NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Correct Study Guide, Study Guides, Projects, Research of Nursing

Download NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Correct Study Guide and more Study Guides, Projects, Research Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Chapter 01: Introduction to Pathophysiology Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease? a. An inherited disorder b. A combination of specific etiological factors c. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug d. Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the: a. subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness. b. signs and symptoms of a disease. c. factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness. d. early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection. The best definition of the term prognosis is the: a. precipitating factors causing an acute episode. b. number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness. c. predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease. d. exacerbations occurring during chronic illness NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease? a. Swelling of the knee b. Fever c. Pain in the neck d. Red rash on the face Etiology is defined as the study of the: a. causes of a disease. b. course of a disease. c. expected complications of a disease. d. manifestations of a disease. A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as: a. hypertrophy. b. metaplasia. c. anaplasia. d. atrophy. A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic figures would be called: a. metaplasia. b. atrophy. c. dysplasia. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Caseation necrosis refers to an area where: a. cell proteins have been denatured. b. cell are liquefied by enzymes. c. dead cells form a thick cheesy substance. d. bacterial invasion has occurred. Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of: a. an iatrogenic cause of cancer. b. a preventive measure. c. a precipitating factor. d. a predisposing condition. A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed: a. latent stage. b. predisposing factor. c. incidence. d. precipitating factor. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide The term homeostasis refers to: a. the causative factors in a particular disease. b. maintenance of a stable internal environment. c. a condition that triggers an acute episode. d. a collection of signs and symptoms. Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after the original disease has been established? a. Symptoms b. Occurrence c. Manifestations d. Complication NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Pathophysiology involves the study of: a. the structure of the human body. b. the functions of various organs in the body. c. functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes. d. various cell structures and related functions. Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology? a. The science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases b. The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease c. Identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system, that usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a (an): a. acute disease. b. multiorgan disorder. c. syndrome. d. manifestation. All of the following statements are correct about cell damage EXCEPT: a. The initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide b. If the factor causing the damage is removed quickly, the cell may be able to recover and return to its normal state. c. If the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time, the damage becomes irreversible and the cell dies. d. Initially, cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function. Which of the following conditions distinguishes double blind studies used in health research? a. Neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving the experimental therapy. b. Both groups of research subjects and the person administering the treatment know who is receiving the experimental therapy. c. The research subjects do not know, but the person administering the treatment knows who is receiving placebo or standard therapy. d. Only members of the control group know they are receiving standard therapy. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called: a. the placebo effect. b. evidence-based research. c. blind research studies. d. approval for immediate distribution. A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain is called: a. acute. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals? a. To predict the prognosis b. To determine treatments c. To develop preventive measures d. To develop morbidity statistics Cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as: a. abnormal metabolic processes. b. certain food additives. c. genetic defects. d. localized hypoxia. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Which of the following is usually included in a medical history? Past illnesses or surgeries Current illnesses, acute and chronic Prescribed medication or other treatments Nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies Current allergies a. 1, 3 b. 2, 4, 5 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide A situation when there is a higher than expected number of cases of an infectious disease within a given area is called a/an: a. epidemic. b. exacerbation. c. morbidity. d. pandemic. The term pathogenesis refers to: a. the development of a disease or sequence of events related to tissue changes involved in the disease process. b. the determination of the cause(s) involved in the development of a malignant neoplasm. c. the specific signs and symptoms involved in the change from an acute disease to a chronic disease. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide b. feces only. c. perspiration and expiration. d. urine and feces. When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the: a. blood into the cells. b. interstitial compartment into the cells. c. interstitial compartment into the blood. d. cells into the interstitial compartment. