NHA PCT TEST EXAM 2024, Exams of Advanced Education

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NHA PCT TEST EXAM 2024

Which of the following statements is true regarding heart failure? a. The right ventricle is the part of the heart most effected b. Those at greatest risk for developing heart failure include African Americans and the elderly c. The most common symptoms include pain in the chest, jaw, and left arm d. The most useful test for diagnosing heart failure is the ECG - CORRECT ANSWERS-b

2. The PCT understands that the cardiologist evaluates patients for signs and symptoms of heart disease such as: a. Flat neck veins b. Upper extremity edema c. Lung congestion d. Skin rashes - CORRECT ANSWERS-c The PCT understands that all of the following are true regarding ECG except: a. The paper used in ECG machines is pressure and heat sensitive b. between bold vertical lines (five tiny boxes) represents 0.2 seconds of time c. Electrodes that transmit data about cardiac electrical activity to the ECG machine are placed on the patient's arms, legs and chest d. Most medical offices today use metal disks, rubber bands, and suction cups to attach electrodes and keep them in place - CORRECT ANSWERS-d The PCT who is teaching her patient about a cardioverter defibrillator realizes that the patient needs further instruction when he states: a. "This is essentially the same thing as a pacemaker." b. "This will send information about my heart rate and rhythm to the medical office on a continuous basis." c. "This might send an electric shock to my heart if I need it." d. "This is the same size as a pacemaker." - CORRECT ANSWERS-b The role of the recorder in an emergency is to a. Perform a stat ECG b. Videotape the event c. Document the emergency and the care rendered in a chronological order d. Record all supplies and equipment used for billing and restocking purposes - CORRECT ANSWERS-c A patient just had blood drawn for a PT and PTT. Which of the following laboratory departments will test the specimen? a. Hematology

b. Chemistry c. Blood bank d. Coagulation - CORRECT ANSWERS-d Which of the following is true about oxygen therapy? a. It is used to decrease the amount of CO2 in the lungs b. Patients should use a mask when being administered a high flow rate of oxygen c. It should be administered in the hospital d. It is commonly used to treat patients with bronchitis - CORRECT ANSWERS-b You are about to draw a FBG on a patient and the patient states that he took his medications with some orange juice this morning. What would you do next? a. Draw the patient's blood b. Explain to the patient that you cannot draw his blood without speaking to his physician first c. Tell the patient to call his physician immediately d. Ask the patient to leave and come back tomorrow - CORRECT ANSWERS-b What is the universal standard for recording an ECG? a. 20 mm/sec b. 25 mm/sec c. 30 mm/sec d. 35 mm/sec - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Which of the following structures separates the right atrium from the right ventricle? a. Aortic valve b. Mitral valve c. Bicuspid valve d. Tricuspid valve - CORRECT ANSWERS-d The PCT who is teaching her patient about a Holter monitor realizes that the patient needs further instruction when he states: a. "I will wear this device for up to 48 hours." b. "I must keep a journal of my activities and any symptoms I have." c. "I can shower or bathe as I normally do while wearing this monitor." d. "A cardiologist will review and interpret the results of this test." - CORRECT ANSWERS-c A protocol is: a. A predetermined plan of response b. A code of conduct for ethical behavior in the workplace c. Legal rules that dictate the standard of care

