NHA PCT PROFESSIONAL EXAM 2024 100% CORRECT ANSWERS, Exams of Advanced Education

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NHA PCT PROFESSIONAL

EXAM 2024 100% CORRECT

ANSWERS

1. The additive in a gray-topped tube is: a. K+ oxalate b. Na+ citrate c. EDTA d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. K+ oxalate
2. Which of the needle has the largest gauge? a. 16 g b. 20 g c. 21 g d. 25 g - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. 16 g
3. Which of the following gauge needle is used for the typical adult venipuncture? a. 23 g b. 16 g c. 21 g d. 25 g - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. 21 g
4. The venipuncture equipment that consists of a needle attached to a plastic tubing is known as: a. Syringe b. Evacuated tube c. Winged infusion set d. Micro-collection container - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Winged infusion set
5. All of the following are true about winged infusion sets EXCEPT: a. Commonly referred to as a butterfly b. Comes in needles sizes of 16g and 18g c. Used on fragile veins d. Preferred over a syringe - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Comes in needles sizes of 16g and 18g
6. You are about to draw a FBG on a patient and the patient states that he took his medications with some orange juice this morning. What would you do next? a. Draw the patient's blood b. Explain to the patient that you cannot draw his blood without speaking to his physician first

c. Tell the patient to call his physician immediately Ask the patient to leave and come back tomorrow - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Explain to the patient that you cannot draw his blood without speaking to his physician first

1. Which of the following actions is incorrect when performing a dermal puncture? a. Using a 2.0 mm lancet on a child b. Puncturing the plantar surface of the heel c. Allowing the alcohol to dry onsite prior to puncture d. Collecting the first drop of blood - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Collecting the first drop of blood
2. The function of veins is to: a. Carry oxygen-rich blood to the heart b. Facilitate the exchange of oxygen-rich blood and deoxygenated blood c. Carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart d. Carry deoxygenated blood to the heart - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Carry deoxygenated blood to the heart
3. The function of arteries is to: a. Facilitate the exchange of oxygen-rich blood and deoxygenated blood b. Carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart c. Carry deoxygenated blood to the heart d. Pump blood to all parts of the body - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart
4. The average heart rate is: a. 72 bpm b. 62 bpm c. 82 bpm d. 92 bpm - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. 72 bpm
5. Which of the following actions should the PCT take if the baseline of the ECG is off center? a. Adjust the standardization button b. Adjust the sensitivity c. Adjust the stylus (although ECG machines no longer have styluses) d. Adjust the paper feeder - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Adjust the stylus (although ECG machines no longer have styluses)
6. Which of the following is the inner layer of the heart? a. Pericardium b. Endocardium c. Epicardium d. Myocardium - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Endocardium
7. What is the universal standard for recording an ECG? a. 20 mm/sec

b. 25 mm/sec c. 30 mm/sec d. 35 mm/sec - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. 25 mm/sec

1. Which of the following structures separates the right atrium from the right ventricle? a. Aortic valve b. Mitral valve c. Bicuspid valve d. Tricuspid valve - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Tricuspid valve
2. The approximate time for one cardiac cycle is a. 1.0 sec b. 0.25 sec c. 0.8 sec d. 0.08 sec - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. 0.08 sec
3. The lower chambers of the heart are the a. Ventricles b. Atria c. Septum d. Apex - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Ventricules The lavender-topped tube contains: a. No additive b. SPS c. Na+ citrate d. EDTA - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. EDTA
4. A term that means "deficiency of red blood cells" is a. Erythocytopenia b. Atheroma c. Erythrocytosis d. Hematemesis - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Erythopenia
5. The term thrombophlebitis means a. Pain in a vessel b. Inflammation of a vein in the presence of a clot c. Clotting cell d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Inflammation of the vein in the presence of a clot
6. The term angioedema means a. Swelling of an artery b. Narrowing of the aorta c. Swelling of a vessel d. Rupture of a lymphatic vessel - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Swelling of a vessel

