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NDEB Exam 2019 Solved Questions and Answers: Dentistry, Exams of Insurance law

A collection of solved multiple-choice questions from the ndeb (national dental examining board) exam in 2019. It covers a wide range of topics relevant to dentistry, including pulpal anatomy, restorative procedures, oral pathology, and more. The questions and answers can be valuable for students preparing for the ndeb exam or for those seeking to refresh their knowledge in dentistry.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 12/29/2024

Prof-Thomas-Sweeney
Prof-Thomas-Sweeney 🇺🇸

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1.3K documents

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Download NDEB Exam 2019 Solved Questions and Answers: Dentistry and more Exams Insurance law in PDF only on Docsity!

NDEB EXAM 2019 NDEB SOLVED LATEST

VERSION UPDATED AND REVISED IN 2024-

The pulpal floor of a Class II cavity is cut perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth EXCEPT in the A. maxillary first premolar. B. maxillary second premolar. C. mandibular second premolar. D. mandibular first premolar. - ANSWER - >D. mandibular first premolar. The principal reason for a Cavo surface bevel on an inlay preparation is to A. remove undermined enamel. B. improve marginal adaptation. C. decrease marginal percolation. D. increase resistance and retention forms. - ANSWER - >B. improve marginal adaptation. Lichen planus occurs most frequently on the A. buccal mucosa. B. tongue. C. floor of the mouth. D. gingiva. - ANSWER - >A. buccal mucosa. Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it is observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical dimension. The treatment of choice is to A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically to provide the necessary clearance.

B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance. C. construct new dentures at an increased occlusal vertical dimension to gain the necessary clearance. D. proceed with construction of the denture and reduce the posterior extension of the mandibular denture to eliminate interferences. - ANSWER - >B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance. In the absence of "Hanks balanced salt solution", what is the most appropriate media to transport an avulsed tooth? A. Saliva. B. Milk. C. Saline. D. Tap water. - ANSWER - >B. Milk. The setting of a zinc-phosphate cement can best be retarded by A. decreasing the particle size. B. increasing the concentration of water in the liquid. C. increasing the rate of addition of the powder to the liquid. D. cooling the glass mixing slab. - ANSWER - >D. cooling the glass mixing slab. What is the most likely diagnosis of a white lesion on the retromolar pad opposing a non-functional molar? A. Alveolar ridge keratosis. B. Candidiasis. C. Lichen planus. D. Squamous cell carcinoma - ANSWER - >A. Alveolar ridge keratosis Which of the following is the most likely cause of

osteoporosis, glaucoma, hypertension and peptic ulcers in a 65 year old with Crohn's disease? A. Uncontrolled diabetes. B. Systemic corticosteroid therapy. C. Chronic renal failure. D. Prolonged NSAID therapy. E. Malabsorption syndrome. - ANSWER - >B. Systemic corticosteroid therapy. A hinge axis facebow records A. Bennett angle. B. centric relation. C. lateral condylar inclination. D. horizontal condylar inclination. E. opening and closing axis of the mandible. - ANSWER - >E. opening and closing axis of the mandible. The most important objective of occlusal adjustment of a natural dentition is to A. prevent temporomandibular joint syndrome. B. increase the shearing action in mastication. C. improve oral hygiene by preventing food impaction. D. achieve a more favorable direction and distribution of forces of occlusion. - ANSWER - >D. achieve a more favorable direction and distribution of forces of occlusion. Which condition has NOT been associated with Candida albicans infection? A. Median rhomboid glossitis. B. Angular cheilitis. C. Denture stomatitis. D. Aphthous ulcerations. E. Oral hairy leukoplakia. - ANSWER - >D. Aphthous ulcerations. Which of the following is essential for successful periodontal treatment?