d. An automated device used to treat patients with cardiac arrhythmias - CORRECT ANSWERS-a A patient in the reception area suddenly slides out of her chair to the floor and begins having a tonic-clonic seizure. The PCT's best response is to a. Move the patient to an examination room b. Insert a tongue blade to keep her from swallowing her tongue c. Restrain her d. Remove nearby objects - CORRECT ANSWERS-d The PCT is interviewing a 24-year-old man who was hit on the head with a softball. Which of the following is least helpful in eliciting useful information? a. "Please describe the event as it occurred." b. "Do you have any neck pain?" c. "Describe your symptoms." d. "Who threw the ball?" - CORRECT ANSWERS-d A 24-year-old man enters the urgent-care clinic accompanied by his friend. He is holding an icepack to the side of his head and states that he was hit by a softball during a game. Which of the following questions by the PCT will best elicit data about the severity and extent of his injury? a. "When did this happen?" b. "Did you lose consciousness?" c. "Where did this occur?" d. "Did it leave a bruise?" - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Which of the following abbreviations means "before meals"? a. ac b. aq c. bc d. pc - CORRECT ANSWERS-a In which of the following positions would a patient experiencing shock be placed? a. Dorsal recumbent b. Semi-Fowler c. Supine d. Trendelenburg - CORRECT ANSWERS-d The PCT must administer a rectal suppository. In which of the following positions would she put the patient? a. Lithotomy b. Horizontal recumbent c. Knee-chest d. Sims - CORRECT ANSWERS-d

Which of the following is the most common solution used to cleanse a wound during a dressing change? a. Sterile saline b. Betadine c. Isopropyl alcohol d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-a Which of the following is the definition of "cutaneous"? a. Pertaining to the surface of the head b. Pertaining to the cervix c. Pertaining to the skin d. Pertaining to the back - CORRECT ANSWERS-c The patient tells her physician that her mother died of heart disease and her father died of cancer. The physician will record this information in the patient's medical record under a. Dx b. NG c. PMH d. FH - CORRECT ANSWERS-d The PCT who is teaching her patient about a cardiac stress test realizes that the patient needs further instruction when he states: a. "We are doing this to see how well my heart tolerates physical activity." b. "I will walk on a treadmill during the test." c. "I will be closely monitored during the test." d. "There are no risks to worry about during this test." - CORRECT ANSWERS- d The lavender-topped tube contains: a. No additive b. SPS c. Na+ citrate d. EDTA - CORRECT ANSWERS-d The additive in a gray-topped tube is: a. K+ oxalate b. Na+ citrate c. EDTA d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-a Which of the needle has the largest gauge? a. 16 g b. 20 g c. 21 g d. 25 g - CORRECT ANSWERS-a

Which of the following gauge needle is used for the typical adult venipuncture? a. 23 g b. 16 g c. 21 g d. 25 g - CORRECT ANSWERS-c The venipuncture equipment that consists of a needle attached to a plastic tubing is known as: a. Syringe b. Evacuated tube c. Winged infusion set d. Micro-collection container - CORRECT ANSWERS-c All of the following are true about winged infusion sets EXCEPT: a. Commonly referred to as a butterfly b. Comes in needles sizes of 16g and 18g c. Used on fragile veins d. Preferred over a syringe - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Which of the following actions is incorrect when performing a dermal puncture? a. Using a 2.0 mm lancet on a child b. Puncturing the plantar surface of the heel c. Allowing the alcohol to dry onsite prior to puncture d. Collecting the first drop of blood - CORRECT ANSWERS-d The function of veins is to: a. Carry oxygen-rich blood to the heart b. Facilitate the exchange of oxygen-rich blood and deoxygenated blood c. Carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart d. Carry deoxygenated blood to the heart - CORRECT ANSWERS-d The function of arteries is to: a. Facilitate the exchange of oxygen-rich blood and deoxygenated blood b. Carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart c. Carry deoxygenated blood to the heart d. Pump blood to all parts of the body - CORRECT ANSWERS-b The average heart rate is: a. 72 bpm b. 62 bpm c. 82 bpm d. 92 bpm - CORRECT ANSWERS-a