1. Which of the following is the proper conduction sequence: a. SA node -> AV node -> bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers b. AV node -> SA node -> Purkinje fibers -> bundle of His c. SA node -> bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers -> AV node d. SA node -> AV node -> Purkinje fibers -> bundle of His - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. SA node -> AV node-> Bundle of His-> Purkinje fibers
2. Which of the following statements is true regarding myocardial infarction? a. Presenting symptoms may be different in women than in men b. Individuals with chest pain should immediately drive themselves to the hospital rather than waiting on an ambulance c. Confusion and hallucinations are a common symptom The test that is considered most reliable in diagnosing an MI is the ECG - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Presenting symptoms may be different in women than in men
3. Which of the following statements is true regarding heart failure? a. The right ventricle is the part of the heart most effected b. Those at greatest risk for developing heart failure include African Americans and the elderly c. The most common symptoms include pain in the chest, jaw, and left arm The most useful test for diagnosing heart failure is the ECG - CORRECT ANSWERS-Those at greatest risk for developing heart failure include African Americans and the elderly
4. All of the following statements are true regarding aneurysm EXCEPT: a. It is an abnormal dilation of the wall of a blood vessel by more than 50% due to weakness in the vessel b. Brain aneurysms, which are usually congenital, are most common in adult women c. A common examination finding in those with brain aneurysm is a murmur d. Rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm causes pain in the abdomen or back, and is a medical emergency - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. A common examination finding in those with brain aneurysm is a murmur
5. A 67-year-old man presents to the urgent care clinic complaining of a squeezing sensation in his chest and difficulty breathing. The PCT should respond in all of the following ways EXCEPT: a. Escorting him to a treatment room, applying oxygen, and having him rest while waiting his turn to be seen b. Taking him to a treatment room by a wheelchair and obtaining a set of vital signs c. Preparing to obtain an immediate ECG

Preparing to administer aspiring and nitroglycerin - CORRECT ANSWERS- Escorting him to a treatment room, applying oxygen, and having him rest while waiting his turn to be seen

2. The PCT understands that the cardiologist evaluates patients for signs and symptoms of heart disease such as: a. Flat neck veins b. Upper extremity edema c. Lung congestion d. Skin rashes - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Lung congestion
3. The PCT understands that all of the following are true regarding ECG except: a. The paper used in ECG machines is pressure and heat sensitive b. between bold vertical lines (five tiny boxes) represents 0.2 seconds of time c. Electrodes that transmit data about cardiac electrical activity to the ECG machine are placed on the patient's arms, legs and chest d. Most medical offices today use metal disks, rubber bands, and suction cups to attach electrodes and keep them in place - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Most medical offices today use metal disks, rubber bands, and suction cups to attach electrodes and keep them in place
4. The PCT who is teaching her patient about an event recorder realizes that the patient needs further instruction when he states a. "This is a small, portable monitor that I can wear around my neck or put in my shirt pocket." b. "I will have two electrodes on my chest that I can activate if I feel any symptoms." c. "This device will send an electric shock to my heart if I need it." d. "I should only have to wear this device for 24 hours." - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. "this device will send an electric shock to my heart if I need it"
5. The PCT who is teaching her patient about a Holter monitor realizes that the patient needs further instruction when he states: a. "I will wear this device for up to 48 hours." b. "I must keep a journal of my activities and any symptoms I have." c. "I can shower or bathe as I normally do while wearing this monitor." d. "A cardiologist will review and interpret the results of this test." - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. I can shower or bathe as I normally do while wearing this monitor?
6. The PCT who is teaching her patient about a cardiac stress test realizes that the patient needs further instruction when he states: a. "We are doing this to see how well my heart tolerates physical activity." b. "I will walk on a treadmill during the test." c. "I will be closely monitored during the test."

d. "There are no risks to worry about during this test." - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. There are no risks to worry about during this test.