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Which of the following would result from a deficit of plasma proteins? a. Increased osmotic pressure b. Decreased osmotic pressure c. Increased hydrostatic pressure d. Decreased hydrostatic pressure Which of the following would cause edema? a. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure b. Increased capillary osmotic pressure c. Decreased capillary permeability d. Increased capillary permeability NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Which of the following would likely be related to an elevated hematocrit reading? a. Fluid excess b. Fluid deficit c. Increased sodium level d. Decreased erythrocytes Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration? a. Rapid, strong pulse b. Low hematocrit c. Increased urine output d. Rough oral mucosa NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia? a. Skeletal muscle twitch and cramps b. Oliguria c. Elevated serum pH d. Cardiac arrhythmias Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone. a. Increased movement of calcium ions into the bones b. Increased activation of vitamin D c. Increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract d. Decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Which of the following results from hypocalcemia? Low serum phosphate levels Nausea and constipation Skeletal muscle twitch and spasms Weak cardiac contractions a. 1, 2 b. 1, 4 c. 2, 3 d. 3, 4 Which of the following causes tetany? a. Increased permeability of nerve membranes due to low serum calcium NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide b. Excess calcium ions in skeletal muscle due to excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) c. Excess calcium ions inside somatic nerves as a result of neoplasms d. Increased stimulation of the nerves in the cerebral cortex In which of the following processes is phosphate ion NOT a major component? a. Bone metabolism b. Metabolic processes involving adenosine triphosphate (ATP) c. Blood clotting d. Acid-base balance NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Which is the correct effect on the body of abnormally slow respirations? a. Increased carbonic acid b. Decreased carbonic acid c. Increased bicarbonate ion d. Decreased bicarbonate ion Which condition is likely to cause metabolic acidosis? a. Slow, shallow respirations NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide b. Prolonged diarrhea c. Mild vomiting d. Excessive fluid in the body What would a serum pH of 7.33 in a patient with kidney disease indicate? a. Metabolic alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Which serum value indicates decompensated metabolic acidosis? a. pH is below normal range b. pH is above normal range c. Bicarbonate level decreases d. Bicarbonate level increases What is the effect on blood serum when excessive lactic acid accumulates in the body? a. Bicarbonate ion levels decrease b. Bicarbonate ion levels increase c. Carbonic acid levels increase d. pH increases NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide b. decreased rate and depth of respiration. c. increased urine pH and decreased serum bicarbonate. d. decreased urine pH and increased serum bicarbonate. An anxiety attack often causes hyperventilation leading to: a. increased PCO2. b. decreased PCO2. c. respiratory acidosis. d. metabolic acidosis. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide One of the factors involved in the increased need for water in infants is: a. proportionally smaller body surface area. b. higher metabolic rate. c. smaller respiratory capacity. d. greater surface area of exposed mucous membranes. Compensation for respiratory system depression due to anesthesia and sedation would be: a. decreased reabsorption of bicarbonate ions in the kidneys. b. increased secretion of hydrogen ions into the filtrate. c. increased respiratory rate and depth. d. increased renin secretion. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide A prolonged state of metabolic acidosis often leads to: a. hypokalemia. b. hyperkalemia. c. hyponatremia. d. hypercalcemia. Strenuous physical exercise on a hot day is likely to result in: a. hypokalemia. b. hypernatremia. c. hyperchloremia. d. hypovolemia. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide In the initial stage, vomiting results in: a. metabolic acidosis. b. metabolic alkalosis. c. respiratory alkalosis. d. None of the above Which two ions are most important for acid-base balance in the body? a. K+, Na+ b. Cl– and HCO3– c. Ca++, Na+ NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide d. Na+, Cl– The bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system helps maintain serum pH. The balance of the carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion levels are controlled by the: a. liver and pancreas. b. lungs and kidneys. c. lungs and plasma proteins. d. kidneys and bone marrow. Alkalosis increases irritability and spontaneous stimulation of nerves by: a. blocking normal nerve conduction. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide b. increasing the permeability of nerve membranes. c. blocking movement of calcium ions. d. decreasing phosphate ion levels. Hypocalcemia causes weak cardiac contractions because: a. permeability of nerve membranes increases. b. insufficient calcium ions are available for muscle contraction. c. low phosphate ion levels prevent muscle contraction. d. excessive amounts of calcium are stored in cardiac muscle. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide It is released in response to low blood pressure. a. 1, 3 b. 1, 4 c. 2, 3 d. 2, 4 What are the three mechanisms that control or compensate for serum pH? a. Hypothalamus, metabolic changes by digestive system, lymphatic system filtration b. Buffer pairs in blood, change in kidney excretion rate, change in respiration rate c. Neural feedback, increase in heart rate, decrease in calcium intake d. Modification of water intake, increased capillary permeability, decrease in blood volume NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Hypokalemia refers to a condition in which the serum has a very low level of which ion? a. Sodium b. Phosphate c. Calcium d. Potassium In the blood and extracellular fluids, hypernatremia refers to: a. a deficient sodium level. b. an excess phosphate level. c. an excess sodium level. d. an excessively low phosphate level. