NR 507 MIDTERM EXAM 2024-2025, Exams of Nursing

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NR 507 MIDTERM EXAM 2024-

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Which of the following conditions can decrease preload? a. fluid overload b. fever c. pain d. hemorrhage

d. hemorrhage

Hypertension has its most immediate effect on a. preload b. contractility c. stroke volume d. afterload

d. afterload

Which of the following can depress a persons normal immune function a. exercise b. psychological stress c. hypertension d. a high fiber diet

b. psychological stress

The NP is seeing a patient with chronic bronchitis that needs spirometry on todays visit. What pulmonary function test findings are anticipated based on the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis a. decreased total lung b. increased lung compliance

c. decreased diffusing capacity d. decreased forced expiratory flow

d. decreased forced expiratory flow

Chronic bronchitis will decrease which of the following parameters? a. decreased diffusing capacity b. decreased total lung capacity c. increased lung compliance d. decreased forced expiratory flow

d. Decreased forced expiratory flow

The treatment of iron deficiency anemia includes... a. blood transfusions b. vitamin b-12 replacement c. iron supplementation d. ferritin replacement

c. iron supplementation

Extrinsic asthma is...

Triggered by an allergic reaction

Symptoms common to both intrinsic and extrinsic asthma include...

Wheezing

Which of the following pulmonary function test results are consistent with asthma a. decreased peak expiratory flow rate b. decreased residual volume c. increased forced expiratory volume and FEV1/FEV d. increased forced vital capacity

a. decreased peak expiatory flow rate

Primary or Secondary Chronic granulomatous disease of childhood

Primary

Primary or Secondary Digeorge Syndome

Primary

Primary or Secondary Human Immunodeficiency Virus

Secondary

Primary or Secondary Familial Mediterranean Fever

Primary

Primary or Secondary Pneumocysis Carinii

Secondary

Primary or Secondary Job Syndrome

Primary

Primary or Secondary Pneumonia

Secondary

Primary or Secondary Sinus Infection

Secondary

Primary or Secondary Lung Cancer

Secondary

Primary or Secondary Common Variable Immunodeficiency

Primary

True or False Cancer is a secondary immunodeficiency...

True

A patient with Chronic Granulomatous Disease of childhood has a... a. Primary Immune Disease b. Secondary Immune Disease

a. Primary Immune Disease

Type 2 (Cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by a. IgE or IgG b. IgA or IgE c. IgM or IgA d. IgG or IgM

d. IgG or IgM

Anaphylaxis is a _________ hypersensitivity reaction. a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 4

a. Type 1

Hives (uticaria) are an example of a.. a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 4

a. Type 1

Which or the following are considered the 'first responders' of the innate immune system? a. T-cells b. Neutrophils c. Eosinophils d. IgM

b. Neutrophils

The NP notes that a patients FEV1/FVC ratio is normal. Which of the following conditions is most likely to the pulmonary issue? a. Pneumonia b. Pulmonary Fibrosis c. Emphysema d. Chronis Asthma

b. Pulmonary Fibrosis

Which is an example of a secondary immunodeficiency? a. Familial Mediterranean Fever b. Job Syndrome c. Pneumocystis Carinii d. Common Variable Immunodeficiency

c. Pneumocystis Carinii

Patients at risk for heart failure who have not yet developed structural heart changes a. Stage A b. Stage B c. Stage C d. Stage D

a. Stage A

What is an expected chest Xray finding for a patient with COPD?

Flattened Diaphragm

What are the four key diagnostic tests for interstitial lung disease?

Pulmonary Function Test Resolution CT Scan Bronchoalveolar Lavage Lung Biopsy

________ labs values are normal for hemolytic anemia.

MCV

The _______ lab value will be high in post-hemorrhagic anemia.

Reticulocyte Count

Select all that apply Which of following are causes for hemolytic anemia? a. Infection b. Transfusion Reaction c. Drugs d. All of the above

d. All of the above

True or False Acute blood loss of anemia is usually associated with acute GI bleeding and labor and delivery complications.

True

The cell is normal in size and normal in hemoglobin level.

Normocytic Normochromic

True or False Identification of the type of anemia involves an examination of size of RBC only.