1. The PCT who is teaching her patient about a cardioverter defibrillator realizes that the patient needs further instruction when he states: a. "This is essentially the same thing as a pacemaker." b. "This will send information about my heart rate and rhythm to the medical office on a continuous basis." c. "This might send an electric shock to my heart if I need it." "This is the same size as a pacemaker." - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. This will send information about my heart rate and rhythm to the medical office on a continuous basis
2. The PCT who is teaching her patient about a cardiac pacemaker realizes that the patient needs further instruction when he states: a. "This device will deliver electrical impulses to my heart to make it beat." b. "It will be implanted in my right chest wall beneath the skin." c. "There are many different types of pacemakers." d. "Since mine will be a rate-responsive pacemaker, it will sense my activity and increase or decrease the rate as I need it." - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. It will be implanted in my right chest wall beneath the skin
3. The PCT understands the following about ECG waveforms: a. A large QRS waveform is an abnormal finding b. The simplest way to calculate the ventricular rate is to **** the number of R waves in a 6-second strip (30 large squares) and multiply by 10 c. The typical rate for normal sinus rhythm (NSR) is 40- Sinus bradycardia is always a life-threatening rhythm - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. The simplest way to calculate the ventricular rate is to count the number of R waves in a 6-second strip (30 large squares) and multiply by 10
4. The PCT understands that the most life-threatening of the following cardiac rhythms is: a. Ventricular fibrillation b. Atrial flutter c. Sinus arrhythmia d. Sinus tachycardia - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. ventricular fibrillation
5. Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiovascular system? a. Spleen b. Heart c. Arteries d. Capillaries - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. spleen
6. Which of the following is the correct term for absence of urine? a. Nonuria

b. Anuria c. Dysuria d. Oliguria - CORRECT ANSWERS-Anuria

1. If a patient is complaining of difficulty or painful urination, he is said to have a. Oliguria b. Polyuria c. Nocturia d. Dysuria - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Dysuria
2. If a urine specimen cannot be tested within 30-60 minutes, the PCT should a. Leave the specimen on the counter b. Put the urine in the incubator c. Put the urine in a specimen collection bag Put the urine in the refrigerator - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Put the urine in the refrigerator
3. All of the following are guidelines for handling urine reagent strips except: a. Store in the refrigerator when not in use b. Check the expiration date prior to use c. Check each strip for color changes prior to use d. Keep cover on container when not in use - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Store in the refrigerator when not in use
4. The pregnancy test tests for which of the following hormones? a. Growth hormone b. Progesterone c. Human chorionic gonadotropin d. Estrogen - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Human chorionic gonadotropin
5. A protocol is: a. A predetermined plan of response b. A code of conduct for ethical behavior in the workplace c. Legal rules that dictate the standard of care An automated device used to treat patients with cardiac arrhythmiasA - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. A predetermined plan of response
6. A 32-year-old patient who experienced a fall from a ladder complains of pain with breathing. He appears mildly cyanotic and tachypneic. His blood pressure is 90/54 and is oxygen saturation is 86%. The physician notes absent breath sounds on the right side and calls for a stat chest x-ray. Based on this information, the PCT prepares to assist with a. Defibrillation b. Chest tube insertion c. Emergency surgery Splint application - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Chest tube insertion