A. Scaling. B. Final evaluation and maintenance on a oneyear recall. C. Periodontal flap surgery. D. Elimination of local etiologic factors. - ANSWER - >D. Elimination of local etiologic factors. If a complete mandibular denture causes a burning sensation in the premolar region, this is due to the denture exerting pressure in/on the A. fibres of the buccinator muscle. B. lingual branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. C. underlying bone. D. mental branch of the inferior alveolar nerve. E. buccal frenum area. - ANSWER - >D. mental branch of the inferior alveolar nerve. A hinge axis facebow records A. Bennett angle. B. centric relation. C. lateral condylar inclination. D. horizontal condylar inclination. E. opening and closing axis of the mandible. - ANSWER - >E. opening and closing axis of the mandible. Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root canals? A. Streptococcus viridans. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Lactobacilli. D. Enterococci. E. Staphylococcus albus. - ANSWER - >A. Streptococcus viridans. The predominant type of movement produced by a finger spring on a removable appliance is A. torque.

B. tipping. C. rotation. D. translation. - ANSWER - >B. tipping. Epinephrine should be administered immediately in which of the following emergencies? A. A severe angina attack. B. A mild asthmatic attack. C. Severe anaphylaxis. D. Severe hypotension - ANSWER - >C. Severe anaphylaxis. The location and extent of subgingival calculus is most accurately determined clinically by A. radiopaque solution used in conjunction with radiographs. B. disclosing solution. C. probing with a fine instrument. D. visual inspection - ANSWER - >C. probing with a fine instrument. Endotoxin is A. a cell wall component of gram-negative bacteria. B. a potent inflammatory agent. C. present in diseased root cementum. D. All of the above. - ANSWER - >D. All of the above. In inhalation analgesia, what is the safe maximal nitrous oxide concentration that can be delivered? A. 50%. B. 60%. C. 70%. D. 80%. - ANSWER - >C. 70%. The bond between porcelain and metal in a ceramometal (porcelain bonded to metal) crown is A. chemical. B. mechanical.

C. equally chemical and mechanical. D. neither chemical nor mechanical. - ANSWER - >A. chemical. The predominant immunoglobulin isolated from saliva is A. IgG. B. IgM. C. IgA. D. IgD. - ANSWER - >C. IgA. Soft tissue pockets CANNOT be reduced by A. occlusal adjustment. B. scaling and root planing (debridement). C. open flap curettage. D. guided tissue regeneration - ANSWER - >A. occlusal adjustment. Roots of the permanent maxillary central incisors are completed by what age? A. 8 years. B. 10 years. C. 12 years. D. Later than 12 years. - ANSWER - >B. 10 years. When designing a removable partial denture, changing the tilt of the cast on the surveyor alters the A. path of insertion of the planned removable partial denture. B. the position of the survey line on the cast. C. the undercut and non-undercut areas. D. the direction of forces applied to the partial denture. - ANSWER - >A. path of insertion of the planned removable partial denture. Increased overjet, moderate facial convexity and a deep labio-mental sulcus is most characteristic of which facial type? A. Prognathic.

B. Orthognathic. C. Retrognathic. - ANSWER - >C. Retrognathic. Needle deflection increases as A. depth of injection increases. B. needle length increases. C. needle gauge decreases. D. All of the above. - ANSWER - >D. All of the above. Acute or subacute suppurative osteomyelitis occurs most frequently in the A. anterior maxilla. B. posterior mandible. C. posterior maxilla. D. anterior mandible. - ANSWER - >B. posterior mandible. The line drawn through the occlusal rests of two principal abutments is A. survey line. B. terminal line. C. axis of rotation/fulcrum line. D. line of greatest torque. - ANSWER - >C. axis of rotation/fulcrum line. Intraoral soft tissue examination will NOT assist in the diagnosis of A. lichen planus. B. sinusitis. C. erythema multiforme. D. anemia. E. vitamin deficiencies - ANSWER - >B. sinusitis. An anxious 67 year old patient presents for consultation to extract tooth 4.6. The medical history includes a heart murmur, hypertension and a cerebrovascular accident 5 years ago. Medications include clopidrogel, hydrochlorothiazide and rosuvastatin. What is the most appropriate