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Increased milk and/or antacid intake can contribute to development of “milk-alkali syndrome,” which can cause which of the following? a. Hyponatremia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hypercalcemia d. Hypovolemia Chapter 03: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide d. cause more rapid excretion of the drug. What is the reaction called when two drugs interact to produce a result much greater than the sum of individual effects? a. Antagonism b. Beneficial c. Synergism d. Potentiation At which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion? NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide a. Liver b. Kidneys c. Circulating blood d. Lymphoid tissue In traditional Asian medicine, acupoints are usually located: a. over pain or other sensory receptors. b. where blood vessels branch. c. over joints. d. on designated meridians. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Traditional drug or surgical therapy is incorporated with nontraditional methods by: a. chiropractors. b. naturopaths. c. homeopaths. d. osteopaths. Contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify: a. those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used. b. those typical side effects associated with this drug. c. the dosage limits associated with the use of the drug. d. the maximum shelf life of the medication. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide The form of therapy that involves assessment of physical function and works to restore any problems and prevent any further dysfunction using methods such as appropriate exercises and ultrasound is referred to as: a. registered massage therapy. b. naturopathy. c. physiotherapy. d. reflexology. A medical history should include all: legally prescribed drugs. vitamin or mineral supplements. any medication not requiring a prescription (over-the-counter items). herbal treatments. a. 1 only b. 1, 3 NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide c. 1, 2, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 Antagonistic drugs may be used to: a. increase the effectiveness of selected drugs. b. prolong the action of a drug. c. act as an antidote when necessary. d. speed up the excretion of a drug. The full course of a prescribed antimicrobial drug should be completed so as to prevent: NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide a. undesirable side effects. b. development of resistant microbes. c. an allergic response. d. proper metabolism and excretion of drug. Chapter 04: Pain Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by: a. nociceptors. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide What is the definition of endorphins? a. Neurotransmitters at the nociceptors b. Transmitters for sensory impulses c. Opiate-like blocking agents in the central nervous system d. Pain-causing chemical mediators Pain perceived in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of: a. referred pain. b. phantom pain. c. chronic pain. d. subjective pain response. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an headache. a. tension b. sinus c. migraine d. intracranial What is a common analgesic administered to control a moderate level of pain? NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide a. Meperidine b. Acetaminophen c. Codeine d. Ibuprofen Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia? a. It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness. b. The drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of the spinal cord. c. The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord. d. The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide c. Young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure. d. Chronic pain is easier to tolerate without negative effects. Ibuprofen is classified as an NSAID and is particularly useful in treating: a. severe pain. b. pain caused by inflammation. c. intracranial pain. d. pain in young infants. Which of the following analgesics acts to reduce pain at the peripheral site? NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide a. Acetaminophen b. Morphine c. Codeine d. Intravenous general anesthesia Cancer-related pain has been broken down into three basic categories: pain caused by the advance of the disease and resultant damage to the body, pain that is the result of a coexisting disease unrelated to the cancer, and: a. phantom pain as a result of amputation. b. pain associated with the treatment of the disease. c. pain caused by emotional stress and metabolic changes. d. pain associated with damage to the peripheral nerves. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Pain that is caused by trauma or disease involving the peripheral nerves is referred to as: a. neuropathic pain. b. central pain. c. neurogenic pain. d. referred pain. Pain resulting from a profound, sudden loss of blood flow to an organ or tissues in a specific area of the body is referred to as: a. chronic pain. b. central pain. c. cardiovascular pain. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide third line of defense. specific defenses. nonspecific defenses. a. 1, 4 b. 1, 5 c. 3, 4 d. 2, 5 A specific defense for the body is: a. phagocytosis. b. sensitized T lymphocytes. c. the inflammatory response. d. intact skin and mucous membranes. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to: a. phagocytosis of foreign material. b. local vasodilation. c. any tissue injury. d. formation of purulent exudates. Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include: a. albumin and fibrinogen. b. growth factors and cell enzymes. c. macrophages and neutrophils. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide d. histamine and prostaglandins. Which of the following result directly from the release of chemical mediators following a moderate burn injury? Pain Local vasoconstriction Increased capillary permeability Pallor a. 1, 2 b. 1, 3 c. 2, 3 d. 2, 4 NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Transient vasoconstriction Migration of leukocytes to the area Hyperemia a. