NERC EXAM TEST BANK WITH 3 UPDATED VERSIONS ALL 250 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VER, Exams of Nursing

Download NERC EXAM TEST BANK WITH 3 UPDATED VERSIONS ALL 250 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VER and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NERC EXAM TEST BANK WITH 3 UPDATED VERSIONS ALL 250 ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE 2024-2025 ALL GRADED A+ NEW!! 1. Balancing Authority A is importing MW and has a tie-Iine flowing into them when the meter fails to zero. Which of the following statements is true? A) The Balancing Authority's frequency will drop B) The Balancing Authority's generators on AGC will decrease output C) The Balancing Authority's frequency will increase D) The Balancing Authority's ACE reading will decrease B) The Balancing Authority's generators on AGC will decrease output 2. Balancing Authority A has tie-line meter fail to zero on a line that is exporting 200 MWs. Which of the following statements is true? A) The Balancing Authority's total demand indication will increase B) The Balancing Authority's generators on AGC will decrease output C) The Balancing Authority's frequency will decrease D) The Balancing Authority's ACE reading will increase A) The Balancing Authority's total demand indication will increase 3. How does a System Operator realize the power system is getting close to the end of its available reactive resources? A) The voltage is increasing B) The rate of decrease/increase of the voltage does not relate to change in the load C) The rate of increase of the voltage decreases with the load D) The rate of decrease of the voltage increases with the load D) The rate of decrease of the voltage increases with the load 4. Which of the following indications would result from a significant loss of generation on an external BA? A) your ACE goes up and frequency stays the same B) your ACE stays the same and frequency increases C) your ACE stays the same and frequency decreases D) your ACE goes down and frequency drops C) your ACE stays the same and frequency decreases 5. You have restored a line to service after an outage. After closing the line, one of the phases shows no current flow. What is your next action? A) Have the on-site crew open the line B) Notify your RC C) Call the crew that restored the line to check reading on each phase D) Report RTU problem C) Call the crew that restored the line to check reading on each phase 6. Which of the following would classify as an Operating Instruction? A) Requesting generator status from a Generator Operator B) Discussing Operating Plan with an Adjacent Transmission Operator C) Directing a Generator Operator to maintain current MVAR output of a generator D) Requesting outage information from a Distribution Provider C) Directing a Generator Operator to maintain current MVAR output of a generator 7. After the winter morning peak, you have CTs base-loaded unable to decrease output and other units unable to regulate any lower. Nuclear units are loaded and your solar is starting to pick up. ACE is trending up and you have no regulation. What would you do? A) Take your CTs off-line B) Increase Interchange out C) Curtail solar power production D) Consider available spinning reserve and replace resources planned for the day A) Take your CTs off-line 8. How can you more effectively increase the MW transfer rate through a transmission line? A) Decrease Voltage on the sending end B) Change taps on the Phase Shifting Transformer (PST) C) Insert Shunt Reactor D) Bypass a Series Capacitor C) Insert Shunt Reactor 19. Geomagnetic Disturbances effect the ability to control: A) AGC B) Frequency C) Reactive Power D) Real Power C) Reactive Power 20. Geomagnetic Induced Currents (GIC) may cause which of the following when they travel into the power system? A) Decrease reactive power demand B) Generator operations in the Lead C) Increase of reactive power reserves D) Transformer hot spot and over-heating D) Transformer hot spot and over-heating 21. How often is a Reliability Coordinator required to perform Real-time assessments to identify an SOL or IROL violation? A) 15 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 60 minutes D) 120 minutes B) 30 minutes 22. A transmission line has capacitance reactance of 200 ohms and inductive reactance of 600 ohms, what is the net reactance of this line? A) 200 ohms B) 400 ohms C) 600 ohms D) 800 ohms B) 400 ohms 23. How many poles does a generator need if the RPM is 300 and the Generator Owner expects to operate in the same 60.00 Hz system as a 4 pole, 1800 RPM generator? A) 12 poles B) 18 poles C) 24 poles D) 48 poles C) 24 poles 24. What is a Power System Stabilizer used for? A) Dampening low frequency oscillations B) Correct the excitation system response to low frequency oscillations C) Send corrective voltage signals to the AVR D) All of these are correct D) All of these are correct 25. When is it acceptable for the voltage to be reduced by 5%? A) To increase power transfers B) When demand is high and needs to be reduced C) When islanding D) When generation is too high B) When demand is high and needs to be reduced 26. You have requested an EEA to be declared by your Reliability Coordinator, you have no sales and there are no entities with generation to sell, which EEA are you in if you have your contingency reserves and generation to meet the peak and have implemented demand-side management procedures? A) EEA 0 B) EEA 1 C) EEA 2 D) EEA 3 C) EEA 2 27. You have maximum generation of 15,000 MW, you are expecting a peak of 7000 MW, you are selling 4000 MW and your largest unit is 1400 MW, what is the total generation you must have? A) 8400 B) 9600 C) 12400 D) 15060 :: C) 12400 28. A Reliability Coordinator receives a Time Error notification to begin at the top of the hour and last for 6 hours. Whom does the RC notify of a Time Error correction? A) All Balancing Authorities in the Interconnection B) Balancing Authorities in its area C) Post it on RCIS D) RC implements time error correction for their BA B) Balancing Authorities in its area 29. During a disturbance, you have separated from the Interconnection and your UFLS program shed load and frequency is holding at 59.80 Hz. What would be you next course of action? A) Reset the UFLS program B) Prepare for frequency to drop and other levels of UFLS to activate C) Manually shed load to restore Frequency D) Ask RC for increase generation in area C) Manually shed load to restore Frequency 30. Voltage is high and you need to lower the amount of MVARS on your system, what do you use? A) Generators B) Shunt Capacitor C) Shunt Reactor D) Transformer C) Shunt Reactor 31. A generator at Station A is at maximum MVAR output. You are in the process of putting a transmission line back in service which will be Iightly loaded at C) +35 D) -50 A) 0 42. How often should you test alternative communication means? A) Daily B) Weekly C) Monthly D) Quarterly C) Monthly 43. Use chart to determine minimum load that must be shed to alleviate 34 MW of power flow? Station Load DF Impact A 10 50 5 B 20 45 9 C 10 50 5 D 20 10 2 E 50 50 25 A) 50 B) 70 C) 80 D) 90 B) 70 44. A Transmission Operator sees his meter readings fluctuate at 0710, he is contacted by a neighbor TOP at 0720 who informs him that an IROL had occurred at 0705. By when must they mitigate the IROL violation, assuming the IROL has the maximum allowed IROL Tv? A) 0730 B) 0735 C) 0740 D) 0805 B) 0735 45. How much power draw can be expected during restoration when you pick up motor loads that has been off for an extended period? A) Up to 2 times normal B) Up to 5 times normal C) Up to 10 times normal D) Up to 15 times normal C) Up to 10 times normal 46. A transformer with nameplate limit of 300/400/500 MVA, has no auxiliary cooling, at what limit would you operate this transformer? A) 300 B) 400 C) 500 D) Take it off-line A) 300 47. What initially arrests frequency after a loss of generation? A) Under frequency load shed B) AGC C) Frequency Response Characteristic D) Frequency bias C) Frequency Response Characteristic 48. How will ACE respond when there is a large generation change outside of your Balancing area that causes frequency to go to 59.90 Hz.? A) Net Interchange Actual will increase B) Net Interchange Actual will decrease C) Net Interchange Schedules will increase D) Net Interchange Schedules will decrease A) Net Interchange Actual will increase 49. Your Balancing Authority has lost multiple generators, after deploying contingency reserves the BA still has a large negative ACE and tie lines are over emergency limits with incoming power flow. What action should you take next? A) Recalculate tie line limits B) Schedule more interchange, regardless of cost C) Shed load to return ACE to zero D) Restore reserves C) Shed load to return ACE to zero 50. A local transmission line trips when it made contact with a tree. At one terminal SCADA shows every breaker on the bus open. What likely caused this result? A) Differential relay B) Ground relay C) Remedial Action Scheme D) Breaker