preoperative management? A. Prescribing antibiotic prophylaxis. B. Ordering an INR test within 24 hours prior to procedure. C. Discussing with the patient the use of sedation. D. Requesting a complete blood count. - ANSWER - >C. Discussing with the patient the use of sedation. Which of the following improves the prognosis of pulp vitality after indirect pulp capping? A. Use of calcium hydroxide. B. Having a well sealed restoration. C. Reducing other traumas to the pulp. D. Removing all demineralized dentin. - ANSWER - >B. Having a well sealed restoration. In clinical dentistry, stiffness of wire is a function of A. length of the wire segment. B. diameter of the wire segment. C. alloy composition. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. - ANSWER - >D. All of the above. An 8 year old patient has a permanent central incisor with a necrotic pulp and a wide open apex. The most appropriate management is to perform a/an A. pulpotomy. B. apexification. C. regenerative endodontics. D. root canal therapy. - ANSWER - >B. apexification. Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following? A. Epulis fissuratum. B. Lingual varicosities. C. Squamous cell carcinoma. D. Median rhomboid glossitis.

E. Prominent fungiform papillae - ANSWER - >C. Squamous cell carcinoma. The major disadvantage of zinc phosphate used to cement crowns is the A. development of heat during setting. B. pulp irritation. C. lack of edge strength. D. low crushing strength. - ANSWER - >B. pulp irritation. The most effective way of minimizing a patient's radiation dose is A. a lead apron and thyroid collar. B. prescription radiography. C. fast emulsion film. D. intensifying screens. - ANSWER - >B. prescription radiography. An acute periapical abscess originating from a mandibular third molar generally points and drains in the A. submandibular space. B. pterygomandibular space. C. buccal vestibule. D. buccal space. - ANSWER - >A. submandibular space. Which of the following require prophylactic antibiotics prior to dental procedures causing a bacteremia? A. Implanted cardiac pacemakers. B. Prosthetic cardiac valves. C. Coronary artery bypass grafts. D. Cardiac stents one year after placement. - ANSWER - >B. Prosthetic cardiac valves. Which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia? A. Salivary glands. B. Teeth.

C. Sweat glands. D. Hair. E. Fingernails. - ANSWER - >A. Salivary glands. A bite-wing radiograph of tooth 1.4 reveals caries penetrating one third into the mesial enamel. The most appropriate management of tooth 1.4 is to A. place an amalgam restoration. B. place a porcelain inlay. C. place a direct composite restoration. D. apply fluoride and improve oral hygiene. - ANSWER - >D. apply fluoride and improve oral hygiene. The smear layer created by root canal instrumentation can be removed by A. hydrogen peroxide and ethyl chloride. B. sodium hypochlorite and EDTA. C. chlorhexidine and chloroform. D. calcium hydroxide and pheno - ANSWER - >B. sodium hypochlorite and EDTA. Desquamation of the gingiva usually occurs as a result of A. inflammation. B. benign neoplasia. C. normal cell turnover. D. a developmental abnormality. - ANSWER - >C. normal cell turnover. Abrasion is most commonly seen on the A. lingual surface of posterior teeth. B. occlusal surface of posterior teeth. C. incisal edges. D. facial surfaces of teeth. - ANSWER - >D. facial surfaces of teeth. The most appropriate management of an avulsed maxillary central incisor in a 10 year old is the placement of a A. removable space maintainer.