Which of the following actions should the PCT take if the baseline of the ECG is off center? a. Adjust the standardization button b. Adjust the sensitivity c. Adjust the stylus (although ECG machines no longer have styluses) d. Adjust the paper feeder - CORRECT ANSWERS-c Which of the following is the inner layer of the heart? a. Pericardium b. Endocardium c. Epicardium d. Myocardium - CORRECT ANSWERS-b The approximate time for one cardiac cycle is a. 1.0 sec b. 0.25 sec c. 0.8 sec d. 0.08 sec - CORRECT ANSWERS-d The lower chambers of the heart are the a. Ventricles b. Atria c. Septum d. Apex - CORRECT ANSWERS-a A term that means "deficiency of red blood cells" is a. Erythrocytopenia b. Atheroma c. Erythrocytosis d. Hematemesis - CORRECT ANSWERS-a The term thrombophlebitis means a. Pain in a vessel b. Inflammation of a vein in the presence of a clot c. Clotting cell d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-b The term angioedema means a. Swelling of an artery b. Narrowing of the aorta c. Swelling of a vessel d. Rupture of a lymphatic vessel - CORRECT ANSWERS-c Which of the following is the proper conduction sequence: a. SA node -> AV node -> bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers b. AV node -> SA node -> Purkinje fibers -> bundle of His

c. SA node -> bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers -> AV node d. SA node -> AV node -> Purkinje fibers -> bundle of His - CORRECT ANSWERS-a Which of the following statements is true regarding myocardial infarction? a. Presenting symptoms may be different in women than in men b. Individuals with chest pain should immediately drive themselves to the hospital rather than waiting on an ambulance c. Confusion and hallucinations are a common symptom d. The test that is considered most reliable in diagnosing an MI is the ECG - CORRECT ANSWERS-a All of the following statements are true regarding aneurysm EXCEPT: a. It is an abnormal dilation of the wall of a blood vessel by more than 50% due to weakness in the vessel b. Brain aneurysms, which are usually congenital, are most common in adult women c. A common examination finding in those with brain aneurysm is a murmur d. Rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm causes pain in the abdomen or back, and is a medical emergency - CORRECT ANSWERS-c A 67-year-old man presents to the urgent care clinic complaining of a squeezing sensation in his chest and difficulty breathing. The PCT should respond in all of the following ways EXCEPT: a. Escorting him to a treatment room, applying oxygen, and having him rest while waiting his turn to be seen b. Taking him to a treatment room by a wheelchair and obtaining a set of vital signs c. Preparing to obtain an immediate ECG d. Preparing to administer aspiring and nitroglycerin - CORRECT ANSWERS-a The PCT who is teaching her patient about an event recorder realizes that the patient needs further instruction when he states a. "This is a small, portable monitor that I can wear around my neck or put in my shirt pocket." b. "I will have two electrodes on my chest that I can activate if I feel any symptoms." c. "This device will send an electric shock to my heart if I need it." d. "I should only have to wear this device for 24 hours." - CORRECT ANSWERS-c The PCT who is teaching her patient about a cardiac pacemaker realizes that the patient needs further instruction when he states: a. "This device will deliver electrical impulses to my heart to make it beat." b. "It will be implanted in my right chest wall beneath the skin." c. "There are many different types of pacemakers."

d. "Since mine will be a rate-responsive pacemaker, it will sense my activity and increase or decrease the rate as I need it." - CORRECT ANSWERS-b The PCT understands the following about ECG waveforms: a. A large QRS waveform is an abnormal finding b. The simplest way to calculate the ventricular rate is to count the number of R waves in a 6-second strip (30 large squares) and multiply by 10 c. The typical rate for normal sinus rhythm (NSR) is 40- d. Sinus bradycardia is always a life-threatening rhythm - CORRECT ANSWERS-b The PCT understands that the most life-threatening of the following cardiac rhythms is: a. Ventricular fibrillation b. Atrial flutter c. Sinus arrhythmia d. Sinus tachycardia - CORRECT ANSWERS-a Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiovascular system? a. Spleen b. Heart c. Arteries d. Capillaries - CORRECT ANSWERS-a Which of the following is the correct term for absence of urine? a. Nonuria b. Anuria c. Dysuria d. Oliguria - CORRECT ANSWERS-b If a patient is complaining of difficulty or painful urination, he is said to have a. Oliguria b. Polyuria c. Nocturia d. Dysuria - CORRECT ANSWERS-d If a urine specimen cannot be tested within 30-60 minutes, the PCT should a. Leave the specimen on the counter b. Put the urine in the incubator c. Put the urine in a specimen collection bag d. Put the urine in the refrigerator - CORRECT ANSWERS-d All of the following are guidelines for handling urine reagent strips except: a. Store in the refrigerator when not in use b. Check the expiration date prior to use c. Check each strip for color changes prior to use

