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NEHA RS/REHS TEST REVIEW CREATED APRIL 2024 WELL DETAILED, Exams of Advanced Education

NEHA RS/REHS TEST REVIEW CREATED APRIL 2024 WELL DETAILED

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2024/2025

Available from 04/09/2025

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NEHA RS/REHS TEST REVIEW CREATED APRIL 2024
WELL DETAILED
1. Which would require a variance according to the FDA food code?
a. Cook, cool and reheat of chili
b. Sous Vide
c. ROP of raw meat
d. Smoking meat for preservation: Smoking meat for preservation
2. Order the following for an inspection based on importance most to
least?
a. food festival without a hand sink
b. restaurant without power
c. chlorine leak at a public apool: Chlorine leak at a public pool, restaurant
without power, food festival without a hand sink
3. What causes infections in tattoos?: Staphylococcus aureus
4. What chemical raises the pH of the pool?: sodium bicarbonate (soda ash)
5. Which would require an inspection first based on the risk caused to
the public if you only have time for one inspection?
a. The hotel is 6 months past due for an inspection
b. Tattoo parlor is nine months past due for an inspection
c. Fast food restaurant one month past due for an inspection
d. A pool that's not open but is looking to open in 2 weeks: Tattoo parlor
nine months past due
6. When conducting a reinspection at a pool, what will you look at first?
a. The main drain is visible at the bottom of the pool
b. The flow rate in range
c. pH of the pool
d. Chemical log being filled out daily: The main drain is visible at the
bottom of the pool
7. HACCP targets which bacteria?: Listeria monocytogenes
8. What are the 7 steps of a HACCP plan?: 1. Conduct a hazardous analysis
2. Determine Critical Control Points (CCPs)
3. Establish Critical Limits
4. Establish Monitoring Procedures
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NEHA RS/REHS TEST REVIEW CREATED APRIL 2024

WELL DETAILED

  1. Which would require a variance according to the FDA food code? a. Cook, cool and reheat of chili b. Sous Vide c. ROP of raw meat d. Smoking meat for preservation: Smoking meat for preservation
  2. Order the following for an inspection based on importance most to least? a. food festival without a hand sink b. restaurant without power c. chlorine leak at a public apool: Chlorine leak at a public pool, restaurant without power, food festival without a hand sink
  3. What causes infections in tattoos?: Staphylococcus aureus
  4. What chemical raises the pH of the pool?: sodium bicarbonate (soda ash)
  5. Which would require an inspection first based on the risk caused to the public if you only have time for one inspection? a. The hotel is 6 months past due for an inspection b. Tattoo parlor is nine months past due for an inspection c. Fast food restaurant one month past due for an inspection d. A pool that's not open but is looking to open in 2 weeks: Tattoo parlor nine months past due
  6. When conducting a reinspection at a pool, what will you look at first? a. The main drain is visible at the bottom of the pool b. The flow rate in range c. pH of the pool d. Chemical log being filled out daily: The main drain is visible at the bottom of the pool
  7. HACCP targets which bacteria?: Listeria monocytogenes
  8. What are the 7 steps of a HACCP plan?: 1. Conduct a hazardous analysis
  9. Determine Critical Control Points (CCPs)
  10. Establish Critical Limits
  11. Establish Monitoring Procedures
  1. Establish Corrective Actions
  2. Establish verification procedures
  3. Establish record-keeping and documentation procedures
  4. What is the target pH of sushi rice?: 4.6 or below
  5. What causes methemoglobinemia in toddlers?: nitrates
  6. What would you deal with first? a. One Person eating lipstick with 2 ppm lead b. Lead in the paint of a house with an infant c. Air averaging 0.15 μg/m3 lead for 3 months in a location d. 15% of the house's water level is above 15 μg/L lead in a given area: Lead in the paint of a house with an infant
  7. How much faster do infants absorb lead than adults?: 4 to 5 times more than adults
  8. If a house built in 1970 was taken down to the studs and redone in 1980, what would you inspect first regarding a sickness from lead in a person's house?: Paint peeling from around window sill
  9. What following pet can lead to Psittacosis in a child Parrots Dogs Cats Mouse: Parrots
  10. Most common cockroach in the US?: German
  11. Amount of soil to put on a finished landfill: 24 inches
  12. What carries Hantavirus?: Rodents
  13. What of the following is not characteristic of Hazardous waste a. corrosive b. toxic c. ignitable d. degradable: Degradable Remember, CRIT is the 4 hazardous waste items (corrosive, reactive, ignitable, toxic)
  14. Formula for turnover rate: Turnover Rate in Hours= (Pool Gallons/GPM)/
  15. A daycare with a wading pool needs to do what of the following? a. Drained and cleaned daily or after each use b. Have a chlorine level of 5 ppm