B. bonded resin bridge (Maryland bridge). C. conventional fixed partial denture. D. single tooth implant. - ANSWER - >A. removable space maintainer. In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar, which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. Mesio-angular. B. Horizontal. C. Vertical. D. Disto-angular. - ANSWER - >D. Disto-angular. A laboratory remount of processed dentures is done in order to correct occlusal disharmony produced by errors primarily in the A. mounting of the casts on the articulator. B. registration of jaw relation records. C. processing of acrylic dentures. D. registration of condylar guidance. - ANSWER - >C. processing of acrylic dentures. During extraction of a maxillary third molar, the tuberosity is fractured. The tooth with the tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding soft tissue. You should A. remove both and suture. B. leave both and stabilize, if possible. C. remove both, fill the defect with Gelfoam and suture. D. reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in place and suture. - ANSWER - >B. leave both and stabilize, if possible. An adult patient has several multilocular lesions associated with vital mandibular teeth. A histopathologic analysis reveals the presence of multinucleated giant cells. The most appropriate

management for this patient is to A. extract the involved teeth. B. obtain a serum parathormone (PTH) level. C. commence antibiotic therapy. D. initiate endodontic treatments. E. perform a mandibular resection - ANSWER - >B. obtain a serum parathormone (PTH) level. If a tooth has an inadequate ferrule, which of the following is an effective strategy to increase tooth structure available for crown preparation? A. Cementation of the restoration with a glass ionomer cement. B. Sub-gingival preparation and prolonged temporization. C. Orthodontic eruption. D. Elective endodontic treatment and a post core. - ANSWER - >C. Orthodontic eruption. The tissue which is most sensitive to radiation is A. nerve. B. dental pulp. C. lymphoid. D. muscle. - ANSWER - >C. lymphoid. Methemoglobinemia is a potential complication of an excessive dose of A. bupivacaine. B. lidocaine. C. mepivacaine. D. prilocaine. - ANSWER - >D. prilocaine. The level of streptococcus mutans has been shown to be significantly higher in the bacterial plaque adjacent to which type of posterior restoration? A. Glass-ionomer. B. Composite resin.

C. Amalgam. D. Gold castings. - ANSWER - >B. Composite resin. Maxillary skeletal arch expansion A. is easiest in the preadolescent patient. B. requires surgery in skeletally immature patients. C. decreases arch space. D. increases overbite. - ANSWER - >A. is easiest in the preadolescent patient. Warfarin (Coumadin®) acts by A. preventing formation of thromboplastin. B. preventing fibrinogen conversion to fibrin. C. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver. D. incorporating ionic calcium. - ANSWER - >C. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver In complete denture contruction, the physiologic rest position A. provides a quide to establish the vertical dimension of occlusion. B. determines the level of the occlusal plane. C. provides a guide for the selection of cusp inclination. D. determines the shape of the compensating curve. E. is useful to the determination of condylar inclination. - ANSWER - >A. provides a quide to establish the vertical dimension of occlusion. In the pterygomandibular space, the inferior alveolar nerve passes A. anterior to the deep tendon of the temporal muscle. B. lateral to the sphenomandibular ligament. C. medial to the medial pterygoid muscle.

D. medial to the pterygomandibular raphe. - ANSWER - >B. lateral to the sphenomandibular ligament. Upon stimulation of salivary flow, which gland is the main source of salivary volume? A. Submandibular. B. Submaxillary. C. Sublingual. D. Parotid. - ANSWER - >D. Parotid. The gingivectomy is a useful technique to eliminate A. infrabony pockets. B. suprabony pockets. C. thick osseous ledges. D. mucogingival problems - ANSWER - >B. suprabony pockets. Following periodontal surgery, the curetted root surface is repopulated by cells derived from all of the following tissues EXCEPT A. periodontal ligament. B. cementum. C. alveolar bone. D. epithelium. E. gingival connective tissue - ANSWER - >B. cementum. Periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical cementoosseous dysplasia) A. is associated with a vital tooth. B. is found mainly in children. C. has an orange peel radiographic pattern. - ANSWER - >C. has an orange peel radiographic pattern. Which of the following drugs can be administered to manage pain following the acute onset of a migraine? A. Amitriptyline. B. Nifedipine.