d. Keep cover on container when not in use - CORRECT ANSWERS-a The pregnancy test tests for which of the following hormones? a. Growth hormone b. Progesterone c. Human chorionic gonadotropin d. Estrogen - CORRECT ANSWERS-c A 32-year-old patient who experienced a fall from a ladder complains of pain with breathing. He appears mildly cyanotic and tachypneic. His blood pressure is 90/54 and is oxygen saturation is 86%. The physician notes absent breath sounds on the right side and calls for a stat chest x-ray. Based on this information, the PCT prepares to assist with a. Defibrillation b. Chest tube insertion c. Emergency surgery d. Splint application - CORRECT ANSWERS-b An elderly man waiting in the reception area suddenly complains of difficulty breathing and states, "It feels like an elephant is sitting on my chest." After sending another staff member to notify the physician, the PCT's next action best is to a. Assist the patient in walking to an examination room b. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation c. Administer oxygen per office protocol d. Order a stat chest x-ray - CORRECT ANSWERS-c A patient complains of a pattern of heartburn and belching that is worse after large meals and at bedtime. Based on this limited information, the medical assistant suspects this patient has a. Pericarditis b. Cholecystitis c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease d. Ulcerative colitis - CORRECT ANSWERS-c A 28-year-old man states that he was lifting weights at the local health club when he experienced a sudden sharp pain in the left side of his chest. Since then he has become increasingly short of breath and continues to have pain that is worse when he tries to take a deep breath. The PCT notes that his respiratory rate is 32, his pulse is 108, his oxygen saturation is 88%, and he appears mildly anxious. The physician notes decreased breath sounds on the patient's left side. Based on this information, the PCT prepares to assist with a. A nebulizer treatment b. Chest tube insertion c. Transfer of the patient to the hospital for surgery d. A stat ECG - CORRECT ANSWERS-b

The patient experiencing a panic attack is most likely to need a. Reassurance b. Oxygen c. Chest tube insertion d. Nebulizer treatment - CORRECT ANSWERS-a A patient appears cyanotic with moist clammy skin, nasal flaring, and wide frightened eyes. His is sitting bold upright, wheezing audibly, and his respiratory rate is 34. This man is experiencing a. Eupnea b. A panic attack c. Heat exhaustion d. Severe dyspnea - CORRECT ANSWERS-d When the PCT notes a patient is experiencing severe dyspnea, her next best action is to a. Get the physician or a nurse immediately b. Walk the patient to an examination room c. Assist the patient in using his inhaler d. Obtain a complete set of vital signs - CORRECT ANSWERS-a As an elderly couple enters the reception area of a family practice office, the wife begins shouting, "Please help my husband. He can't breathe!" As he collapses to the floor the PCT rushes to his side and determines that he is unresponsive. Her next best action is to a. Administer chest compressions and rescue breathing b. Obtain his vital signs c. Summon help immediately by calling a code d. Obtain his medical history from his wife - CORRECT ANSWERS-c The term triage means to a. Sort b. Organize c. Orchestrate d. Treat - CORRECT ANSWERS-a The PCT should position the patient with epistaxis a. Lying down in the supine position b. In the side-lying position c. Sitting up, leaning forward d. In the prone position - CORRECT ANSWERS-c There are several advantages to using tissue adhesive on minor lacerations. They include all of the following except: a. It may be quickly injected with a small-gauge needle

