flow, which gland is the main source of salivary volume? A. Submandibular. B. Submaxillary.

C. Sublingual. D. Parotid. --correct answer-- D. Parotid. The gingivectomy is a useful technique to eliminate A. infrabony pockets. B. suprabony pockets. C. thick osseous ledges. D. mucogingival problems --correct answer-- B. suprabony pockets. Following periodontal surgery, the curetted root surface is repopulated by cells derived from all of the following tissues EXCEPT A. periodontal ligament. B. cementum. C. alveolar bone. D. epithelium. E. gingival connective tissue --correct answer-- B. cementum. Periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical cementoosseous dysplasia) A. is associated with a vital tooth. B. is found mainly in children. C. has an orange peel radiographic pattern. --correct answer-- C. has an orange peel radiographic pattern. Which of the following drugs can be administered to manage pain following the acute onset of a migraine? A. Amitriptyline. B. Nifedipine. C. Propranolol. D. Sumatriptan. --correct answer-- D. Sumatriptan. With excessive forward mandibular growth in a

patient with minimal overjet, the mandibular incisors will most likely A. tip labially. B. tip lingually. C. tip laterally. D. remain unchanged. --correct answer-- B. tip lingually. "Tic douloureux" is synonymous with A. psychogenic facial pain. B. trigeminal neuralgia. C. facial paralysis. D. temporomandibular joint dysfunction. --correct answer-- B. trigeminal neuralgia. By definition, a compound fracture of the mandible must have A. multiple bone fragments. B. exposure to the external environment. C. a tooth in the line of fracture. D. displacement of the fractured segments. --correct answer-- B. exposure to the external environment. The start of a mandibular bone formation coincides with A. tooth germ development. B. completion of fusion of the facial processes. C. bone formation in the maxilla. D. completion of a mandible cartilage model. --correct answer-- D. completion of a mandible cartilage model. Which of the following has a direct effect on periodontal tissues in diabetes mellitus-associated gingivitis?

A. Lipopolysaccharides. B. Matrix metalloproteinases. C. Proinflammatory cytokines. D. Prostaglandins. E. Leukotoxin. --correct answer-- B. Matrix metalloproteinases. A 35 year old female patient has multiple petechiae hemorrhages of the palatal mucosa and ecchymoses of the right and left buccal mucosae. Which of the following is the most likely laboratory finding? A. Anemia. B. Prolonged partial thromboplastin time (PTT). C. Elevated INR. D. Thrombocytopenia. --correct answer-- D. Thrombocytopenia. The inferior border of the lingual bar of a removable partial denture should A. displace the lingual frenum. B. be in contact with the cingula of the incisor teeth. C. be superior to the gingival border. D. be as inferior as the movement of the frenum of the tongue will permit. --correct answer-- D. be as inferior as the movement of the frenum of the tongue will permit. Osteogenesis imperfecta is manifested by A. punched-out radiolucencies in the jaws. B. numerous unerupted supernumerary teeth. C. osteoporosis and anemia. D. multiple fractures and blue sclera. --correct answer-- D. multiple fractures and blue sclera. In radiography, minimum magnification and

maximum definition are achieved by A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). C. maximum OFD (object - film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). --correct answer-- B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). Side effects of chemotherapeutic treatment for malignancy include A. thinning of the oral mucosa. B. ulceration. C. necrosis. D. spontaneous bleeding. E. all of the above. --correct answer-- E. all of the above. A clinical sign of unilateral fracture of the body of the zygoma is A. cerebrospinal rhinorrhea. B. impaired hearing. C. subconjunctival haemorrhage. D. otorrhea. --correct answer-- C. subconjunctival haemorrhage. The use of an intra-coronal attachment is CONTRAINDICATED for a tooth A. that is nonvital. B. requiring a core procedure build up. C. supporting a partial denture.

D. with short crown length. --correct answer-- D. with short crown length. When probing a healthy peridontium using light forces, the probe tip will most likely extend to the A. attached gingiva. B. junctional epithelium. C. transverse fibres of the periodontal ligament. --correct answer-- B. junctional epithelium. World epidemiological data indicates that periodontal disease is the most likely cause of tooth loss in the following age group: A. 10 - 20 years. B. 20 - 30 years. C. 30 - 50 years. D. 65 - 75 years. E. over 75 years. --correct answer-- C. 30 - 50 years. A surgical flap approach to periodontal pocket elimination permits A. healing by primary intention. B. retention of gingiva. C. access to perform osseous recontouring. D. All of the above. --correct answer-- D. All of the above. For a patient with cardiovascular disease, local anesthesia A. affects blood pressure more than general anesthesia. B. affects blood pressure less than general anesthesia. C. is responsible for bacteremia. --correct answer-- B. affects blood pressure less than general