1. An elderly man waiting in the reception area suddenly complains of difficulty breathing and states, "It feels like an elephant is sitting on my chest." After sending another staff member to notify the physician, the PCT's next action best is to a. Assist the patient in walking to an examination room b. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation c. Administer oxygen per office protocol Order a stat chest x-ray - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Administer oxygen per office protocol
2. A patient complains of a pattern of heartburn and belching that is worse after large meals and at bedtime. Based on this limited information, the medical assistant suspects this patient has a. Pericarditis b. Cholecystitis c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease d. Ulcerative colitis - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. gastroesophageal reflux disease
3. A 28-year-old man states that he was lifting weights at the local health club when he experienced a sudden sharp pain in the left side of his chest. Since then he has become increasingly short of breath and continues to have pain that is worse when he tries to take a deep breath. The PCT notes that his respiratory rate is 32, his pulse is 108, his oxygen saturation is 88%, and he appears mildly anxious. The physician notes decreased breath sounds on the patient's left side. Based on this information, the PCT prepares to assist with a. A nebulizer treatment b. Chest tube insertion c. Transfer of the patient to the hospital for surgery A stat ECG - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. chest tube insertion
4. The patient experiencing a panic attack is most likely to need a. Reassurance b. Oxygen c. Chest tube insertion d. Nebulizer treatment - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Reassurance
5. A patient appears cyanotic with moist clammy skin, nasal flaring, and wide frightened eyes. His is sitting bold upright, wheezing audibly, and his respiratory rate is 34. This man is experiencing a. Eupnea b. A panic attack c. Heat exhaustion d. Severe dyspnea - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Severe dyspnea

1. When the PCT notes a patient is experiencing severe dyspnea, her next best action is to a. Get the physician or a nurse immediately b. Walk the patient to an examination room c. Assist the patient in using his inhaler d. Obtain a complete set of vital signs - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Get the physician or nurse immediately
2. As an elderly couple enters the reception area of a family practice office, the wife begins shouting, "Please help my husband. He can't breathe!" As he collapses to the floor the PCT rushes to his side and determines that he is unresponsive. Her next best action is to a. Administer chest compressions and rescue breathing b. Obtain his vital signs c. Summon help immediately by calling a code d. Obtain his medical history from his wife - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Summon help immediately by calling a code
3. The term triage means to a. Sort b. Organize c. Orchestrate d. Treat - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. sort
4. The role of the recorder in an emergency is to a. Perform a stat ECG b. Videotape the event c. Document the emergency and the care rendered in a chronological order Record all supplies and equipment used for billing and restocking purposes - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. document the emergency and the care rendered in chronological order
5. The PCT should position the patient with epistaxis a. Lying down in the supine position b. In the side-lying position c. Sitting up, leaning forward d. In the prone position - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. sitting up, leaning forward
6. There are several advantages to using tissue adhesive on minor lacerations. They include all of the following except: a. It may be quickly injected with a small-gauge needle b. It bonds naturally in under 3 minutes c. It is strong yet flexible It comes off naturally as wound healing occurs - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. It may be quickly injected with a small-gauge needle

1. A patient in the reception area suddenly slides out of her chair to the floor and begins having a tonic-clonic seizure. The PCT's best response is to a. Move the patient to an examination room b. Insert a tongue blade to keep her from swallowing her tongue c. Restrain her d. Remove nearby objects - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Remove nearby objects
2. The PCT is interviewing a 24-year-old man who was hit on the head with a softball. Which of the following is least helpful in eliciting useful information? a. "Please describe the event as it occurred." b. "Do you have any neck pain?" c. "Describe your symptoms." d. "Who threw the ball?" - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Who threw the ball?
3. A 24-year-old man enters the urgent-care clinic accompanied by his friend. He is holding an icepack to the side of his head and states that he was hit by a softball during a game. Which of the following questions by the PCT will best elicit data about the severity and extent of his injury? a. "When did this happen?" b. "Did you lose consciousness?" c. "Where did this occur?" d. "Did it leave a bruise?" - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Did you lose consciousness?
4. Which of the following PHI can a patient be denied access to? a. Medication records b. Psychotherapy notes c. Sexually transmitted disease test results Surgical notes from an organ transplant surgery - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Psychotherapy notes
5. Which is true about a patient's right regarding the accounting of disclosures? a. A fee is charged for each request b. A log of disclosures should be maintained by the office for every patient c. Disclosure logs are sent to patient via certified mail d. Requests are limited to two per calendar year - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. A log of disclosures should be maintained by the office for every patient
6. All of the following are penalty categories for HIPAA noncompliance except a. Administrative procedure omissions b. Personal gain, or malicious harm c. Obtaining IIHI under false pretenses Privacy, security, and transaction violation - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Administrative procedure omissions