b. It bonds naturally in under 3 minutes c. It is strong yet flexible d. It comes off naturally as wound healing occurs - CORRECT ANSWERS-a Which of the following PHI can a patient be denied access to? a. Medication records b. Psychotherapy notes c. Sexually transmitted disease test results d. Surgical notes from an organ transplant surgery - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Which is true about a patient's right regarding the accounting of disclosures? a. A fee is charged for each request b. A log of disclosures should be maintained by the office for every patient c. Disclosure logs are sent to patient via certified mail d. Requests are limited to two per calendar year - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Which of the following forms describes the use of PHI for carrying out treatment, payment, or health-care operations? a. Business associate contract b. Notice of privacy practices c. Consent for use or disclosure for TPO d. Outside release form. - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Which of the following health-care professionals usually assumes the responsibility of the HIPAA compliance officer in a medical office? a. Physician b. Clinical medical assistant c. Office manager d. Receptionist - CORRECT ANSWERS-c Which of the following could be considered a HPIAA violation? a. Closing the privacy window when talking to patients on the phone b. Having a patient sign-in sheet c. Checking personal email at work d. Having the fax machine located in the back office - CORRECT ANSWERS-c Where on the body would a PCT take a popliteal pulse measurement? a. On the top of the foot b. Behind the knee c. Inside the ankle bone d. In the groin - CORRECT ANSWERS-b The PCT is required to take a temperature reading on an unconscious patient. Which of the following sites will she most likely take the reading from? a. Axillary

b. Oral c. Rectal d. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-c Which of the following abbreviations mean "whenever necessary, or as needed"? a. qod b. npo c. noc d. prn - CORRECT ANSWERS-d The steps taken to resolve an issue with QC that is out of range is known as a. Corrective action b. Documentation c. Calibration d. Preventive maintenance - CORRECT ANSWERS-a Quality-control procedures are a. Set by a state's department of health b. Used to ensure the reliability and accuracy of patient's lab results c. Performed after patient testing is completed d. Performed on unknown samples - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Which of the following is a benefit of glycosylated hemoglobin levels on a patient with diabetes? a. It replaces daily glucose monitoring b. It provides the physician with the patient's tolerance to insulin c. It allows the patient to decrease her insulin intake d. It provides information on the effectiveness of long-term blood glucose regulation - CORRECT ANSWERS-d Which of the following test is used to diagnose hypoglycemia? a. FBG b. 3 hr GTT c. 6 hr GTT d. 2 hr pp - CORRECT ANSWERS-c Which of the following is NOT a part of the electrolyte panel? a. Ca+ b. Mg+ c. Na+ d. O2 - CORRECT ANSWERS-c Which of the following is the term used to describe thickening of artery walls? a. Arteritis

b. Arthrosis c. Arteriostenosis d. Atherosclerosis - CORRECT ANSWERS-d Which of the following is a factor that may cause decreased patient compliance concerning proper blood glucose monitoring? a. Training patient in use of the glucose monitor b. Patient's denial of the disease c. Providing the patient with her own glucose monitor d. Referring the patient to a diabetes educator - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Which of the following screening tests might a physician order during a 55- year-old male's physical examination? a. Colonoscopy b. Color blind testing c. Spirometry d. Tympanometry - CORRECT ANSWERS-a Patients who are experiencing shortness of breath would benefit from being placed in which of the following positions? a. Fowler b. Horizontal recumbent c. Sitting d. Trendelenburg - CORRECT ANSWERS-a The patient is lying flat on the examination table with her legs apart, knees bent, and her feet at the edges of the table. Which of the following positions is the patient in? a. Dorsal recumbent b. Semi-Fowler c. Fowler d. Lithotomy - CORRECT ANSWERS-a Which of the following positions would be most appropriate for a patient undergoing a cervical examination? a. Sitting b. Supine c. Dorsal recumbent d. Lithotomy - CORRECT ANSWERS-d Which of the following is considered a break in the sterile field? a. Covering a sterile field prior to the procedure with a sterile drape b. Facing the sterile field at all times c. Maintaining hands below the waist d. Hair tied back - CORRECT ANSWERS-c