C. Propranolol. D. Sumatriptan. - ANSWER - >D. Sumatriptan. With excessive forward mandibular growth in a patient with minimal overjet, the mandibular incisors will most likely A. tip labially. B. tip lingually. C. tip laterally. D. remain unchanged. - ANSWER - >B. tip lingually. "Tic douloureux" is synonymous with A. psychogenic facial pain. B. trigeminal neuralgia. C. facial paralysis. D. temporomandibular joint dysfunction. - ANSWER - >B. trigeminal neuralgia. By definition, a compound fracture of the mandible must have A. multiple bone fragments. B. exposure to the external environment. C. a tooth in the line of fracture. D. displacement of the fractured segments. - ANSWER - >B. exposure to the external environment. The start of a mandibular bone formation coincides with A. tooth germ development. B. completion of fusion of the facial processes. C. bone formation in the maxilla. D. completion of a mandible cartilage model. - ANSWER - >D. completion of a mandible cartilage model. Which of the following has a direct effect on periodontal tissues in diabetes mellitus-associated gingivitis? A. Lipopolysaccharides.

B. Matrix metalloproteinases. C. Proinflammatory cytokines. D. Prostaglandins. E. Leukotoxin. - ANSWER - >B. Matrix metalloproteinases. A 35 year old female patient has multiple petechiae hemorrhages of the palatal mucosa and ecchymoses of the right and left buccal mucosae. Which of the following is the most likely laboratory finding? A. Anemia. B. Prolonged partial thromboplastin time (PTT). C. Elevated INR. D. Thrombocytopenia. - ANSWER - >D. Thrombocytopenia. The inferior border of the lingual bar of a removable partial denture should A. displace the lingual frenum. B. be in contact with the cingula of the incisor teeth. C. be superior to the gingival border. D. be as inferior as the movement of the frenum of the tongue will permit. - ANSWER - >D. be as inferior as the movement of the frenum of the tongue will permit. Osteogenesis imperfecta is manifested by A. punched-out radiolucencies in the jaws. B. numerous unerupted supernumerary teeth. C. osteoporosis and anemia. D. multiple fractures and blue sclera. - ANSWER - >D. multiple fractures and blue sclera. In radiography, minimum magnification and maximum definition are achieved by A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).

C. maximum OFD (object - film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). - ANSWER - >B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). Side effects of chemotherapeutic treatment for malignancy include A. thinning of the oral mucosa. B. ulceration. C. necrosis. D. spontaneous bleeding. E. all of the above. - ANSWER - >E. all of the above. A clinical sign of unilateral fracture of the body of the zygoma is A. cerebrospinal rhinorrhea. B. impaired hearing. C. subconjunctival haemorrhage. D. otorrhea. - ANSWER - >C. subconjunctival haemorrhage. The use of an intra-coronal attachment is CONTRAINDICATED for a tooth A. that is nonvital. B. requiring a core procedure build up. C. supporting a partial denture. D. with short crown length. - ANSWER - >D. with short crown length. When probing a healthy peridontium using light forces, the probe tip will most likely extend to the A. attached gingiva. B. junctional epithelium. C. transverse fibres of the periodontal ligament. - ANSWER - >B. junctional epithelium. World epidemiological data indicates that

periodontal disease is the most likely cause of tooth loss in the following age group: A. 10 - 20 years. B. 20 - 30 years. C. 30 - 50 years. D. 65 - 75 years. E. over 75 years. - ANSWER - >C. 30 - 50 years. A surgical flap approach to periodontal pocket elimination permits A. healing by primary intention. B. retention of gingiva. C. access to perform osseous recontouring. D. All of the above. - ANSWER - >D. All of the above. For a patient with cardiovascular disease, local anesthesia A. affects blood pressure more than general anesthesia. B. affects blood pressure less than general anesthesia. C. is responsible for bacteremia. - ANSWER - >B. affects blood pressure less than general anesthesia. What is the most probable syndrome affecting a 9 year old patient with a history of 3 keratocystic odontogenic tumours (odontogenic keratocyst)? A. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin Syndrome). B. Familial colorectal polyposis (Gardner's Syndrome). C. Crouzon Syndrome. D. Apert Syndrome. - ANSWER - >A. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin Syndrome). The smear layer present on the root canal wall after