Failure relay D) Breaker Failure relay 52. A 50 MVA transformer has 30 MW flowing into it from the high-side. How many MVARS could flow through the transformers without exceeding limits? A) 20 MVARs B) 30 MVARs C) 40 MVARs D) 50 MVARs C) 40 MVARs 53. A capacitor at Station B is rated at 100 MVAR. Station B voltage is .90 p.u. when you place the capacitor in service, what is the output of the capacitor bank? A) 100 MVAR B) 90 MVAR C) 81 MVAR D) 50 MVAR C) 81 MVAR 57. Which of the following must Transmission Operators pass to the Reliability Coordinator as soon as they are aware of it? A) Generator MW, MVAR capacity B) Failure of primary communications at a critical facility C) 205 MVA 72. Three branches are connected in parallel. The currents 3, 6, and 9 amps. What is the total current of the circuit? A) 0 B) 6 C) 18 D) 36 C) 18 73. A transmission tie-line with power flow coming into your area is approaching its SOL. What should be done first to relieve this situation? A) Increase generation B) Increase imports C) Reduce voltage on transmission lines D) Shed load A) Increase generation 75. AGC function primarily does which of the following? A) Calculates an Area Control Error B) Moves all generator to support frequency C) Keeps frequency at target D) Determines the stability of the Interconnection A) Calculates an Area Control Error 76. BA B has scheduled interchange of 150 MWs from BA A and 50 MWs to BA C. Actual Interchange is 160 MWs from BA A and SSMWs to BA C. If these power flows continue for a full hour. What is the Inadvertent Interchange for BA B for that hour? A) -5 MWh B) 5 MWh C) -10 MWh D) 10 MWh A) -5 MWh 78. A Balancing Authority anticipating an operating capacity or energy emergency shall perform all actions necessary which includes: A) proactive load shedding B) transmission line switching C) bringing on all available generation D) voltage reduction C) bringing on all available generation 79. Protective relays have current flowing to them that is proportional to the current that is in the primary circuit. What is used to transform the current from the primary circuit to a smaller proportional amount for the protective relay? A) Current Transformers B) Series Capacitors C) Vacuum Interrupters D) Positive Sequence Instruments A) Current Transformers 80. During system restoration, what is the System Operator's first priority? A) Restoration of interchange B) Restoration of Customer Load C) Restoration of off-site power to critical facilities D) Interconnection Frequency C) Restoration of off-site power to critical facilities 81. A transmission line is scheduled out for maintenance. Power Flow studies indicate another transmission line will overload as a result. The Transmission Operator must take which of the following actions? A) Raise interchange schedule B) Reschedule the transmission line maintenance C) Lower transfers D) Notify BA to adjust generation B) Reschedule the transmission line maintenance 82. Scheduled Interchange is 200 MW and Actual Interchange is 215 MW. The Frequency Bias Setting is 15 MW/.1 Hz and frequency is 60.00 Hz. Suddenly Frequency drops to 59.90 Hz. What is the resulting ACE calculation? A) 0 MW B) 15 MW over-generating C) 30 MW under-generating D) 15 MW under-generating B) 15 MW over-generating 83. If a Transmission Operator or Balancing Authority is unable to restore Real and Reactive Power Balance, and corrective action or emergency assistance is not adequate, they shall: A) Implement manual load shedding B) Direct the RC to provide assistance C) Reduce voltage on the transmission system D) Reduce voltage on the distribution system A) Implement manual load shedding 84. The system operator notices that a transmission line has a net VAR flow of 25 MVARs into the line. Which of the statements is true under this condition? A) The line is equivalent to an inductor B) The line is transferring the optimum load C) The line is nearing voltage collapse D) The line is equivalent to a capacitor A) The line is equivalent to an inductor 85. When the frequency of an Interconnection decreases due to the loss of a large generator, the frequency will continue to drop until which combination rebalances load and generation at a lower frequency? A) generator AVR response and load dampening B) generator AVR response and voltage regulating response C) generator governor response and load dampening D) generator governor response and generator AVR response C) generator governor response and load dampening 86. Transmission Operators are implementing their system restoration plan after a major system disturbance. They are ready to energize a blacked-out area, what C) Adjust area generation levels 94. NERC and the DOE requires a report to be submitted following the shedding of at least how much firm load? A) 50 MW B) 100 MW C) 200 MW D) 300 MW B) 100 MW 95. A portion of a Reliability Coordinator Area is experiencing low voltage and there are no generation redispatch options available. What action should the Reliability Coordinator take first? A) Lower transfers across area to unload transmission lines B) Lower loads in the area C) Increase transfers across area D) Increase loads in the area A) Lower transfers across area to unload transmission lines 96. Field personnel may notice which of the following during a GMD event? A) Decreased reactive power demand B) Generators to operate in the lead C) Reduce transformer cooling D) Unusual noise in the Transformer D) Unusual noise in the Transformer 100. Which action would you take to close an open-ended line when the voltage at the open-end of the line is too high to close? A) Energize capacitor bank at closed end bus B) Energize capacitor bank at open end bus C) Insert series capacitors on transmission line D) Remove series reactor from transmission line B) Energize capacitor bank at open end bus 1. A BA has an average ACE of -75MW during one clock ten-minute period. There L10 is 50MW. Which NERC Control Performance Standard has been violated? a. CPS1 b. CPS2 c. DCS d. SOL b. CPS2 2. The ACE equation must include metered data: dynamic schedules, pseudo ties, actual frequency, and all ___________. a. Generation b. Transformers c. Tie lines d. Communications c. Tie Lines 3. A BA has a sudden change in demand-supply balance due to a sudden loss of load or generation in their area. The sudden change will be seen instantaneously in which calculated value? a. Frequency b. system lambda c. operating reserves d. ACE d. ACE 4. An external generator tripped that was large enough to reduce the frequency from 60.00 Hz to 59.94 Hz. Your BA's Frequency Bias is 200 MW/0.1 Hz. How many MW would your system initially contribute to frequency support? a. 80 MW b. 100 MW c. 200 MW d. 120 MW d. 120 MW 5. BA-A is currently reading a system freq of 59.95 Hz. Its Net Actual Interchange is +100 MW and its Net Scheduled Interchange is +120 MW. If BA-A's freq bias setting is -100 Mw, BA-A's AGC is pulsing its generators to _____________. a. Remain at current MW output level b. Increase MW output c. Decrease MW output d. Increase excitation on the field windings b. Increase MW output 6. Which control system on the generators would respond to a drop in system freq resulting from the loss of generation? a. Generator governor control system b. Differential relay systems c. Special protection systems d. Automatic Voltage Regulators a. Generator governor control system 7. Load increases or decreases in relation to the increase or decrease in frequency. It has been determined that for every 1% change in freq, load will change approx ______% iin the same direction in an Interconnected system. a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 3 b. 2 (3 if it is pure motor load) 8. A BA has several units on governor control. The units have different capacities that range from 200 MW to 1000 MW and droop settings from 2% to 5%. The biggest adjustments in MW output in response to a freq disturbance will be provided by units that have __________. a. large capacity; large droop setting b. large capacity; small droop setting c. small capacity; large droop setting d. small capacity; small droop setting b. large capacity; small droop setting 9. A BA that is operating asynchronously (separated from the interconnection) should switch its AGC to which mode? 16. if the freq bias setting is a lower value than the freq response of a BA and a freq decline is caused by a sudden loss of gen in an external BA, what will be the result? a. The ACE will be zero and will take no AGC action b. The ACE will be a negative value and AGC will increase gen c. The ACE will be a positive value and AGC will lower gen d. This will not affect the ACE. c. The ACE will be a positive value and AGC will lower genFeedback: BAL-003, Each Balancing Authority shall achieve an annual Frequency Response Measure (FRM) that is equal to or more negative than its Frequency Response Obligation (FRO) to ensure that sufficient Frequency Response is provided by each BA or Frequency Response Sharing Group (FRSG). For Example: If a Balancing Authority's Frequency Bias (which is always a negative number and is measured in MW/0.1Hz) is -100 MW/0.1 Hz then for an actual Frequency of 60.02 the Frequency Component of ACE -[10*B*(Fa - Fs)] would calculate to 20 MW to help arrest the high frequency generators will back off. However, if Frequency bias was set to -50 MW/0.1 Hz) then the frequency component would be - (10 * -50 MW/0.1 Hz) * (60.02 Hz - 60.00 Hz) = 10 MW. The actual frequency response (using -100 MW/0.1 Hz frequency bias) is generator reduction of 20 MW, therefore, ACE would be -20-0-10(-50) (0.02) = -10. 