Which of the following terms means "much thirst"? a. Macroplasia b. Aphagia c. Hyperphasia d. Polydipsia - CORRECT ANSWERS-d Which of the following best describes what a directional term is? a. A term used to indicate a specific disease b. A term used to indicate specific areas of the body c. A term used to indicate the origin of a disease d. A term used to indicate the origin of a limb - CORRECT ANSWERS-b The physician wrote a prescription for the patient to take "2 tabs tid." The PCT would then explain to the patient that he is to take the medication a. Once each day b. Twice each day c. Three times each day d. Four times each day - CORRECT ANSWERS-c A patient aspirated during a choking episode. Which of the following conditions may this patient develop? a. Pharyngitis b. Asthma c. Lung cancer d. Pneumonia - CORRECT ANSWERS-d The PCT has just administered a PPD on a patient. What should the PCT tell the patient next? a. Call the office if the site remains elevated for more than 24 hours b. Make an appointment with the receptionist for a chest x-ray c. Keep the injection site covered for 3 days d. Come back to the office is 48-72 hours to have the injection site observed

• CORRECT ANSWERS-d Which of the following is used to treat acute asthma attacks? a. Albuterol b. Antibiotics c. Antihistamines d.Supplemental O2 - CORRECT ANSWERS-a Which of the following is the most common chronic disease suffered by children? a. Strep throat b. Otitis media c. Allergic rhinitis d. Asthma - CORRECT ANSWERS-d

Which of the following is true about COPD? a. The greatest risk factor for the disease is smoking b. It consists of a single disease regarding lung function c. Patients with this disease suffer from chronic hyperoxia d. Patient with this disease breathe better lying down - CORRECT ANSWERS-a Which of the following is an example of direct-contact transmission a. Coughing b. Sneezing c. Eating d. Kissing - CORRECT ANSWERS-d Coumadin is classified as a(n): a. Antiarrhythmic b. Beta blocker c. Anticoagulant d. Thrombolytic - CORRECT ANSWERS-c An example of an antihypertensive is a. Albuterol b. Vasotec c. Sinemet d. Lipitor - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Ibuprofen is an example of an a. Antiviral b. Antibiotic c. Analgesic d. NSAID - CORRECT ANSWERS-d Side effects from certain medications can include a. Nausea b. Dizziness c. Headache d. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWERS-d Which of the following actions should the CPCPT take when preparing to transfer a patient from a bed to a chair? A) elevating the bed to a position equal to the height of the stretcher. B) elevating the bed to a position lower than the height of the stretcher. C) Reaching across the stretcher to assist the patient. D) elevating the bed to a position higher than the height of the stretcher. - CORRECT ANSWERS-a

During a stress test, a CPCT notice that the patient appears to be hyperventilating. Which of the following actions should the CPCT take? A) administer oxygen to the patient B) slow down the test C) stop the exercise portion of the test D) check the patient's respiratory rate - CORRECT ANSWERS-d A CPCT is assisting a patient to take self administered medications. The CPCT should recognize that which of the following medications should not be crushed? A) scored tablet B) enteric-coated C) intradermal D) parenteral - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Industry standard states that needle insertion in the antecubital area should be at a... A) 5 to 10° angle B) 15 to 30° angle C) 40 to 45° angle D) 50 to 60° angle - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Which of the following tubes should be collected first for dermal samples? A) lavender top B) green top C) red top D) light blue top - CORRECT ANSWERS-a A CPCT is assisting with the care of a patient who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following vital signs should the CPCT report first? A) a drop in blood pressure B) an elevated blood pressure C) an elevated temperature D) a drop in temperature - CORRECT ANSWERS-c A CPCT is caring for a patient who is to receive continuous tube feedings. The CPCT should place the patient into which of the following positions? A) semi-fowlers B) high-fowlers C) supine D) prone - CORRECT ANSWERS-a The CPCT is monitoring a patient who has severe hypertension. Which of the following findings related to the patient's condition should the CPCT report to the nurse immediately?