Positive pressure full face mask SCBA (self contained breathing apparatus)

  1. There was heavy rain and a septic tank has not been buried. What is the main concern?: Floating of the tank
  2. Nosocomial infections are most severe in? a. schools b. restaurants c. hospitals d. prison commissary: Hospitals
  3. What disease is commonly spread through wastewater?: HEP A
  4. What type of soil is best for an onsite wastewater system?: Red, Brown, or Yellow
  5. What is the goal of onsite wastewater systems?: collect, treat, and disperse wastewater generated by a home or business.
  6. What is the biggest concern at a festival lasting more than three days?: - water, sewage, food protection
  7. When confirming there are enough portable bathrooms at a 3-day music event for 200,000 people, what must an RS also look for? They are all centrally located all across from the food location Accessible from the camping location hat they are located to be easily serviced: That they are located to be easily serviced
  8. A complaint is received stating a rash after swimming in a hot tub. What is likely to have caused the rash?: Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
  9. What travels the furthest in a septic field bacteria or viruses?: Viruses
  10. What temp are shell eggs received at?: 45°F or below
  11. Temp. to cook eggs for immediate service?: 145°F for 15 seconds
  12. Temp, to cook scrambled eggs for hot holding?: 155°F for 15 seconds
  13. What temp do you cook chicken to?: 165°F for 1 second
  14. What is the process of moderating the temperature of a food, such as allowing it to gradually increase from a frozen temperature to facilitate heat penetration during cooking?: Slacking
  1. When you add a disposal to a kitchen and septic system what do you expect to see an increase of?: Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)
  2. How do you calibrate a thermometer?: 32°F ice water or 212°F boiling water
  3. Salmonella grows best in what pH?: 6.5-7.
  4. What amount of space is needed per person on a bathing beach?: Bather use- A minimum of 25 square feet of water surface per bather shall be provided if less than four feet deep. At least 75 square feet per bather must be provided in an area over four feet deep. Land area - At least 35 square feet of land area per bather should be provided.
  5. When reviewing plans for new septic insulation, what is the least impor- tant? Distance to house Distance to bedrock Distance from well Distance from a stream or river: Distance to house
  6. What chemical dechlorinates water?: sodium thiosulfate
  7. What is another name for Oriental cockroach?: Water bug
  8. What is another name for American cockroach: Palmetto bug
  9. The strongest pesticide control is used by?: Dursban
  10. What is the recommended level of cyanuric acid?: 30 to 50 ppm Shall not exceed 70 ppm
  11. What is the overall purpose of a site review?: To evaluate whether a sewage system can fit on the property
  12. How many feet away from property lines of sewer lines of a mobile park?- : 10 feet
  13. hat are the 6 air pollutants?: ozone(O3) carbon monoxide (CO) nitrogen oxides(NO2) particulate matter
  1. Indoor air quality at a facility: Some people are experiencing headaches, watery eyes, and throat symptoms/problems. This is most likely due to what?- : HVAC or dust and pollen contaminates?
  2. What shall the swimming pool-related fecal matter incident do?: Super chlorinate; 20 ppm for at least 12.5 Hours.
  3. Slope of landfills, what is the slope ratio?: 33% or 3 to 1.
  4. Comminuted refers to: A food that is reduced in size by chopping, grinding, etc., and restructured. Examples include hot dogs, sausage, salami, and bratwurst, which are made of ground meats and filled into a casing.
  5. What mosquito for Aedes Triseriatus?: Eastern Treehole Mosquito
  6. What mosquito for Culex Pipiens?: Northern House Mosquito
  7. What are two tests used for sewage effluent?: CBOD5- five-day carbona- ceous biochemical oxygen demand TSS- total suspended solids
  8. What causes Typhoid: Salmonella typhi
  9. Bacteria that can be spread by house flies: Musca Domestica
  10. Food that can contain listeria monocytogenes: Contaminated foods could include: unpasteurized milk soft cheeses vegetables raw or undercooked poultry deli meats
  11. If a garbage disposal is added to a septic tank hoe much should the tank increase by?: 50%
  12. What does ICS stand for?: Incident Command System
  13. During an incident one person can effectivity supervise how many peo- ple?: 3-7 people however 5 is ideal
  14. What is Incident Complexity: The combination of involved factors that affect the probability of control of an incident.
  15. What are the 14 essential ICS Features: Command