17. Interconnection freq is 59.80 Hz. Your ACE is a large negative value and your AGC is pulsing your units down. What should you do? a. Place AGC in constant freq control b. Place AGC in flat tie line control c. Suspend AGC and investigate d. Leave AGC in operation as your unit respond c. Suspend AGC and investigate 18. Which of the following is the best potential source of Contingency Reserve? a. Offline generation requiring 30 minutes to start b. Quick start generation c. Controllable load resources d. Coordinated increases to interchange schedules b. Quick start generation 19. At the end of the business day, two adjacent BA must agree with which of the below actual operating values with regard to inadvertent interchange? 1. The hourly integrated values of Net Interchange Schedule 2. The hourly values of each interchange transaction 3. The hourly integrated MW values of individual interconnecting tie lines 4. The hourly integrated values of NIa a. 1 and 4 b. 2 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 a. 1 and 4 20. Which of the following combinations would represent the best generation control performance (in terms of helping the Interconnections's freq) by a BA? a. ACE is positive while freq error is positive. b. ACE is negative while freq error is negative. c. ACE is positive while freq error is zero. d. ACE is positive while freq error is negative. d. ACE is positive while freq error is negative. 21. Governor droop is used to ____________. a. Arrest Frequency Variations b. Restore Frequency to normal c. Represent energy lost in generation d. Maintain voltage a. Arrest Frequency Variations 22. If the frequency bias setting is equal to the frequency response of a BA and a freq decline is caused by a sudden loss of gen in an external BA, what will be the result? a. None of these answers are correct b. The ACE will be negative and AGC will increase gen c. The ACE will be positive and AGC will lower gen d. ACE will not change due to the disturbance d. ACE will not change due to the disturbance 23. When a system is on the verge of a voltage collapse and all reactive resources are at maximum output, what else should a system operator consider to alleviate the problem? a. Lower voltage to reduce local loads b. Request the RC to shed load in their area c. Reduce load in the area with the low voltage d. Make sure all shunt reactors are in service c. Reduce load in the area with the low voltage 24. If a BA is unable to purchase capacity or energy to meet its demand and reserve requirements on a day-ahead or hour-by-hour basis, which entity (ies) must be notified? a. RC only b. All RCs and BAs c. RC and all other potentially affected BAs and TOPs d. All RCs and all BAs and TOPs c. RC and all other potentially affected BAs and TOPs 25. The Control Performance Standard (CPS2) specifies that the ACE must average a specified value each ___________. a. five min b. rolling ten min c. clock ten min d. clock twelve min c. clock ten min 26. It is the responsibility of which entity to have an emergency load reduction plan in place for all identified IROLs? a. RC b. BA 35. A RC receives indications that a tie line will become overloaded if a parallel 345 kV line trips, causing an SOL and possible IROL violation. If implementing procedures take longer than 30 minutes to resolve this potential emergency, what would you do to relieve this violation? a. Notify all other RCs b. Implement procedures to relieve the violation. c. Notify generator operators d. Monitor and wait to see what happens b. Implement procedures to relieve the violation. 36. If a TOP or BA is unable to restore real and reactive power balance, and corrective action or emergency assistance is not adequate, they shall ______. a. Implement manual load shedding b. direct the RC to provide assistance c. Reduce voltage on the transmission system. d. Reduce voltage on the distribution system. a. Implement manual load shedding 37. voltage reduction for load relief should be made on the: a. distribution system b. transmission system c. tie lines with other BA Areas d. entire interconnection simultaneously a. distribution system 38. Under Freq Load Shedding (UFLS) is to stabilize the imbalance between generation and load that has been created by a system disturbance. This is accomplished by: a. generation tripping first b. shedding load prior to generation tripping c. shedding all load to arrest frequency d. system stabilizing voltage b. shedding load prior to generation tripping 39. If freq, voltage, and/or phase angle differences are too large to permit breaker closing, a System operator should first consider: a. increasing or decreasing interchange schedules b. cancelling maintenance outages c. shedding load d. re-dispatching or system config changes d. re-dispatching or system config changes 40. The RC shall monitor ______________ to identify the sources that contribute to Frequency Error, Time Error, or Inadvertent Interchange and shall discuss corrective actions with the appropriate BA. a. BA Errors b. Wheeling Errors c. Regional Errors d. Area Control Errors d. Area Control Errors 41) A Transmission Operator is implementing their system restoration plan after a major system disturbance. They are ready to energize a Blacked out area. The system operator must: a. ilsolate the load B) Increase blackstart generator to maximum output C) Turn all voltage regulators to the manual position. D. Close any capacitor banks which are open. a. isolate the load 42) A Balancing Authority with several units offline anticipates a capacity shortage during the afternoon peak due to unseasonal temperature forecast. What should The BA consider first? A) Drop load B) Postpone or cancel unit maintenance C) Implement voltage reduction procedures D) Curtail uninterruptible customers B) Postpone or cancel unit maintenance 43) A radial transmission line feeding a load is overloaded. The transmission operator must do which of the following to unload the line? A) Raise interchange schedule. B) Shed load at the end of the line. C) Lower interchange schedule. D) Notify BA to adjust AGC. B) Shed load at the end of the line. 44) a system operator notices that frequency has dropped to 59.95 Hz but his Balancing Areas ACE is zero. The Balancing Authority has plenty of generation and helps the Interconnection by request his generators to increase additional MW. Which statement best describes his action? A) He has not impacted the system. B) He helped the system. C) He followed NERC guidelines. D) He violated NERC standards. D) He violated NERC standards. 45) The primary cause of low Voltage is: A) VAR Losses associated with heavy power transfers. B) Insufficient generation. C) Insufficient transmission capacity. D) Insufficient shunt reactors in service. A) VAR Losses associated with heavy power transfers. 46) Which of the following Transmission lines would be the best choice to energize a generating facility during system restoration? A) 10 mile, overhead TX line. B) 10 mile, underground TX line. C) 25 mile, over head TX line. D) 25 mile, underground TX line. A) 10 mile, overhead TX line. 47) What does governor droop accomplish? A) A decrease in generator shaft speed and an increase in generator's MW output. of a Reserve Sharing Group. What action must this BA take? A) Notify the RC that this BA is in an EEA Level2; start all available generation; schedule interchange purchases; prepare to reduce firm load B) Notify the RC that this BA is in EEA Level l; notify all power plants to be on alert; purchase emergency power. C) Notify the RC that this BA is in EEA Level 3; Notify Transmission Operator and all Load Serving Entities that Load Shed is eminent. D) Notify the RC that this BA is contacting TOPs and LSE's to shed 200 MW offload. A) Notify the RC that this BA is in an EEA Level2; start all available generation; schedule interchange purchases; prepare to reduce firm load 54) I major transmission system disturbance results in a large Ioss of load, which most likely results in: A) Inertia of the generation connected to the system will increase the speed of the rotation of the units with results in an increase in system frequency. B) Inertia of the generation connected to the system will decrease the speed of the rotation of the units with results in an increase in system voltage. C) Inertia of the generation connected to the system will decrease the speed of the rotation of the units with results in an decrease in system voltage. D) Inertia of the generation connected to the system will decrease the speed of the rotation of the units with results in an decrease in system frequency. A) Inertia of the generation connected to the system will increase the speed of the rotation of the units with results in an increase in system frequency. 