NR 507 Final Exam / NR507 Final Exam (V2 , NEW, 2024 )(75 Q/A): Chamberlain College, Exams of Nursing

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NR 507 Final Exam

Question

Question : What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra?

Encephalocele Meningocele

Spina bifida occulta Myelomeningocele Explanation: Myelomeningocele is a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst containing meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord with its nerves through a defect in the posterior arch of a vertebra. The remaining options are not appropriate terms to identity the described condition.

Question 2. Question : What provides the best estimate of the functioning of renal tissue?

Glomerular filtration rate

Hourly urine output Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine The specific gravity of the solute concentration of the urine Explanation: The glomerular filtration rate provides the best estimate of the level of functioning of renal tissue. The other options are not used to assess renal tissue function.

Question 3. Question : Where are Langerhans cells found?

Skin Intestinal lining Kidney

Thyroid Explanation: Of the available options, only the skin is the location for Langerhans cells.

Question 4. Question : Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?

Trachea

Segmental bronchi Alveolocapillary membrane

Main bronchus Explanation: Gas exchange occurs only across the alveolocapillary membrane.

Question 5. Question : The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:

2 years

1 year

10 months 5 months Explanation: The tonic neck reflex should be unobtainable by 5 months of age.

Question 6. Question : When renin is released, it is capable of which action?

Inactivation of autoregulation Direct activation of angiotensin II

Direct release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Formation of angiotensin I Explanation: When renin is released, it cleaves an -globulin (angiotensinogen produced by liver hepatocytes) in the plasma to form angiotensin I.

Question 7. Question : The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant?

Immunotope Paratope

Epitope Antigenitope

Explanation:

The precise portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is called its antigenic determinant or epitope. The other options are not used to identify this portion of the antigen.

Question 8. Question : Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?

Syphilis Herpes simplex virus

Chlamydia

Chancroid Explanation: The coexistence of chlamydial infection with gonorrhea frequently occurs. No coexistence exists with the other options.

Question 9. Question : How is the effectiveness of vitamin B 12 therapy measured?

Reticulocyte count

Serum transferring Hemoglobin Serum vitamin B 12 Explanation: The effectiveness of cobalamin replacement therapy is determined by a rising reticulocyte count. The other options are not used as indicators of the effectiveness of vitamin B 12 therapy

Question 10. Question : Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?

Blood vessels Epithelial cells

Connective tissue Glandular tissue Explanation: Only cancers arising from epithelial cells are called carcinomas.

Question 11. Question : Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin?

Viruses Bacteria and fungi

Protozoa and Rickettsiae Mycoplasma Explanation: Only bacteria and fungi have the capacity to reproduce on the skin.

Question 12. Question : An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?

Atrial septal defect (ASD) Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Explanation: Because most children with ASD are asymptomatic, diagnosis is usually made during a routine physical examination by the auscultation of a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur that reflects increased blood flow through the pulmonary valve. The location of the murmur is between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also characteristic of ASD, reflecting volume overload to the right ventricle and causing

prolonged ejection time and a delay of pulmonic valve closure. The presentations of other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described symptoms.

Question 13. Question : An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom?

Intermittent murmur Lack of symptoms

Need for surgical repair Triad of congenital defects Explanation: Infants with a small PDA usually remain asymptomatic; the other options are incorrect.

Question 14. Question : What is the function of erythrocytes?

Tissue oxygenation

Hemostasis Infection control Allergy response Explanation: Erythrocytes are solely responsible for tissue oxygenation.

Question 15. Question : Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

Liposarcoma, lipoma Lipoma, liposarcoma

Adisarcoma, adipoma Adipoma, adisarcoma Explanation: In general, cancers are named according to the cell type from which they

originate (e.g., lip for cancers that originate in adipose or fat tissue), whereas benign tumors use the suffix - oma. Cancers arising from connective tissue usually have the suffix sarcoma.

Question 16. Question : What is the chance with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with the sickle trait will have sickle cell disease (SCD)?

20% 25%

33% 50% Explanation: A 25% chance exists with each pregnancy that a child born to two parents with sickle cell trait will have SCD. Genetic counseling enables people with SCD or with the sickle cell trait to make informed decisions about transmitting this genetic disorder to their offspring.

Question 17. Question : What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?

Nasal turbinates Alveolar macrophages

Cilia Irritant receptors on the nares Explanation: The submucosal glands of the bronchial lining produce mucus, contributing to the mucous blanket that covers the bronchial epithelium. The ciliated epithelial cells rhythmically beat this mucous blanket toward the trachea and pharynx, where it can be swallowed or expectorated by coughing. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the pulmonary defense mechanism described.

Question 18. Question : The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic

hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland?

Posterior pituitary

Thyroid Parathyroid Anterior pituitary Explanation: ADH, which is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland, controls the concentration of the final urine. ADH is not secreted by any of the other options.

Question 19. Question : Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection?

The virus does not circulate in the blood.

It does not have antibody receptors. It resists agglutination.

The virus is a soluble antigen. Explanation: Many viruses (e.g., measles, herpes) are inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection only because these viruses do not circulate in the bloodstream; rather, they remain inside infected cells, spreading by direct cell-to-cell contact.