1- Common Terminology 2- Establishment and Transfer of Command 3- Chain of Command and Unity of Command 4- Unified Command Planning/Organizational Structure 5- Management by Objectives 6- Modular Organization 7- Incident Action Planning 8- Manageable Span of Control Facilities/Resources 9- Incident Locations and Facilities 10- Comprehensive Resource Management Communications/Information Management 11- Integrated Communications 12- Information and Intelligence management Professionalism 13- Accountability 14- Dispatch/Deployment

  1. What does the incident commander do?: 1- Manages the organization and NOT THE INCIDENT 2- Responsible for overall incident management 3- Ensuring clear authority and knowledge of agency policy 4- Ensuring incident safety
  2. What does the command staff do?: Assigned to carry out staff functions needed to support the IC
  3. In an emergency response what is the general staff responsible for?: Re- sponsible for the functional aspects of the incident command structure
  4. What does the Public Information Officer (PIO) do in an emergency re- sponse?: 1-Determine any limits on information release 2-Develop information for use in press/media 3-Obtain IC approval for news releases 4-Conduct media briefings

4-Supervise the preparation of the IAP 5-Determine the need for specialized resources

  1. In an emergency response what does the logistics section do?: 1- Provides all incident support needs except for logistics support to air operations 2-Responsible for providing:
  • Facilities
  • Transportation
  • Communication
  • Supplies
  • Fuel/Maintenance -Medical Services
  • Food
  1. In an emergency response what does the finance/administration section do?: Responsible for managing all financial aspects of an incident Not all incidents will require this section Manage all financial aspects of an incident Provide financial and cost analysis information Ensure compensation and claims functions are addressed
  2. How long does water need to run before a water sample can be taken?: 2 minutes, but local health departments might require longer.
  3. Humidity over what percent can lead to a good environment for viruses and bacteria: 60%
  4. **What is the ORDER for the FDA food code violations
  • Priority Foundation Item
  • Priority Item
  • Core Item:** Priority Item, Priority Foundation Item, Core Item
  1. What are Priority Item?: Violations are those that most directly eliminate or reduce a risk of foodborne illness, such as improper

temperatures of hot/cold holding, rodent or insect infestation, and food contact surfaces. (Critical Violations)