55) You experience a full system shutdown and are in the process of restoring load and you are concerned about re-collapsing the system. Which is the best approach in the restoration process that will help ensure your system will be restored successfully? A) Avoid energizing loads in excess of 5% of the generation already connected to the system. B) Maintain frequency between 59.50 Hz and 60.51 Hz. C) If the system has stabilized at below 60 Hz, shed 15% - 20% of the load to raise the frequency to 61 Hz. D) Operating reserves should be maintained to cover the largest generator currently in service. A) Avoid energizing loads in excess of 5% of the generation already connected to the system. 56) A Transmission line is overloaded by 25% above it's System Operating Limit. A parallel line is out for routine maintenance and can be placed in service within 10 minutes. What is the first step the Operator should take to reduce the line loading? A) Initiate the restoration of the parallel line. B) Open the overloaded line. C) Re-Dispatch Generation. D) Shed load at the downstream bus. A) Initiate the restoration of the parallel line. 57) Which of the following are dynamic reactive resources? 1. Synchronous Condenser 2. Capacitor Bank 3. Reactor Bank 4. Generator A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 and 4 D) 1 and 4 D) 1 and 4 58) Each Reliability Coordinator Operator and Balancing Authority shall provide each of its System Operators with at least 32 hours per year of training that includes system restoration drills and _____________ exercises to maintain qualified personnel. A) CEH B) Emergency operations C) Simulation D) Relief B) Emergency operations 59) Cold load can best be described as A) Load at an ice plant B) Load that has been de-energized for an extended period C) Load that has been shed in the winter D) Load that is served by an independent power producer B) Load that has been de-energized for an extended period 60) During a lightning storm, a fault on a transmission line results in the transmission relay operating and locking-out. The transmission line cannot be returned to service. After running a contingency; analysis, the Transmission Operator realizes that if another transmission line relays, there could be cascading outages into a neighboring system. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the Transmission Operator? A) Notify others in the Interconnection of the situation via an Interconnection- wide telecommunications system. B) Prepare a disturbance report and forward it to the Reliability Coordinator. C) Continue operations without notifying anyone, but try to reduce system loading. D) Reduce transmission voltages by 5% to reduce customer demand. A) Notify others in the Interconnection of the situation via an Interconnection-wide telecommunications system. 61) A Generator Operator has some vibration problems with a 500 MW coal fired steam generator. As the result of the vibration problems the Generator Operator has to set the maximum reactive power production for that unit at 25 MVAR instead of the normal 200 MVAR. Who should the generator operator notify as the result of this problem? A) Transmission Operator B) Regional Reliability Organization A) Only Transmission Operators or Balancing Authorities that participate in the outage. B) Only Transmission Operators or Balancing Authorities that are adjacent to your system. C) Your Reliability Coordinator and any Transmission Operator or Balancing Authority that may be impacted by the outage. D) Only Reliability Coordinators, Transmission Operators, that request information about the outage. C) Your Reliability Coordinator and any Transmission Operator or Balancing Authority that may be impacted by the outage. 70) When a 200 mile long transmission line is open-ended (with no reactors at the open-end), the highest voltage will occur where? A) At the closed-end of the line. B) At the open-end of the line. C) At or about the middle of the line. D) At a point 2/3 of the distance from the closed end of the line. B) At the open-end of the line. 71) A 100 mile transmission line from Substation A to Substation B trips. The field crew reports a Zone 1 target at Substation A and a Zone 2 target at Substation B. The fault is anticipated to be where? A) within 10 miles of A B) within 10 miles of B C) midway between A and B D) outside of the line segment A) within 10 miles of A 72) A 50 MVA transformer has 30 MW of load. How many MVARs can flow through the transformer? A) 50 MVAR B) 40 MVAR C) 30 MVAR D) 0 MVAR B) 40 MVAR 73) The system operator notices that a transmission line has a net VAR flow of 25 MVAR into the line. Which of the statements is true under this condition? A) The line is equivalent to an inductor. B) The line is transferring the optimum load. C) The line is nearing voltage collapse. D) The line is equivalent to a capacitor. A) The line is equivalent to an inductor. 74) What type of relay uses a combination of current transformer (CT) measurements and potential transformer (PT) measurements and operates when the ratio of the PT measurements to CT measurements is below a certain limit for a given period of time? A) Differential relay (Device 87) B) Distance relay (Device 21) C) Time overcurrent relay (Device 51) D) Lockout relay (Device 86) B) Distance relay (Device 21) 75) Protective relays such as Transmission Line relays and Transformer Differential relays have current flowing to them that is proportional to the current that is in the primary circuit. In most cases, what is used to transform the current from 1ine primary circuit to a smaller proportional amount that flows to the protective relay? A) Current transformers. B) Series Capacitors. C) Vacuum Interrupters. D) Positive Sequence Instruments. A) Current transformers. 76) A storm blows A phase and B phase conductors of a 138 kV transmission line together, creating a phase to phase fault. The magnitude of the current and voltage changed instantly causing the line distance relays at each end of the line to operate. How did the current and voltage on that line change providing the input for the relay to indicate a fault on the line? A) Voltage decreased and the current decreased. B) Voltage increased and the current decreased. C) Voltage increased and the current increased. D) Voltage decreased and the current increased. D) Voltage decreased and the current increased. 77) A 230 kV transmission line makes contact with a tree as a result of heavy transfers and flashes over to the tree causing the transmission line to relay out. What type of fault is this classified as? A) Differential Fault B) Overvoltage Fault C) Positive Sequence Fault D) Ground Fault D) Ground Fault 78) The voltage on the power system is starting to drop due to load pick up during the morning hours. Where should the system operator increase the reactive power on the transmission and distribution system? A) As far away from the heaviest inductive load areas as possible. B) As close to the heaviest inductive load areas as possible. C) The location of the reactive power has no effect on the voltage levels when inductive loads are causing the declining voltage. D) Shunt capacitor placed in service at the distribution system and shunt reactor placed in service at the transmission system. B) As close to the heaviest inductive load areas as possible. 79) A car on a city street hit a 13 kV power pole causing A and B phases to wrap around each other. The line relays at the substation fail to trip the 13 kV circuit breaker feeding the troubled line. Which relay will pick up and trip the 138/13 kV transformer feeding the 13 kV system off line to protect it from damage? A) Differential B) Ground 88) When referring to transmission lines of an interconnected network, neighboring system should use: A) NERC line identifies and rating B) Regional agreement on line data. C) Uniform line identifiers and ratings. D) Company specific line names and seasonal ratings. C) Uniform line identifiers and ratings. 89) Which of the following would you expect to experience during a Geo-Magnetic disturbance? A) Significantly low frequency induced currents enter the system through the grounded transformer neutrals, causing system overloads and harmful system wide harmonics. B) System frequency declines below an acceptable operating level, and generator governors are required to take action to arrest the frequency decline. C) System voltages increase beyond safe operating levels, requiring the operator to take action to absorb VARs from the system or decrease voltage schedules. D) Significantly high frequency induced currents enter the system through the grounded transformer neutrals, causing system overloads and harmful system wide harmonics. A) Significantly low frequency induced currents enter the system through the grounded transformer neutrals, causing system overloads and harmful system wide harmonics. 