A) the patient complains of stiffness in his hands and feet. B) the patient needs help lifting his legs onto the bed. C) the patient's lower limbs show pitting edema. D) the patient's fingers are thick and flat. - CORRECT ANSWERS-c Which of the findings on the tracing below should the CPCT be most concerned with? A) irregular rhythm B) the ST segment elevation C) the QT interval D) variable shape of P waves - CORRECT ANSWERS-b What does the C in RACE mean when responding to a fire? a. Confront patient b. Corner fire c. Contain fire d. Call out "fire" - CORRECT ANSWERS-c What does the second S in PASS mean when responding to a fire? a. Squeeze b. Shut doors c. Scream for help d. Sweep from side to side - CORRECT ANSWERS-d Which instance violates HIPPA a. Sharing PHI with provider b. Releasing information with a written consent form c. connecting with patients on social media d. logging off a computer when leaving it unattended - CORRECT ANSWERS-c Which is an incorrect form of patient identification a. Room number b. Full name c. Home Address d. Date of Birth - CORRECT ANSWERS-a What was the term Angi- mean a. heart b. arm c. vein d. blood vessel - CORRECT ANSWERS-d What does the term pod mean a. arm b. leg c. posterior

d. foot - CORRECT ANSWERS-d What does the terms throm- mean a. bone b. muscle c. blood clot d. Cerebrum - CORRECT ANSWERS-c Which is not one of the chains of Infection? a. reservoir b. Susceptible exit portal c. Mode of Transmission d. Susceptible host - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Which type of infection has a period of remission and relapse? a. Acute b. Chronic c. Latent d. Opportunistic - CORRECT ANSWERS-c An autoclave is used for what type of cleaning? a. Sterilization b. Disinfection c. Sanitation d. Handwashing - CORRECT ANSWERS-a If you perform phlebotomy on a patient who does not consent this is called a. Assault b. Battery c. Careless behavior d. Abuse - CORRECT ANSWERS-b How fast should you remove a tourniquet? a. less than 3 minutes b. less than 30 seconds c. less than 1 minute d. less than 90 seconds - CORRECT ANSWERS-c What is the test type of a light blue stopper color? a. coagulation b. chemistry c. blood bank d. hematology - CORRECT ANSWERS-a What is the additative in a royal blue stopper? a. sodium citrate

b. heparin/EDTA c. Acid Citrate dextrose d. None - CORRECT ANSWERS-b What is the test type for a red stopper? a. chemistry b. blood bank c. hematology d. coagulation - CORRECT ANSWERS-a What is the butterfly method also called? a. Syringe Method b. Evacuated Tube Stopper c. Evacuated Tube System d. Winged Infusion - CORRECT ANSWERS-d Which is the correct order of draw? a. Red --> Light Blue --> Yellow --> Gray --> Lavender b. Gold --> Light Green --> Dark Green --> Red c. Blood Cultures --> Gray -- > Gold --> Yellow d. Blood Cultures --> Red --> Lavender --> Yellow - CORRECT ANSWERS-d Which is the correct order of draw (full version) a. Light Blue --> Red --> Gold--> Light Green --> Lavender --> Blood Cultures --> Dark Green --> Gray --> Yellow b. Blood Cultures --> Light Blue --> Red --> Gold--> Light Green --> Lavender --> Dark Green --> Yellow --> Gray c. Blood Cultures --> Light Blue --> Red --> Gold--> Light Green --> Dark Green --> Lavender --> Gray --> Yellow d. Blood Cultures --> Yellow --> Gray --> Lavender --> Light Blue --> Red --> Gold --> Dark Green --> Light Green - CORRECT ANSWERS-c Where is the pulmonary valve located? a. Between right ventricle and Aorta b. Between left ventricle and Aorta c. Between left ventricle and Pulmonary Arteries d. Between right ventricle and Pulmonary Arteries - CORRECT ANSWERS-d What do the Purkinje fibers do? a. initiate myocardial contraction b. carry electrical impulses c. transmits impulses from the atria to the ventricles d. perfuse the AV node - CORRECT ANSWERS-a What is the Standard Amplitude of an EKG? a. 15 mm per 2 mV