  1. What are Priority Foundation Item?: Violations are those items that contribute to the compliance of priority violations and enable one or more priority items. For example, not having a metal stem thermometer, sanitizer test strips, or soap or paper towels at a hand sink. (Non-critical violations that could lead to a critical violation)
  2. What are Core Item?: Violations involve routine sanitation and facility upkeep. For example, this would consist of things like unclean floors, general maintenance, and buildings or facilities (Non-critical violations of the facility/building)
  3. When is a HACCP is Required?: -Smoking for preservation -Using food additives to preserve or alter food so that it would no longer be consid- ered TCS -Curing food -Packaging food using Reduced Oxygen Packaging (ROP) or Modified Atmospheric Packaging (MAP) -Custom processing of animals -Pasteurizing juice on-site and packaging for later sale -Sprouting seeds or beans
  4. What are the types/temperatures of pasteurization of milk?: - Batch/Vat Pasteurization - 145°F for 30 Minutes -HTST (High Temp Short Time) - 161°F for 15 Seconds -HHST (Higher Heat Shorter Time) - 191°F for 1 Second -Ultra Pasteurization - 280°F for 2 Seconds (Kills spores) (Allows milk to stay out at room temperature)
  5. What homeowner should do after installation of Septic Tank?: Increase water usage to fill the empty tank, then resume normal water usage - PREVENTS FLOATING OF TANK
  1. Mobilize community partnerships
  2. Develop policies and plans
  3. Enforce laws and regulations
  4. Link people to needed personal health services
  5. Assure a competent workforce
  6. Evaluate
  7. Research
  8. Nelson Fabian: Director of Environmental Health Association Three Principles - Current/Future Effect on EH in 1998
  9. The transition from a police function to a scientific standing
  10. The emergence of environmental protection and the subordination of EH
  11. The privatization of EH
  12. Responsibility areas of REHS/RS: Ë Food protection ËPotable water ËSolid/Hazardous waste management ËVector control ËRadiation protection ËOccupational safety and health ËAir quality ËNoise control ËHousing ËInstitutions and licensed establishments ËSwimming pools ËRecreational facilities ËDisaster sanitation
  13. Epidemic: The occurrence in an area of a group of illnesses similar in nature, clearly in excess of normal expectancy
  14. Endemic: Habitual presence of a disease within a geographical area
  15. Pandemic: Outbreak of exceptional proportions spreading quickly from one part to another
  1. Incidence (Rate): New cases of a disease in a population during specific time / Persons at risk during that time period
  2. Prevalence: Indicate how many total numbers of cases of a disease are occurring relative to the total population - occurrence of disease at a given time
  3. Morbidity: The condition of being ill or sick
  4. Mortality: The condition of being dead
  5. Lag phase: A period when the bacteria are adjusting to the environment (Adjustment)
  6. Log phase: A population grows in a logarithmic fashion (Growth)
  7. Descriptive Study (Epi): The study of the amount and distribution of disease within a given population by person, place, and time. Summarizes the basic data available on health and the major causes of disease
  8. Analytic Study (Epi): The study of causes determining the relatively high or low disease frequency in specific groups. Seeks to discover the causes of problems by formulating hypotheses based on actual observations of existing diseases, con- ducting studies of outbreaks, and evaluating the data to determine the accuracy of original hypotheses.
  9. Experimental Studies: The investigator determines through a controlled process the exposure for each individual (clinical trial) or community (community trial), and then tracks the individuals or communities over time to detect the effects of the exposure
  10. Observational Studies: Simply observe the exposure and disease status of each study participant.
  11. Prospective Cohort Study: Similar in concept to the experimental study. In a cohort study, the epidemiologist records whether each study participant is exposed or not, and then tracks the participants to see if they develop the disease of interest. Participants are enrolled as the study begins and are then followed prospectively over time to identify the occurrence of the outcomes of interest.
  12. Retrospective Cohort Study: Both the exposure and the outcomes have already occurred. Like in a prospective cohort study, the investigator

blood, or from mother to child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding. It cannot be given to someone consuming food prepared by someone with HIV. Exposure to air, heat from cooking, and stomach acid would destroy it.