90) During system restoration, what is the system operators priority? A) Restoration of interchange B) Restoration of Customer Load C) Restoration of off-site startup power to critical facilities D) Interconnection Frequency C) Restoration of off-site startup power to critical facilities 91) Which equipment is used first for maintaining or increasing system voltages? A) Generator Reactive maximum output B) Shedding unnecessary load C) shunt Capacitor Banks D) Transmission Breakers C) shunt Capacitor Banks 92) Who shall coordinate its current-day and next-day planning with neighboring Balancing Authorities and Transmission Operators and Reliability Coordinators? 1. Reliability Coordinators 2. Transmission Operators 3. Balancing Authorifies 4. Transmission Planners A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 and 4 D) 3 and 4 B) 2 and 3 93) A System Operator must operate the transmission system so that instability, uncontrolled separation, or cascading outages will not occur as a result of: A) External disturbances B) Normal operations C) The most severe contingency D) Any unplanned outage C) The most severe contingency 94) System Operator communications must be: A) Available for addressing real-time emergencies B) On predetermined communication paths C) Clear, concise and definitive D) All of the above D) All of the above 95) What is a Power Transfer Distribution Factor (PTDF)? A) Post contingency results and configuration of a system under study B) A measure of the responsiveness or change in electrical loading used for pre- contingency analysis C) Congestion management solutions to the most severe single contingency D) Outage results that measures the electrical loading of transmission area based on system loading and generation B) A measure of the responsiveness or change in electrical loading used for pre- contingency analysis 96) What is a Generator Shift Factor (GSF)? A) Used to determine the amount of flow contribution a change in generation output will impose on a transmission facility B) Applied to external balancing authorities to know how much of their generation is flowing into your system C) Use to determine unit commitment and dispatch D) Generation that automatically shifts based on Load factors A) Used to determine the amount of flow contribution a change in generation output will impose on a transmission facility 97) The maximum and minimum voltage, current, frequency, real and reactive power flows on individual equipment under steady state, short-circuit and transient conditions, as permitted by the equipment owner is: A) Equipment rating B) The point of collapse C) Always constant D) A fault A) Equipment rating 98) Which value is a Balancing Authorities approximate response to Interconnection frequency errors and has unit of MW/0.1 Hz? A) ACE B) AGC C) Net Interchange Actual D) Frequency bias D) Frequency bias 99) In a power system, which type of power is an indication of voltage problems and is especially critical to support heavily loaded transmission lines and to have load. What should the RC do first? A) Initiate the EEA process B) schedule emergency interchange C) issue operating instructions to shed load D) request a TLR A) initiate the EEA process 108) A contingency occurs which results in the exceeding of an IROL. What is the risk to the BES if the IROL is exceeded longer that the IROL Tv. A) Loss of power to a local area B) All transmission lines over 100 kV will trip C) Protective relays will operate unnecessarily D. Uncontrolled and cascading outages to the large area D) Uncontrolled and cascading outages to a large area 109) You are the Source BA for an Arranged Interchange Transaction request. Teh request has a non-standard ramp rate specified. What action should you take? A) Deny the request B) Approve the request if able to accommodate C) Ignore the request D) call the RC for guidance B) Approve the request if able to accommodate 110) An islanded power system has restored 1200 MW of load and has a frequency of 59.50 Hz. How much load needs to be shed to return the island to 60.1 Hz? A) 20 MW B) 30 MW C) 50 MW D) 120 MW C) 50 MW 111) The load on a power transformer is 40 MW and 30 MVAR. What is the transformer's Power Factor? A) .80 PF B) .70 PF C) .60 PF D) .50 PF A) .80 PF 112) If the Frequency Bias Setting is more negative than the frequency response of the BA and a frequency increase is caused by a sudden loss of load in an external BA area, what will be the result? A) The ACE will be zero and will take no AGC action. B) The ACE will be a negative value and AGC will increase generation. C) The ACE will be a positive value and AGC will lower generation. D) This will not affect ACE B) The ACE will be a negative value and AGC will increase generation. Feedback: BAL-003, Each Balancing Authority shall achieve an annual Frequency Response Measure (FRM) that is equal to or more negative than its Frequency Response Obligation (FRO) to ensure that sufficient Frequency Response is provided by each BA or Frequency Response Sharing Group (FRSG). For Example: If a Balancing Authority's Frequency Bias (which is always a negative number and is measured in MW/0.1Hz) is -100 MW/0.1 Hz then for an actual Frequency of 60.02 the Frequency Component of ACE -[10*B*(Fa - Fs)] would calculate to 20 MW to help arrest the high frequency generators will back off. However, if Frequency bias was set to -50 MW/0.1 Hz) then the frequency component would be -(10 * -50 MW/0.1 Hz) * (60.02 Hz - 60.00 Hz) = 10 MW. The actual frequency response (using -100 MW/0.1 Hz frequency bias) is generator reduction of 20 MW, therefore, ACE would be -20-0-10(-50) (0.02) = - 10. 113) After a disturbance on the system, a BA re-dispatches generation in an attempts to reduce loading on a transmission line. The re-dispatch has no effect on the line. What action should the system operator take? A) shed load in the low voltage area B) isolate the line C) Re-assess the electrical boundaries D) Assume the line flow meter has failed C) Re-assess the electrical boundaries 114) Which of the following would be a concern for RC during peak periods? A) Vegetation management B) Cooling water for nuclear units C) Available generation reserves D) Fahrenheit rise C) Available generation reserves Q1: For the annual test of an entity's back-up functionality Operating Plan to be valid, it must demonstrate which of the following? A) Back-up functionality is maintained for at least 2 continuous hours B) All shift personnel are comfortable at the backup site C) Transition time is one hour or less D) The backup site is secure A) Back-up functionality is maintained for at least 2 continuous hours Q2: A BA is experiencing low voltage in the northeast region. A 50 MVA generator in that area is loaded at 50 MWs. What action could a System Operator take to increase the voltage in that area? A) Increase generation to overload capacity B) Decrease reactive power until voltage increases C) Do nothing; the AVR will take care of it D) Decrease real power and increase reactive power D) Decrease real power and increase reactive power Q3: Maintenance in the area has resulted in the ICCP communication line being cut to the control room. Which of the following actions is most appropriate? A) Implement the plan for Loss of Control Center Functionality B) Manually update State Estimator with the most current information C) Report the loss of ICCP to NERC D) Switch AGC to Flat Frequency Control C) Report the loss of ICCP to NERC command is an option on your EMS system. What would be the consequences of using this command? A) Restoration would take longer B) Critical substation battery would be depleted C) Visual inspect ion is needed prior to breaker operation D) Control of breaker operations would be lost B) Critical substation battery would be depleted Q13: In the early stages of a power system restoration, 500 MWs of generation is synchronized with 300 MWs of available spinning reserve. What is the largest load block that can be restored while still maintaining acceptable frequency control? A) 15 MWs B) 10 MWs C) 25 MWs D) 50 MWs C) 25 MWs Q14: You receive an alarm that indicates low oil pressure on an underground transmission cable. SCADA shows the pressure is continuing to drop. What is the first step you would take to protect the line? A) Isolate the line B) Dispatch maintenance personnel to identify the problem C) Schedule maintenance for the next day D) Lower the line loading A) Isolate the line Q15: Balancing Authority A has implemented rotating blackouts of their native load customers due to a generation deficiency. What level Energy Emergency Alert would the RC declare for this Balancing Authority? A) EEA Level 0 B) EEA Level 1 - call on all available power generation C) EEA Level 2 - Interrupt large inductive customers D) EEA Level 3 - Rotating outages D) EEA Level 3 - Rotating outages Q16: A Balancing Authority has experienced a large system disturbance. Frequency meters