cleaning and shaping is best removed by using A. EDTA. B. hydrogen peroxide. C. chlorhexidine. D. isopropyl alcohol. - ANSWER - >A. EDTA. The primary etiological factor associated with periodontal disease is A. bacterial plaque. B. calculus. C. diabetes mellitus. D. tooth mobility. E. smoking. - ANSWER - >A. bacterial plaque. Odontoblast gap junctions A. adhere the cells to one another. B. attach the cells to the basement membrane. C. seal off the dentin from the pulp. D. permit lateral cell-cell communication. - ANSWER - >D. permit lateral cell-cell communication. The inorganic ion that is implicated in primary hypertension is A. sodium. B. fluoride. C. potassium. D. magnesium. - ANSWER - >A. sodium. Which type of malocclusion should be corrected as early as possible? A. Class II Division 1 associated with an anterior open bite. B. Class II Division 2 associated with an increased anterior overbite. C. Class III associated with an anterior open bite. D. Cross-bite associated with a functional shift of the mandible from initial contact to maximum

intercuspation. E. Anterior open bite associated with a lip or digit sucking habit. - ANSWER - >D. Cross-bite associated with a functional shift of the mandible from initial contact to maximum intercuspation. A patient with complete dentures complains of clicking. The most common causes are A. reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion. B. excessive vertical dimension and poor retention. C. use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal overlap. D. improper relation of teeth to the ridge and excessive anterior vertical overlap. - ANSWER - >B. excessive vertical dimension and poor retention. Ideally, within how many hours should one receive medical attention for percutaneous exposure to blood borne pathogens? A. 2. B. 4. C. 6. D. 8. - ANSWER - >A. 2. Which of the following drugs does NOT cause gingival enlargement? A. Nifedipine. B. Cyclosporine. C. Phenytoin. D. Prednisolone. - ANSWER - >D. Prednisolone. The maximum recommended number of 1.8ml cartridges of 2% lidocaine with epinephrine 1:100,000 that may be safely administered to a 17kg child is approximately

A. 0.5.

B. 1.

C. 1.5.

D. 2.

E. 2.5. - ANSWER - >D. 2.

Which of the following conditions may develop as a result of juvenile diabetes mellitus? A. Ataxia. B. Aphasia. C. Deafness. D. Blindness. E. Motor paralysis. - ANSWER - >D. Blindness. Which of the following is the most predictable indicator of periodontal stability? A. Patient compliance with maintenance visit. B. Gingival inflammation. C. Plaque index. D. Absence of bleeding on probing. - ANSWER - >D. Absence of bleeding on probing. Which condition is associated with elevated serum alkaline phosphatase and elevated urinary hydroxyproline levels? A. Fibrous dysplasia. B. Paget disease. C. Sjögren syndrome. D. Gardner syndrome. - ANSWER - >D. Gardner syndrome. To ensure a clinically acceptable setting time, polyalkenoic cements contain A. salicylic acid. B. phosphoric acid. C. maleic acid. D. tartaric acid. E. itaconic acid. - ANSWER - >D. tartaric acid.

The metabolic clearance of which of the following drugs is NOT reduced in an elderly patient? A. Carbamazepine. B. Warfarin. C. Morphine. D. Clindamycin. - ANSWER - >D. Clindamycin. A gluteal intramuscular injection may be safely administered in which quadrant? A. Lower medial. B. Upper medial. C. Lower lateral. D. Upper lateral. - ANSWER - >D. Upper lateral. The local anesthetic technique requiring the needle to contact the neck of the condyle is the A. posterior superior alveolar nerve block. B. Gow-Gates block. C. Vazirani-Akinosi block. D. inferior alveolar nerve block. - ANSWER - >B. Gow-Gates block. Sickle cell anemia is A. a genetic disease. B. caused by exposure to radiation. C. a viral infection. D. a drug reaction. E. an auto-immune disease. - ANSWER - >A. a genetic disease. When will infiltrating new blood vessels be histologically detectable following a free gingival graft? A. 2 to 3 hours. B. 2 to 3 days. C. 2 to 3 weeks. D. 2 to 3 months. - ANSWER - >B. 2 to 3 days.