anesthesia. What is the most probable syndrome affecting a 9 year old patient with a history of 3 keratocystic odontogenic tumours (odontogenic keratocyst)? A. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin Syndrome). B. Familial colorectal polyposis (Gardner's Syndrome). C. Crouzon Syndrome. D. Apert Syndrome. --correct answer-- A. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin Syndrome). The smear layer present on the root canal wall after cleaning and shaping is best removed by using A. EDTA. B. hydrogen peroxide. C. chlorhexidine. D. isopropyl alcohol. --correct answer-- A. EDTA. The primary etiological factor associated with periodontal disease is A. bacterial plaque. B. calculus. C. diabetes mellitus. D. tooth mobility. E. smoking. --correct answer-- A. bacterial plaque. Odontoblast gap junctions A. adhere the cells to one another. B. attach the cells to the basement membrane. C. seal off the dentin from the pulp.

D. permit lateral cell-cell communication. --correct answer-- D. permit lateral cell-cell communication. The inorganic ion that is implicated in primary hypertension is A. sodium. B. fluoride. C. potassium. D. magnesium. --correct answer-- A. sodium. Which type of malocclusion should be corrected as early as possible? A. Class II Division 1 associated with an anterior open bite. B. Class II Division 2 associated with an increased anterior overbite. C. Class III associated with an anterior open bite. D. Cross-bite associated with a functional shift of the mandible from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. E. Anterior open bite associated with a lip or digit sucking habit. --correct answer-- D. Cross-bite associated with a functional shift of the mandible from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. A patient with complete dentures complains of clicking. The most common causes are A. reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion. B. excessive vertical dimension and poor retention. C. use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal overlap.

D. improper relation of teeth to the ridge and excessive anterior vertical overlap. --correct answer-- B. excessive vertical dimension and poor retention. Ideally, within how many hours should one receive medical attention for percutaneous exposure to blood borne pathogens? A. 2. B. 4. C. 6. D. 8. --correct answer-- A. 2. Which of the following drugs does NOT cause gingival enlargement? A. Nifedipine. B. Cyclosporine. C. Phenytoin. D. Prednisolone. --correct answer-- D. Prednisolone. The maximum recommended number of 1.8ml cartridges of 2% lidocaine with epinephrine 1:100,000 that may be safely administered to a 17kg child is approximately A. 0.5. B. 1. C. 1.5. D. 2. E. 2.5. --correct answer-- D. 2. Which of the following conditions may develop as a result of juvenile diabetes mellitus? A. Ataxia.

B. Aphasia. C. Deafness. D. Blindness. E. Motor paralysis. --correct answer-- D. Blindness. Which of the following is the most predictable indicator of periodontal stability? A. Patient compliance with maintenance visit. B. Gingival inflammation. C. Plaque index. D. Absence of bleeding on probing. --correct answer-- D. Absence of bleeding on probing. Which condition is associated with elevated serum alkaline phosphatase and elevated urinary hydroxyproline levels? A. Fibrous dysplasia. B. Paget disease. C. Sjögren syndrome. D. Gardner syndrome. --correct answer-- D. Gardner syndrome. To ensure a clinically acceptable setting time, polyalkenoic cements contain A. salicylic acid. B. phosphoric acid. C. maleic acid. D. tartaric acid. E. itaconic acid. --correct answer-- D. tartaric acid. The metabolic clearance of which of the following drugs is NOT reduced in an elderly patient? A. Carbamazepine. B. Warfarin.

C. Morphine. D. Clindamycin. --correct answer-- D. Clindamycin. A gluteal intramuscular injection may be safely administered in which quadrant? A. Lower medial. B. Upper medial. C. Lower lateral. D. Upper lateral. --correct answer-- D. Upper lateral. The local anesthetic technique requiring the needle to contact the neck of the condyle is the A. posterior superior alveolar nerve block. B. Gow-Gates block. C. Vazirani-Akinosi block. D. inferior alveolar nerve block. --correct answer-- B. Gow-Gates block. Sickle cell anemia is A. a genetic disease. B. caused by exposure to radiation. C. a viral infection. D. a drug reaction. E. an auto-immune disease. --correct answer-- A. a genetic disease. When will infiltrating new blood vessels be histologically detectable following a free gingival graft? A. 2 to 3 hours. B. 2 to 3 days. C. 2 to 3 weeks. D. 2 to 3 months. --correct answer-- B. 2 to 3 days. Biocompatibility tests conducted in vitro A. follow screening with an animal model.