from multiple locations within the Balancing Authority show consistently different values. A reasonable conclusion is: A) A ripple effect in the power system that will pass B) There is a problem with the indicating meters C) The Balancing Authority has broken into islands D) The system's governors are responding improperly C) The Balancing Authority has broken into islands Q17: During the initial stages of the system restoration process, load pick-ups should be limited to what percentage of the total synchronized generation? A) 2% B) 5% C) 10% D) 25% B) 5% Q18: In the early stages of system restoration, the frequency is 59.0 Hz. How much load should the system operator shed to restore frequency to 60 Hz. A) 1 to 3% of the connected load B) 3 to 5% of the connected load C) 6 to 10% of the connected load D) 10 to 15% of the connected load C) 6 to 10% of the connected load Q19: During system restoration which of the following Transmission lines would be the best choice to energize the facility? A) 10-mile, overhead transmission line B) 10-mile, underground transmission line C) 25-mile, overhead transmission line D) 25-mile, underground transmission line A) 10-mile, overhead transmission line Q20: A BA that is experiencing an operating capacity or energy emergency shall communicate its current and future system conditions to: A) Only neighboring Balancing Authorities B) Its RC and all BAs in the Interconnection C) All neighboring Transmission Operators D) Its Reliability Coordinator D) Its Reliability Coordinator Q21: To be effective during a blackout condition, RTUs should not be powered from: A) A battery bank B) An AC power source C) A DC power source D) An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) B) An AC power source Q22: A transmission line in your area is overloaded by 35 MWs. An area generator has a .35 shift factor on the line. How much generation change is required to return the line to its limit? A) 50MWs B) 100 MWs C) 200 MWs D) 250 MWs B) 100 MWs Q23: A study shows that a single contingency would result in an IRO isolation and the corrective action would require opening a breaker with no SCADA control due to a RTU. What should the system operator do first? A) Dispatch field personnel to the breaker's substation B) Shed load near the IROL location C) Re-dispatch generation to reduce line loading D) Develop a new response plan for the contingency A) Dispatch field personnel to the breaker's substation C) Natural Gas D) Nuclear Plant C) Natural Gas Q34: Which action would not help if a Voltage collapse were imminent? A) Disable AGC B) increase generator VARS C) Reduce Distribution voltage D) Shedding Load A) Disable AGC Q35: What must be considered in a capacity emergency operator plan? A) Energy cost B) Fuel supply C) Rate of frequency decay D) Rate of voltage decay B) Fuel supply Q36: Minimum time a BCC must be activated to count as a valid test? A) 30 mins B) 60 mins C) 120 mins D) 240 mins C) 120 mins Q37: Loads that normally cycle can result in what during restoration? A) Loss of load diversity B) Loss of load management C) Cold load pick-up D) Surge Impedance loading A) Loss of load diversity Q38: Geomagnetically Induced Current is most likely to travel in a power system which has: A) 0% series compensation over igneous rock B) 50% series compensation over farmland C) 100 % series compensation over igneous rock D) 100% series compensation over farmland A) 0% series compensation over igneous rock (no capacitance) Q39: After a forced outage, a contingency analysis study shows that one more outage will cause a severe violation. There is a parallel line out for maintenance with an emergency return of 4 hours after requested. What must be done first to mitigate this condition? A) Put the parallel line in service with protection B) Put the parallel line in service without protection C) Take the protective tripping off the line D) Call the RC and formulate an Operating Plan D) Call the RC and formulate an Operating Plan Q40: A transformer is loaded to 150% of its capacity, and the only other transformer capable of relieving the loading is at 90%. How should the overload be alleviated? A) Adjust the tap changer on the 90% transformer B) Raise Transmission voltage C) Shed load D) Remove 150% transformer from service C) Shed load Q1: A Balancing Authority with an annual expected peak of 8,000 MWs is approaching a summer peak when a major thunderstorm rolls through the area. The storm causes 312 MWs of firm system demand to be disconnected over a period of several hours. Which action should the BA take? A) Send crews out immediately to restore B) Over generate just in case the load comes back C) Report the incident to the DOE and NERC D) Sell the excess to avoid backing off generation C) Report the incident to the DOE and NERC Q2: Which of the following would require the use of three-part communication when issuing and receiving Operating Instructions? A) A discussion with the RC about a possible contingency B) Switching instructions to a field operator C) Two Transmission Operators discussing a discrepancy in a System Operating Limit D) A System Operator reporting system conditions to his supervisor B) Switching instructions to a field operator Q3: Transmission Line C trips while carrying 800 MWs. Lines A has 275 MW power flow and Line B has a flow of 400 MWs at the time of the outage. Line C has LODF of 0.25 and 0.1 related to lines A and B respectively. What will be the impact on lines A and B due to the outage? A) +475 MWs on A, +480 MWs on B B) +200 MWs on A, +80 MWs on B C) -200 MWs on A, -80 MWs on B D) +480 MWs on A, -475 MWs on B B) +200 MWs on A, +80 MWs on B Q4: A power flow study indicates that a transmission line will reach its emergency overload rating within the hour. A parallel line is out for routine maintenance and can be placed in service in 10 minutes. What is the first thing the operator should do? A) Shed load at the downstream bus B) Re-dispatch Generation to reduce the overload C) Open the line D) Initiate the restoration of the parallel line D) Initiate the restoration of the parallel line Q5: Scheduled outages of tie-line telemetry and supervisory control for the tie- line substation breaker shall be coordinated between whom? A) The two Balancing Authorities that the tie-line connects B) The impacted Balancing Authorities and Transmission Operators C) The Interchange Authority with schedules flowing across this tie-line path D) NERC and the Balancing Authority for which the tie-line substation is within its boundaries but no longer than which time limit? A) 60 minutes B) 45 minutes C) 15 minutes D) 30 minutes D) 30 minutes Q15: What does Real-time contingency analysis identify, and how often does it have to indicate a solved assessment? A) Potential SOL violations, at least once every 30 minutes B) Forced outages, at least every 15minutes C) Mitigation options, each hour D) Real-time data problems, end of the hour A) Potential SOL violations, at least once every 30 minutes Q16: Station A bus is connected to Station B bus by a 230 kV transmission line. Both stations have a 100 MVAR shunt capacitor bank currently offline. The System Operator is made aware that the line flows are approaching 100%. 100 MVAR of reactive power is flowing to Station A load. What is an acceptable action to return the transmission line to within operating limit? A) Placing the capacitor bank on-line at Station B B) Removing the transmission line from service C) Placing the capacitor bank on-line at Station A D) No action needed C) Placing the capacitor bank on-line at Station A Q18: Several SCADA alarms indicate a disturbance in area B. There are four transmission lines connecting area A to area B that have become heavily loaded due to the disturbance. One of the lines is above its SOL. Re-dispatching of generation has no effect on the line flows. Which answer best applies to this situation? A) The overloaded line should be opened immediately B) A telemetering failure is giving false indications C) Shed load in area A D) There is a possible separation or islanding in area B D) There is a possible separation or islanding in area B Q19: A simple power system is composed of three transmission lines that connect the generation area to the load area. The transmission lines are the same length, but each line has a different impedance. Line #1 is 30 ohms, line #2 is 40 ohms, and line #3 is 60 ohms. The SOL of each line is 500 MWs. If 1000 MWs is flowing from generation to load, what will the flow be on line 2 if line 1 trips? A) 400 MW B) 500 MW C) 600 MW D) 800 MW C) 600 MW Q20: The total capacity of transmission path AB is 1800 MWs. Studies show the Available Transfer Capability of path AB is 1200 MWs. An unscheduled (parallel) flow of 500 MWs is also present on line AB. Under these conditions what is the current Available Transfer Capability on path AB? A) 700 MWs B) 1200 MWs C) 1300 MWs D) 1800 MWs B) 1200 MWs Q21: A firm transaction is set to start at the top of the hour that will overload Line Z by 10 MWs above its identified