Question 20. Question : Which renal change is found in older adults?

Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate

Sharp decline in renal blood flow Decrease in the number of nephrons

Decrease in urine output Explanation: With aging, the number of nephrons decreases. The other options are not necessarily related to aging.

Question 21. Question : Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?

IgA IgE IgG

IgM

Explanation:

IgA can be divided into two subclasses, IgA1 and IgA2. IgA1 molecules are predominantly found in the blood, whereas IgA2 is the predominant class of antibody found in normal body secretions. The other options are not found in the substances identified in the question.

Question 22. Question : Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?

Norepinephrine

Epinephrine Cortisol Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Explanation: Only the release of norepinephrine promotes arousal, increased vigilance, increased anxiety, and other protective emotional responses.

Question 23. Question : Which statement is true regarding maternal antibodies provided to the neonate?

The antibodies enter into the fetal circulation by means of active transport.

The antibodies are transferred to the fetus via the lymphatic system.

The antibodies are directly related to the mother’s nutritional intake.

The antibodies reach protective levels after approximately 6

months of age. Explanation: To protect the child against infectious agents both in utero and during the first few postnatal months, a system of active transport facilitates the passage of maternal antibodies into the fetal circulation. The antibodies are transmitted via the placenta and are related to the mother’s immune system. The infant’s own IgG-related antibodies reach protective levels by 6 months of age.

Question 24. Question : The function of the tumor cell marker is to:

Provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer. Treat certain types of cancer.

Predict where cancers will develop. Screen individuals at high risk for cancer. Explanation: Screening and identifying individuals at high risk for cancer are ways tumor markers can be used. These markers are not used to definitively diagnosis or treat cancer and are not useful in predicting specific sites of

cancer development.

Question 25. Question : Which statement is true concerning a fungal infection?

Fungal infections occur only on skin, hair, and nails.

Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections. Fungal infections release endotoxins. Vaccines prevent fungal infections. Explanation: The host defense against fungal infection includes the fungistatic properties of neutrophils and macrophages. T lymphocytes are crucial in limiting the extent of infection and producing cytokines to further activate macrophages. The other options are not true of fungal infections.

Question 26. Question : Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from

infection?

The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8.

A thin squamous epithelial lining develops. Vaginal pH becomes more acidic. Estrogen levels are low. Explanation: At puberty, the pH becomes more acidic (4 to 5) and the squamous epithelial lining thickens. These changes are maintained until menopause (cessation of menstruation), at which time the pH rises again to more alkaline levels and the epithelium thins out. Therefore protection from infection is greatest during the years when a woman is most likely to be sexually active. Estrogen does not play a role in infection protection.

Question 27. Question : The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term?

Relativity

Survivability Prevalence Incidence Explanation: The prevalence rate is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at a specific point in time. Thus both the incidence rate and the length of the survival period in affected individuals determine prevalence. The description in the question does not relate to any of the other options.

Question 28. Question : Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?

Sodium intake Physical inactivity

Psychosocial stress Obesity Explanation: The most important environmental risk factors for hypertension are

increased sodium intake, decreased physical activity, psychosocial stress, and obesity. However, obesity is, itself, influenced by genes and the environment.

Question 29. Question : Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n):

Atretic follicle Thecal follicle

Corpus luteum Functional scar Explanation: Having ejected a mature ovum, the only resulting structure is the corpus luteum.

Question 30. Question : The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder?

Osteogenesis imperfecta Rickets

Osteochondrosis Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease Explanation: Of the available options, only rickets is a disorder in which growing bone fails to become mineralized (ossified) and results in soft bones and skeletal deformity.

Question 31. Question : What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding?

Tolerance Perception

Threshold

Dominance Explanation: Pain tolerance is the duration of time or the intensity of pain that an individual will endure before initiating overt pain responses. The other options are not related to the duration or intensity of pain endured before the pain is recognized.

Question 32. Question : Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of:

Magnesium

Calcium Sodium

Water Explanation: In the kidney, aldosterone primarily acts on the epithelial cells of the nephron-collecting duct to increase sodium ion reabsorption. This action cannot be said of the other options.

Question 33. Question : Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke?

Hemorrhagic Thrombotic

Embolic Lacunar Explanation: High-risk sources for the onset of embolic stroke are atrial fibrillation (15% to 25% of strokes), left ventricular aneurysm or thrombus, left atrial thrombus, recent myocardial infarction, rheumatic valvular disease, mechanical prosthetic valve, nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis, bacterial endocarditis, patent foramen ovale, and primary intracardiac tumors. These are not risk factors for the other options provided.

Question 34. Question : Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia?

Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps

Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue Explanation: Widespread joint and muscle pain, fatigue, and tender points are characteristics of fibromyalgia, a chronic musculoskeletal syndrome. Increased sensitivity to touch (i.e., tender points), the absence of systemic or localized inflammation, and fatigue and sleep disturbances are common. Fatigue is profound. The remaining options include symptoms not generally associated with fibromyalgia.

Question 35. Question : Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation?

Heat cramps