1. Which of the following forms describes the use of PHI for carrying out treatment, payment, or health-care operations? a. Business associate contract b. Notice of privacy practices c. Consent for use or disclosure for TPO Outside release form. - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Notice of privacy practives a.
2. Which of the following health-care professionals usually assumes the responsibility of the HIPAA compliance officer in a medical office? a. Physician b. Clinical medical assistant c. Office manager d. Receptionist - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Office manager
3. Which of the following could be considered a HPIAA violation? a. Closing the privacy window when talking to patients on the phone b. Having a patient sign-in sheet c. Checking personal email at work Having the fax machine located in the back office - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. checking personal email at work
4. Where on the body would a PCT take a popliteal pulse measurement? a. On the top of the foot b. Behind the knee c. Inside the ankle bone In the groin - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. behind the knee
5. The PCT is required to take a temperature reading on an unconscious patient. Which of the following sites will she most likely take the reading from? a. Axillary b. Oral c. Rectal d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Rectal
6. Which of the following abbreviations means "before meals"? a. ac b. aq c. bc d. pc - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. ac
7. Which of the following abbreviations mean "whenever necessary, or as needed"? a. qod b. npo c. noc d. prn - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Prn

1. A patient just had blood drawn for a PT and PTT. Which of the following laboratory departments will test the specimen? a. Hematology b. Chemistry c. Blood bank Coagulation - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Coagulation
2. The steps taken to resolve an issue with QC that is out of range is known as a. Corrective action b. Documentation c. Calibration d. Preventive maintenance - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Corrective action
3. Quality-control procedures are a. Set by a state's department of health b. Used to ensure the reliability and accuracy of patient's lab results c. Performed after patient testing is completed Performed on unknown samples - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. used to ensure the reliability and accuracy of a patient's lab results
4. Which of the following is a benefit of glycosylated hemoglobin levels on a patient with dibetes? a. It replaces daily glucose monitoring b. It provides the physician with the patient's tolerance to insulin c. It allows the patient to decrease her insulin intake d. It provides information on the effectiveness of long-term blood glucose regulation - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. It provides information on the effectiveness of long-term blood glucose regulation
5. Which of the following test is used to diagnose hypoglycemia? a. FBG b. 3 hr GTT c. 6 hr GTT d. 2 hr pp - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. 6hr GTT
6. Which of the following is NOT a part of the electrolyte panel? a. Ca+ b. Mg+ c. Na+ I don't agree. Na+ is an electrolyte. My answer to this would be D as oxygen is part of the ABG d. O2 - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Na+
7. Which of the following is the term used to describe thickening of artery walls? a. Arteritis b. Arthrosis c. Arteriostenosis

d. Atherosclerosis - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Atherosclerosis

1. Which of the following is a factor that may cause decreased patient compliance concerning proper blood glucose monitoring? a. Training patient in use of the glucose monitor b. Patient's denial of the disease c. Providing the patient with her own glucose monitor Referring the patient to a diabetes educator - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. patients denial of the disease
2. Which of the following screening tests might a physician order during a 55-year-old male's physical examination? a. Colonoscopy b. Color blind testing c. Spirometry d. Tympanometry - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Colonoscopy
3. In which of the following positions would a patient experiencing shock be placed? a. Dorsal recumbent b. Semi-Fowler c. Supine d. Trendelenburg - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Trendelenburg
4. Patients who are experiencing shortness of breath would benefit from being placed in which of the following positions? a. Fowler b. Horizontal recumbent c. Sitting d. Trendelenburg - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Fowler
5. The patient is lying flat on the examination table with her legs apart, knees bent, and her feet at the edges of the table. Which of the following positions is the patient in? a. Dorsal recumbent b. Semi-Fowler c. Fowler d. Lithotomy - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Dorsal recumbent
6. The PCT must administer a rectal suppository. In which of the following positions would she put the patient? a. Lithotomy b. Horizontal recumbent c. Knee-chest d. Sims - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. sims
7. Which of the following positions would be most appropriate for a patient undergoing a cervical examination? a. Sitting

b. Supine c. Dorsal recumbent d. Lithotomy - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. lithotomy