SOL. Non-firm transactions are running that have PTDFs of 0.2 on Line Z. How much non-firm will have to be cut in order to stay within the SOL? A) 10 B) 20 C) 50 D) 100 C) 50 Q22: The Reliability Coordinator has the authority and obligation to direct all reliability entities within its area to take appropriate action to return the system to a reliable state including: A) Shedding of firm load B) Cancelling outages C) Curtailing Interchange D) All of the Above D) All of the Above Q23: Your SCADA alarms show the power flow for a given transmission tie-line is slowly approaching its thermal limit and the line can't handle the next contingency. Which of the following actions are appropriate given this condition? A) Request transmission line loading relief from the RC B) Immediately remove this transmission line from service C) Request Energy Emergency Alert D) Wait for direction from the RC A) Request transmission line loading relief from the RC Q24: In performing its reliability analysis, an RC identifies a potential reliability problem. What action should the RC take first? A) Decrease load using interruptible load plans B) Direct transmission reconfiguration C) Initiate a conference call with impacted entities D) Monitor and wait until it becomes a real problem C) Initiate a conference call with impacted entities Q25: A contingency results in the exceedance of an IROL. What could be the result if the IROL is allowed to be exceeded longer than its IROL Tv? A) Loss of power to a local area B) The transmission line could fail C) Protective relays could fail D) Interruption of power to a large part of the BES D) Interruption of power to a large part of the BES Q1: When current flow increases in the power system, losses in the system will increase based on which of the following relationships? A) Current times resistance squared B) Current times impedance C) Current squared times resistance D) Current squared times impedance C) Current squared times resistance Q2: How do you increase the MVAR output of a generator? A) Increase the DC current to the field windings B) Decrease the DC current to the field windings C) Increase the input to the prime mover D) Decrease the input to the prime mover A) Increase the DC current to the field windings Q3: A capacitor bank needs to be outaged for maintenance. When would be the most beneficial time to schedule a capacitor bank outage? A) During outage of other reactive sources in the area B) During summer time C) During projected peak loading D) During projected light loading D) During projected light loading Q4: Which MVAR resource device would you normally use first? A) Inductive cancelations B) Shunt reactors C) Shunt capacitors D) Generator MVAR reserves C) Shunt capacitors Q5: Why would a Voltage reduction be implemented? A) Reducing load on the transmission system B) Increasing current on the transmission system C) Increasing load on the distribution system D) Reducing load/demand on the distribution system D) Reducing load/demand on the distribution system Q6: A heavily loaded transmission line will exhibit which characteristic? A) Surge Impedance Loading and will be VAR neutral B) Capacitive properties and produce VAR C) Inductive properties and absorb VAR D) Increase impedance will keep the line neutral C) Inductive properties and absorb VAR Q7: Which corrective action should a Transmission Operator take to prevent voltage collapse when reactive resources are insufficient? A) Closing in reactors B) Switching out transmission C) Shedding load D) Exceeding established limits C) Shedding load Q8: Reactive reserve response during a disturbance is best obtained from which device? A) Synchronous condensers B) Shunt Capacitors C) Generators with the AVR on manual D) Series Capacitors A) Synchronous condensers Q9: How many MVARs does a 230 kV, 50 MVAR capacitor bank provide when the voltage is 207 kV? A) 50 MVARs B) 45 MVARs C) 40 MVARs D) 35 MVARs C) 40 MVARs Ql0: Voltage response to power flow is a study that is represented by which of the following? A) D Curve B) P-V Curve C) Ferranti Curve D) VRS Curve B) P-V Curve Q11: Two adjacent lines exist in a Balancing Area that are the same length and have the same ratings. One line is overhead and the other is underground. How do these two lines respond as load picks up through the day? A) The overhead line will carry more of the load increase B) The underground line will carry more of the load increase C) The load increase will be distributed evenly over the two lines D) The line with the higher impedance will carry more of the load B) The underground line will carry more of the load increase Feedback: EPRI Tutorial: Due to its higher capacitive property, the underground cable will have lower impedance and therefore carry more of the increase. Q12: To be effective, reactive resources should be: A) Centrally located in the system B) Located close to generation C) Located in the same station as other reactive resources D) Located close to load areas D) Located close to load areas Q13: Line A and Line B are two identically constructed parallel transmission lines where Line A is 150 miles long and Line B is 15 miles long. Which statement is true if both lines are lightly loaded? A) A produces the same reactive power as B B) B produces more reactive power than A C) A produces more reactive power than B D) Neither line produces any reactive power C) A produces more reactive power than B Q14: Which of the following conditions is an acceptable mitigating action for which the Transmission Operator should open a transmission line? A) Low voltage under heavy loads B) Monitor and be prepared to take action (I guess because it is not "over SOL") Q25: A 345 kV line has MW flow of 400 and a MVAR flow of 300. The thermal limit of the line is 600 MVA. Assuming the line voltage is 352kV, what is the MVA loading on the line? A) 500 MVA B) 600 MVA C) 700 MVA D) 800 MVA A) 500 MVA Q26: A system operator notices the following conditions on 2 busses connected by a single transmission line. Voltage at bus A is 230 kV, with a voltage angle of 10 degrees. Voltage on bus B is 228 kV, with the voltage angle -5 degrees. The power angle between bus A and B is 15 degrees. VARs will most likely flow: A) Into the heavily loaded line B) From Bus B to Bus A C) From Bus A to Bus B D) Toward the lowest angle C) From Bus A to Bus B (from higher V to lower V) Q27: A transformer rated at 520 MVA has 500 MW and 40 MVAR passing through it. Which of the following is true? A) No action is required because the transformer is within limits B) No action is required because the transformer is less than 10% above its limit C) The load on the transformer must be reduced because it is above its limit D) The load on the transformer cannot be determined without knowing the power factor A) No action is required because the transformer is within limits Q28: Station A is connected to Station B by a 230 kV transmission line. Both stations have a shunt capacitor bank currently offline with a capacity of 100 MVARs. The power flow on the lines are 345 MW from Station A to Station Band 100 MVAR from Station B to Station A. The SOL on this line is 350 MVA. What should the System Operator do to return the system to normal operations? A) Close in the Station B capacitor B) Close in the Station A capacitor C) Open the line D) Shed load at Station A B) Close in the Station A capacitor Q29: A System Operator is conducting switching operations. When he opens one end of a transmission line, there is an indication of load loss. What should the operator do? A) Continue with the switching operation and investigate when complete B) Suspend the switching operation and verify indications C) Immediately close the breaker back in D) File a report to NERC for loss of firm load B) Suspend the switching operation and verify indications Q30: You have just placed a line in service and the receiving bus end of the line shows zero voltage, but there is indication of current flow. What is your primary concern? A) The low voltage at the bus B) Loss of synchronizing capability C) Loss of primary protection D) A potential voltage collapse C) Loss of primary protection Q31: There is a Remedial Action Scheme out of service for maintenance in your Balancing Area. Which is the most appropriate action to take? A) Be prepared to take the action that the RAS would take should the triggering condition occur B) No action is necessary because an RAS is not a relay protection system C) Operate within the system limits that the RAS is designed to protect against D) Remove the line from service that includes the RAS C) Operate within the system limits that the RAS is designed to protect against Q32: What type of relay uses a combination of current transformer (CT) measurements and potential transformer measurements (PT) and operates when the ratio of the PT measurements to CT measurements is below a certain limit for a given period of time? A) Differential relay B) Distance relay C) Time overcurrent relay D) Lockout relay B) Distance relay (impedance) Q33: A heavily