Biocompatibility tests conducted in vitro A. follow screening with an animal model. B. predict human cell growth or death. C. reproduce the in vivo environment. D. are more easily standardized than clinical studies. - ANSWER - >B. predict human cell growth or death. In order to prevent gingival recession, a full gold crown should have A. a slightly narrow food table. B. a slightly overcontoured tooth form. C. normal contour reproduced. D. the margins extended 1mm subgingivally. - ANSWER - >C. normal contour reproduced. Widening of the periodontal ligament space is NOT seen radiographically in A. trauma from occlusion. B. orthodontic tooth movement. C. Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis). D. Paget's disease. - ANSWER - >D. Paget's disease. Bite-wing radiographs are most valuable for detecting A. hyperemia of the pulp. B. occlusal carious lesions. C. proximal surface caries. D. cervical caries. - ANSWER - >C. proximal surface caries. The pulpal floor of a Class II cavity is cut perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth EXCEPT in the A. maxillary first premolar. B. maxillary second premolar. C. mandibular second premolar. D. mandibular first premolar. - ANSWER - >D. mandibular first premolar.

located A. within basal bone. B. coronal to alveolar bone crest. C. apical to alveolar bone crest. - ANSWER - >C. apical to alveolar bone crest. An 86 year old patient with poor oral hygiene has a cavitated lesion with active caries. The lesion is on the vestibular root surface of a maxillary posterior tooth, and the patient does not want any mercury in their mouth. The most appropriate restorative material for this lesion is a/an A. microfill resin composite. B. hybrid resin composite. C. resin-modified glass ionomer. D. amalgam. - ANSWER - >C. resin-modified glass ionomer. Which of the following presents with high serum calcium levels, thinning of cortical bone and giant cell osteoclasts in the jaw and drifting teeth? A. Hyperthyroidism. B. Hyperparathyroidism. C. Hypothyroidism. D. Hypoparathyroidism. - ANSWER - >B. Hyperparathyroidism. An 86 year old patient with poor oral hygiene has a cavitated lesion with active caries. The lesion is on the vestibular root surface of a maxillary posterior tooth, and the patient does not want any mercury in their mouth. The most appropriate restorative material for this lesion is a/an A. microfill resin composite. B. hybrid resin composite. C. resin-modified glass ionomer. D. amalgam. - ANSWER - >C. resin-modified glass ionomer. The condyle of the mandible is unique because A. it develops from Meckel's cartilage.

B. both interstitial and appositional bone formation are present. C. both primary and secondary cartilage growth centres are present. - ANSWER - >B. both interstitial and appositional bone formation are present. Which of the following characteristics is common to all types of aphthous ulcers? A. History of pain. B. Involvement of keratinized mucosa. C. Presence of vesicles. D. Presence of fever. E. Scar formation after healing. - ANSWER - >A. History of pain. For an adult patient, the recommended time interval between bite-wing radiographic examination for the detection of dental caries is A. 6 months. B. 12 months. C. 24 months. D. dependent upon caries risk. - ANSWER - >D. dependent upon caries risk. Drug-induced gingival overgrowth will most likely occur on the interdental papillae of which area? A. Anterior palate. B. Posterior palate. C. Anterior labial. D. Posterior buccal. - ANSWER - >C. Anterior labial. All of the following conditions are associated with AIDS EXCEPT A. acute marginal periodontitis. B. hairy leukoplakia. C. candidiasis. D. geographic tongue. - ANSWER - >D. geographic tongue.