1. Which of the following is the most common solution used to cleanse a wound during a dressing change? a. Sterile saline b. Betadine c. Isopropyl alcohol None of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Sterile saline
2. Which of the following is considered a break in the sterile field? a. Covering a sterile field prior to the procedure with a sterile drape b. Facing the sterile field at all times c. Maintaining hands below the waist Hair tied back - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. maintaining hands below the waist
3. Which of the following terms means "much thirst"? a. Macroplasia b. Aphagia c. Hyperphasia d. Polydipsia - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Polydipsia
4. Which of the following best describes what a directional term is? a. A term used to indicate a specific disease b. A term used to indicate specific areas of the body c. A term used to indicate the origin of a disease d. A term used to indicate the origin of insertion for a limb - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. A term use to indicate specific areas of the body
5. Which of the following is the definition of "cutaneous"? a. Pertaining to the surface of the head b. Pertaining to the cervix c. Pertaining to the skin Pertaining to the back - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Pertaining to the skin
6. The physician wrote a prescription for the patient to take "2 tabs pot id." The PCT would then explain to the patient that he is to take the medication a. Once each day b. Twice each day c. Three times each day d. Four times each day - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Three times each day
7. The patient tells her physician that her mother died of heart disease and her father died of cancer. The physician will record this information in the patient's medical record under a. Dx b. NG

c. PMH d. FH - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. FH

1. A patient aspirated during a choking episode. Which of the following conditions may this patient develop? a. Pharyngitis b. Asthma c. Lung cancer d. Pneumonia - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Pneumonia
2. The PCT has just administered a PPD on a patient. What should the PCT tell the patient next? a. Call the office if the site remains elevated for more than 24 hours b. Make an appointment with the receptionist for a chest x-ray c. Keep the injection site covered for 3 days d. Come back to the office is 48-72 hours to have the injection site observed - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Come back to the office is 48-72 hours to have the injection site observed
3. Which of the following is true about oxygen therapy? a. It is used to decrease the amount of CO2 in the lungs b. Patients should use a mask when being administered a high flow rate of oxygen c. It should be administered in the hospital It is commonly used to treat patients with bronchitis - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Patients should use a mask when being administered a high flow rate
4. Which of the following is used to treat acute asthma attacks? a. Albuterol b. Antibiotics c. Antihistamines Supplemental O2 - CORRECT ANSWERS-a. albuterol
5. Which of the following is the most common chronic disease suffered by children? a. Strep throat b. Otitis media c. Allergic rhinitis Asthma - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Asthma
6. Which of the following is true about COPD? a. The greatest risk factor for the disease is smoking b. It consists of a single disease regarding lung function c. Patients with this disease suffer from chronic hyperoxia Patient with this disease breathe better lying down - CORRECT ANSWERS- a. The greatest risk factor for the disease is smoking
7. Which of the following is an example of direct-contact transmission

a. Coughing b. Sneezing c. Eating d. Kissing - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Kissing

1. Coumadin is classified as a(n): a. Antiarrhythmic b. Beta blocker c. Anticoagulant Thrombolytic - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Anticoagulant
2. An example of an antihypertensive is a. Albuterol b. Vasotec c. Sinemet d. Lipitor - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Vasotec
3. Ibuprofen is an example of an a. Antiviral b. Antibiotic c. Analgesic d. NSAID - CORRECT ANSWERS-NSAID
4. Side effects from certain medications can include a. Nausea b. Dizziness c. Headache d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. All of the above