loaded line in your area trips on a Zone 3 distance relay. What is the most likely cause? A) A phase to ground fault on the line B) High current flow and low voltage C) The high impedance of the line D) A current imbalance between each end of the line B) High current flow and low voltage Q34: A 100-mile transmission line from Substation A to Substation B trips. The Field crew reports a zone 1 target at Substation A and a zone 2 target at Substation B. Where is the fault anticipated to be? A) within 10 miles of A B) within 10 miles of B C) Midway between A and B D) Outside of the line segment A) within 10 miles of A Q35: You discover that Bus A is de-energized. Each of the line breakers off of the bus are closed. However, the breakers at the other end of each line from the bus are open. What is the most likely cause for this arrangement? A) Failure of a Distance Relay B) Failure of a Bus Differential C) Relay Breaker failure D) Relay operation inadvertent operation B) Failure of a Bus Differential Q9: A Balancing Authority notices their Operating Reserve has steadily declined throughout the hour. What is the most likely cause? A) Loss of a large generator in the area B) An inaccurate load forecast C) Loss of a major transmission line D) Disable AGC B) An inaccurate load forecast Q10: The initial response to a frequency deviation is provided by which of the following? A) AGC and regulating reserves B) Interchange and Inertia C) Load response and governor action D) DCS and quick start generation C) Load response and governor action Q11: Balancing Authority A has 12 generators with a total capacity of 2400 MWs. Five generators have a capacity of 100 MWs each, four have a capacity of 250 MWs each, and three have a capacity of 300 MW each. One of the 250 MW generators trips off-line. How long does the BA have to return ACE within limits? A) 10 minutes B) 15 minutes C) 30 minutes D) It is not a DCS event B) 15 minutes Q12: If the Frequency Bias Setting (B) is a more negative value than the frequency response of a Balancing Authority and a frequency decline is caused by a sudden loss of generation in an external balancing area, what will be the result? A) This will not affect the ACE B) The ACE will be slightly negative and AGC will increase generation C) The ACE will be slight ly positive and AGC will decrease generation D) The ACE will be zero and the AGC will take no act ion B) The ACE will be slightly negative and AGC will increase generation Q13: BA B has scheduled interchange of 100 MWs from BA A and 50 MWs to BA C. Actual interchange is 115 MWs from BA A and 45 MWs to BA C. If these power flows continue for a full hour, what is the inadvertent Interchange for BA B for that hour? A) -20 MWh B) 20 MWh C) -40 MWh D) 40 MWh A) -20 MWh Q14: When two identical generating units are operated in parallel on governor control, and one has a 5% droop and the other has a 10% droop, the unit with the greater governor droop will: A) Respond less to frequency deviation B) Respond more to frequency deviations C) Respond the same to frequency deviations D) Not adjust for frequency changes A) Respond less to frequency deviation Q15: On a radial transmission system, a generator has a capacity of 600 MWs. The droop characteristic is at 5% and the generator is currently loaded at 300 MWs. If frequency suddenly drops to 59.90 Hz, what would be the total generator output? A) 280 B) 300 C) 320 D) 360 C) 320 Q16: What is the main purpose of the frequency Bias Setting in the ACE equation? A) Control frequency to 60.00 Hz for the entire Interconnection B) Assist with arresting frequency deviations C) Restore frequency to 60.00 Hz after a disturbance D) Maintains frequency between 59.95 and 60.05 Hz B) Assist with arresting frequency deviations Q17: What is the Balancing Authority's Frequency response for a frequency of 59.95 Hz with a Frequency Bias Setting of -200 MW/0.1 Hz? A) 10 MWs B) 50 MWs C) 100 WWs D) 200 MWs C) 100 WWs Q18: Scheduled Interchange is 250 MWs and Actual lnterchange is 285 MWs. The Bias Setting is 35 MW/.1Hz and frequency is 60.00 Hz with no time error correction in effect. Frequency suddenly drops to 59.80 Hz. What does ACE indicate after the disturbance? A) 70 MW under-generating B) 70 MW over-generating C) 35 MW under-generating D) 35 MW over-generating D) 35 MW over-generating Q19: Balancing Authority A is importing 225 MWs. They are scheduled to import 200 MWs. The BA Frequency Bias is 200 MW/0.1 Hz and actual frequency is 59.99 Hz. What does ACE indicate? A) 45 MWs over-generating B) 45 MWs under-generating C) 20 MWs over-generating D) 20 MWs under-generating B) 45 MWs under-generating Q20: Which of the following data indications does not directly influence the ACE calculation? A) Frequency indication malfunction B) Incorrect tie line MWs reading C) 7920 MW Q30: A disturbance has occurred in the interconnection, which causes frequency to drop. How is frequency restored from point C to D in the chart below (after frequency drop is arrested and frequency raises slightly from governor response)? A) Load dampening B) Governor Response C) Cut schedules D) Increase Generation D) Increase Generation ACE Used to determine the generation-load-interchange balance and support interchange frequency. Capacitor Bank MVAR Output Apparent Power In AC transmission, the measure of Volts times Amperes: Voltamperes (VA) Generation Shift Factor (GSF) percentage change of loading on line due to generation. Use to determine redispatch amounts. Governor Droop MW/Hz ratio 5% = 3 Hz range (60 x .05) Power Transfer Distribution Factor (PTDF) percentage of change of electrical loading on a line due to electrical power transfer (interchange) from one area to another. Use to determine amount of interchange to curtail when transmission tie-lines are overloaded, used in the Transmission Loading relief (TLR) process. Outage Transfer Distribution Factor (OTDF) percentage of change of electrical loading on a line due to electrical power transfer(interchange) from one area to another while considering outages. Distribution Factor (DF) Portion of an interchange transaction, typically expressed in per unit that flows across a transmission facility (Flowgate). Interchange Distribution Calculator (IDC) The mechanism used by RCs in the Eastern Interconnection to calculate the distribution of Interchange Transactions over specific Flowgates. It includes a database of all Interchange Transactions and a matrix of the Distribution Factors for the Eastern Interconnection. Load Shift Factor (LSF) A factor to be applied to a load's expected change in demand to determine the amount of flow contribution that change in demand will impose on an identified transmission facility or monitored Flowgate. System Operating Limit (SOL) The value (such as MW, MVar, Amperes, Frequency or Volts) that satisfies the most limiting of the prescribed operating criteria for a specified system configuration to ensure operation within acceptable reliability criteria. System Operating Limits are based upon certain operating criteria. These include, but are not limited to: 1) Facility Ratings (Applicable pre- and post-Contingency equipment or facility ratings) 2) Transient Stability Ratings (Applicable pre- and post-Contingency Stability Limits) 3) Voltage Stability Ratings (Applicable pre- and post-Contingency Voltage Stability) 4) System Voltage Limits (Applicable pre- and post-Contingency Voltage Limits) OHMs Law V = I Z Voltage = Current x Impedance Power (single phase) P = I V Power = Current x Voltage Power (3 phase) P 3-phase = √3 x V line - line x I x pf Total Power S = √3 x V line - line x I System Load System Load = Total Generation - Net Interchange Actual Np Np = 7200 is simplified form of: f = N/60 x P/2, where N is RPM and p is # of poles, f = 60 Hz, used to calculate # of poles in a generator or speed in RPM governor dead band (usually +/- .036 Hz) The amount of frequency change that occurs before the governor starts to respond Power Triangle MVA squared = MW squared + MVAR squared Power Factor MW/MVA; ratio of Real Power to Total (apparent) Power eLi the iCe man (e = voltage) Voltage leads current in an inductor Current leads voltage in a capacitor Impedance (Z) formula, the combination of Resistance (R), Inductive reactance (Xsub L) and Capacitive reactance (Xsub C) Capacitive/Inductive Reactance XsubL = 2piefL XsubC = 1/2piefC ATC Available Transfer Capability = Total Transfer Capability (TTC) - Reserve Margins. TTC is calculated based on conditions and expected power flows. Phase Angle the degree of difference where one waveform leads/lags another waveform in the power system. It is the angular separation between two currents, two voltages, or current and voltage waves. This is a generic term. Voltage Angle the degree of change bwtween two voltages i the system; usually voltage at a bus and a reference voltage Power Angle the voltage angular difference between two locations in the power system; usually two different buses MVAR flows? from higher voltage magnitude to low voltage magnitude MWs flow?