b. 10 mm per 1 mV c. 20 mm per 2 mV d. 12 mm per 2 mV - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Where does the V5 lead go? a. Right side of sternum at the 4th intercostal space b. Left side of chest, fifth intercostal space, closer to the side of the body c. Left side of chest, fifth intercostal space, closest to the side of the body d. Left side of chest, 5th intercostal space - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Where does the V6 lead go? a. Anterior Axillary Line b. Midclavicular Line c. Midaxillary Line d. Sternum - CORRECT ANSWERS-c How to resolve a wandering baseline artifact? a. keep room warm and tell patients to take slow deep breathes b. Fix Wire c. Reposition limb leads d. Turn off electronic interference - CORRECT ANSWERS-c How to resolve an interrupted baseline? a. Fix Wire b. Reposition Limb leads c. Turn off electronic interference d. Keep room warm - CORRECT ANSWERS-a How to resolve a Somatic tremor? a. Fix Wire b. Keep room warm c. Reposition Limb Leads d. Turn off electrical interference - CORRECT ANSWERS-b What does the T wave represent? a. ventricular depolarization b. ventricular repolarization c. atrial depolarization d. atrial repolarization - CORRECT ANSWERS-b What does the ST segment represent? a. Early phases of ventricular repolarization b. When SA node starts to fire c. Represents time between the end of atrial contraction and beginning of ventricular contraction

d. Repolarization of the bundle of His and Purkinje fibers - CORRECT ANSWERS-a What does the QT interval represent? a. Where ventricular depolarization stops and ventricular repolarization starts b. Represents amount of time between ventricular depolarization cycles c. Represents time between the end of atrial contraction and beginning of ventricular contraction d. Represents one complete ventricular cycle - CORRECT ANSWERS-d What does the P wave represent? a. Represents ventricular depolarization b. Represents ventricular repolarization c. Represents atrial depolarization d. Represents atrial repolarization - CORRECT ANSWERS-c What classifies as a Premature Junctional Complex? a. Absent/inverted P wave b. Three+ PVCs in a row with a ventricular rate greater than 100min c. P wave is before, after, or even within QRS Complex d. Slight irregularity in rhythm - CORRECT ANSWERS-c What classifies as Idioventricular Rhythm a. When all the pacemakers of the heart have failed b. Ventricles don't contract but quiver c. No P waves d. When ventricular pacemaker is functioning - CORRECT ANSWERS-d Which is true of an Accelerated Junctional Rhythm? a. Rhythm is less than 60/min b. P wave is present and upright c. Rhythm is between 60 to 100/min d. Rhythm is between 100 to 150/min - CORRECT ANSWERS-c Which is true of Atrial Flutter? a. P waves are present b. Has F waves c. Less severe than Sinus Dysrhythmias d. P wave is inverted - CORRECT ANSWERS-b Which is true of a Supraventricular Tachycardia? a. It is also called the Elongated Complex Tachycardia b. the heart rate is between 100 to 150/min c. There is an inverted P wave d. There is no P wave - CORRECT ANSWERS-d

Which is NOT true of a normal rhythm? a. P wave is upright and rounded b. QRS complex is narrow c. Amplitude is greater than 2.5 mm d. Duration is less than 110 milliseconds - CORRECT ANSWERS-c