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 c. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 d. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4 The process of phagocytosis involves the: a. ingestion of foreign material and cell debris by leukocytes. b. shift of fluid and protein out of capillaries. c. formation of a fibrin mesh around the infected area. d. movement of erythrocytes through the capillary wall. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Systemic effects of severe inflammation include: a. erythema and warmth. b. loss of movement at the affected joint. c. fatigue, anorexia, and mild fever. d. abscess formation. The term leukocytosis means: a. increased white blood cells (WBCs) in the blood. b. decreased WBCs in the blood. c. increased number of immature circulating leukocytes. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide d. significant change in the proportions of WBCs. Which of the following statements applies to fever? a. Viral infection is usually present. b. Heat-loss mechanisms have been stimulated. c. It is caused by a signal to the thalamus. d. It results from release of pyrogens into the circulation. Mechanisms to bring an elevated body temperature down to the normal level include: NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Glucocorticoids are used to treat inflammation because they directly: a. promote the release of prostaglandins at the site. b. decrease capillary permeability. c. mobilize lymphocytes and neutrophils. d. prevent infection. Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of the following EXCEPT: a. decreased bone density. b. wasting of skeletal muscle. c. opportunistic infections. d. increased leukocyte production. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT an anti- inflammatory agent? a. Acetaminophen b. Prednisone c. Aspirin d. Ibuprofen A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classified as: a. full-thickness. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide b. deep partial-thickness. c. superficial partial-thickness. d. first-degree. A woman has burns on the anterior surfaces of her right arm, chest, and right leg. The percentage of body surface area burned is approximately: a. 13.5%. b. 18%. c. 22.5%. d. 31.5%. The characteristic appearance of a full-thickness burn is: NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide The advantages of applying a biosynthetic skin substitute to a large area of full-thickness burns include: reduced risk of infection. decreased loss of plasma protein and fluid. developing stronger fibrous scar tissue. more rapid healing. regeneration of all glands, nerves, and hair follicles. a. 1, 3 b. 4, 5 c. 1, 2, 4 d. 2, 3, 5 Purulent exudates usually contain: NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide a. small amounts of plasma protein & histamine in water. b. red blood cells & all types of white blood cells. c. numerous leukocytes, bacteria, and cell debris. d. large amounts of water containing a few cells. Isoenzymes in the circulating blood: a. are a type of plasma protein normally present in the circulating blood. b. often indicate the precise location of an inflammatory response. c. are normally released from leukocytes during the inflammatory response. d. are pyrogens, causing low-grade fever. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide A serous exudate is best described as a: a. thin, watery, colorless exudate. b. thick, sticky, cloudy secretion. c. thick, greenish material containing microbes. d. brownish, clotted material. Systemic manifestations of an inflammatory response include: a. edema and erythema. b. area of necrosis and loss of function. c. pain and tenderness. d. fever and malaise. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Healing of large areas of skin loss (including dermis and epidermis) would be most successful through: a. rapid mitosis and regeneration of skin layers. b. resolution of damaged cells in the area. c. covering the area with biosynthetic skin substitute. d. graft of fibrous tissue to the area. Prostaglandins are produced from and cause . a. activated plasma protein; increased capillary permeability b. mast cells; vasodilation and pain c. platelets; attraction of neutrophils, chemotaxis d. mast cell granules; activation of histamines and kinins NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide The number of neutrophils in the blood is increased significantly: a. during allergic reactions. b. during chronic inflammation. c. to produce antibodies. d. in order to promote phagocytosis. An abscess contains: a. serous exudate. b. purulent exudate. c. fibrinous exudate. d. hemorrhagic exudate. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Nonspecific agents that protect uninfected cells against viruses are called: a. neutrophils. b. macrophages. c. interferons. d. pyrogens. Causes of inflammation include: a. direct physical damage such as cuts and sprains. NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide d. 1, 4, 5 Aspirin (ASA) is discouraged for treatment of viral infection in children because of: a. decreased bone growth after puberty. b. frequent production of blood clots. c. formation of a granuloma filled with virus. d. the risk of developing Reye’s syndrome. Systemic manifestations of inflammation include all EXCEPT: NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide a. pyrexia. b. malaise. c. local swelling. d. anorexia. Which of the following cellular elements found in the inflammatory response are responsible for phagocytosis? a. Macrophages b. Basophils c. B lymphocytes d. T lymphocytes e. Eosinophils NR 283 Patho test bank 2 master Corrrect Study Guide Which chemical mediator is involved in prolonging the inflammatory response? a. Bradykinin b. Histamine c. Leukotrienes d. Chemotactic factors Potential complications after healing by scar formation include all the following EXCEPT: a. lack of sensory function in the area. b. contractures and adhesions. c. increased hair growth. d. keloid formation.