  1. Hantavirus (V) sources: Normally infect rodents where they do not cause disease. Humans may become infected with hantaviruses through contact with rodent urine, saliva, or feces. DEER MOUSE
  2. Ebola Virus (V) source: Viral hemorrhagic fever of humans and other primates caused by ebolaviruses. Between people, Ebola disease spreads only by direct contact with the blood or other body fluids of a person who has developed symptoms of the disease.
  3. West Nile Virus (V) Source: Viral infection typically spread by mosquitoes. From the following masquitos commonly Culex pipiens (Eastern United States, and urban and residential areas of the United States north) Culex tarsalis (Midwest and West), and Culex quinquefasciatus (Southeast)
  4. Asian Bird Flu (V): Avian influenza is a disease caused by infection with avian (bird) influenza (flu) Type A viruses. These viruses occur naturally among wild aquatic birds worldwide and can infect domestic poultry and other bird and animal species. Avian flu viruses do not normally infect humans.
  5. Reservoir: Any person, animal, plant, soil, or substance in which an infectious agent normally lives and multiplies. The reservoir typically harbors the infectious agent without injury to itself and serves as a source from which other individuals can be infected
  6. Portals of Exit from a Reservoir: Respiratory tract, Genitourinary alimentary, skin, in utero, gastrointestinal, blood, mucous membranes
  1. Direct Transmission: Skin-to-skin, person-to-person, aerosol, or droplet transmission. Occurs when there is physical contact between an infected person and a susceptible person.
  2. Indirect Transmission: This occurs when the reservoir and the host are sepa- rated. occurs when there is no direct human-to-human contact. Contact occurs from a reservoir to contaminated surfaces or objects, or to vectors such as mosquitoes, flies, mites, fleas, ticks, rodents, or dogs.
  3. Active Immunity: Results from the production of antibodies by the immune system in response to the presence of an antigen. Attained by infection or inocula- tion.
  4. Passive Immunity: The short-term immunity that results from the introduction of antibodies from another person or animal. Transplacental transfer.
  5. Sanitization: The process of reducing microbial contamination to an accept- able "safe" level. The process of cleaning objects without necessarily going through sterilization.
  6. Sterilization: The complete elimination or destruction of all forms of life by chemical or physical means. This is an absolute, not a relative, term.
  7. Antisepsis: Typically, an antiseptic is a chemical agent that is applied to living tissue to kill microbes. Note that not all disinfectants are antiseptics because an antiseptic additionally must not be so harsh that it damages living tissue. Antiseptics are less toxic than disinfectants used on inanimate objects
  8. Disinfection: A procedure of treatment that eliminates many or all pathogenic microorganisms except bacterial spores.
  9. Due process: Refers to the necessary procedural requirements that govern- ment agencies must follow to take action against parties violating applicable laws.
  10. Statutes: These are laws enacted by elected officials of the nation (Federal) or state legislative body.
  11. Ordinances: These are laws enacted by local elected officials of the nation or state, such as municipalities or counties.
  12. Administrative/Enforcement/Abatement Order: A legal document from a state or federal agency directing an individual, business, or agency to
  1. Agent: A person authorized by another. Managers are usually the agents, and the law generally recognizes that notices, orders, and other requirements can be made of agents with as much binding force as if the action were given to the owner directly.
  2. Embargo: A legal order prohibiting the removal or use of something. It may entail placing a notice or tag on the object.
  3. Seizure Order: The legal permission to confiscate, retain, and/or dispose of something, such as the seizure and disposal of containers of food contaminated by sewage during a flood.
  4. Civil Law: Involves individuals or groups acting in a nonpublic capacity in which some form of compensation is sought, and liability, not guilt, is established.
  5. Criminal Law: The purpose is to prevent harm to society.
  6. Hearsay: Testimony about what a witness heard said by someone unavailable for cross-examination, is usually not admissible evidence.
  7. Informed Consent: This lessens the professional's liability when the risk of a pending activity is explained. For example, if it is observed that a restaurant's refrigerated meat is close to, but still within the time and temperature limits allowed by law, the REHS will explain that it is reaching a hazardous condition. The manager must determine whether to destroy the food or continue to use it. If the manager takes the risk of serving the food, the REHS has given him informed consent.
  8. Search Warrant: Must be obtained from a court based on probable cause that a criminal violation exists, which is stated in a sworn affidavit. Authorizes the officer to search for and seize property that is evidence of the commission of a crime.
  9. Subpoena: A legal process to compel access to records and documents. A crime or violation need not be committed for a subpoena to be obtained. A subpoena gives access to existing records but cannot force a person to create additional documents, fill out questionnaires, or answer verbal questions.
  1. Embargo, Seizure, Destruction: With respect to legal action to protect the consumer from adulterated foods, the following places the enforcement alternatives in ascending order.
  2. Freedom of Information Act (1967): Gives public access to governmental records. The Act defines agency records subject to disclosure, outlines mandatory disclosure procedures, and grants nine exemptions to the statute.
  3. Health Care Quality Improvement Act (1986): Major antitrust legislation was passed by the US Congress in 1986. This Act was passed to check the high degree and number of medical malpractices that had been taking place for about a decade before this legislation. The HCQIA sought to blacklist physicians and surgeons that were found guilty of malpractices as described in this legislation. One of the main methods of medical malpractice that surgeons and other medical practitioners used to resort to was to simply move from the State in which he or she committed misdemeanors to another in which the law was less punitive. This made it impossible for the authorities to repatriate the erring practitioner to the original State for prosecution because a federal law that applied to all States was absent till then.
  4. Clean Air Act (CAA): EPA has jurisdiction Enforcement and issuance of discharge permits are carried out by the states and are called state implementation plans. EPA sets national ambient air quality standards
  • 6 criteria pollutants
  1. National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) 6 pollutants: The Clean Air Act, which was last amended in 1990, requires EPA to set National Ambient Air Quality Standards Carbon Monoxide CO, Lead Pb, Nitrogen dioxide NO2, Ozone O3, Particulate Matter PM, and Sulfur Dioxide SO