False

The following symptoms indicate -severe fatigue -pallor -weakness -dyspnea -dizziness

Anemia

Asthma is a chronic disease characterized by...

intermittent reversible airflow obstruction

The effects of an alpha-antitrypsin 1 deficiency is... a. Reduction in elastase production b. Inability to block the effects of proteolysis c. Inhibits the immune cell response d. Deactivated Neutrophils

b. Inability to block the effects of proteolysis

True or False When iron stores are depleted, the cells mitochondria are still able to utilize iron effectively due to compensatory mechanisms

False

Which of the following is a late effect of emphysema? a. hypocapnia b. hypercapnia c. hypoxia d. hypoxemia and hypercapnia

d. hypoxemia and hypercapnia

What is the number one cause of bronshitis?

Cigarette smoking

A patient with chronic bronchitis is most likely to experience a. respiratory acidosis due to decreased intake of CO b. respiratory acidosis due to inability to exhale CO c. respiratory alkalosis due to inability to exhale CO d. Respiratory alkalosis due to decreased intake of CO

b. respiratory acidosis due to inability to exhale CO

Hyperresonance found on lung percussion with a patient with COPD is primarily due to a. consolidation of secretions b. air trapping c. ruptured alveoli d. mucus plugs

b. air trapping

A lung volume measurement that indicates air trapping in a COPD patient is a. increased residual volume b. decreased residual volume c. normal residual volume d. decreased total lung volume

a. increased residual volume

In hemolytic anemia, the destruction of lysis of RBCs is due to a. chemical release medication by ones immune system b. effects of drugs c. enzymes or toxins produced by an infectious agent d. all of the above will cause lysis of RBCs

d. all of the above will cause lysis or RBCs

The MCHC will be normal in which of the following anemias a. hemolytic anemia b. post-hemorrhagic anemia c. aplastic anemia d. MCHC is normal in all the above anemias

d. MCHC is normal in all the above anemias

A non-megaloblastic anemia would be caused by a. liver disease b. folate deficiency c. iron deficiency d. vitamin b-12 deficiency

a. Liver Disease

An individual who has received an incorrect blood transfusion will exhibit signs of a. hemolytic anemia b. polycythemia vera c. pernicious anemia d. aplastic anemia

a. hemolytic anemia

Allergic contact dermatitis is an example _________ hypersensitivity reaction. a. type 1 b. type 2 c. type 3 d. type 4

d. type 4

Which of the following values is low for a client with a folate deficiency?

Reticulocyte count

Which of the following will be elevated in a patient with pernicious anemia?

MCV

In a patient with pernicious anemia, which of the following lab values can be normal? a. Reticulocyte count b. MCHC

c. MCV d. Folate

d. Folate

True or False The patient with thalassemia is at high risk for a stroke.

False

A patient with mitral stenosis would most likely present with what sound.

Rumbling, decrescendo diastolic murmur heard at the apex of the heart

True of False the pathophysiology of the sickle cell anemia involves a single amino-acid change on the beta-chain.

True

Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease? a. obesity b. hyperlipidemia c. hypertension d. family history

d. family history

True or False Sinusitis is considered a primary immunodefiency

true

The transferrin deficiency will most likely result in a. aplastic anemia b. hemolytic anemia c. pernicious anemia d. iron deficiency anemia

d. iron deficiency anemia

Sickle cell anemia and thalassemia are more prevalent in which geographical area?

Africa

Thalassemia is simple cell anemia in that the individual with thalassemia a. inherits an abnormal HB gene from mom b. inherits an abnormal Hb gene from dad c. inherits an abnormal Hb gene from one patient d. inherits an abnormal Hb gene from both parents

c. inherits an abnormal Hb gene from both parents

Sickle cell anemia is an a. autosomal dominant genetic disorder b. idiopathic blood disorder c. autosomal recessive genetic disorder d. immunodeficiency disorder

c. Autosomal recessive genetic disorder

True or False Cells that contain abnormal types of hemoglobin are more susceptible to infection by the parasite that causes malaria

False

Which of the following statements are correct regarding thalassemia? a. characterized by acute and painful episodes b. maintains effective erythropoiesis c. may have many possible genetic mutations d. involves a double amino acid change on the beta change

c. may have many possible genetic mutations

True or False Cells that contain abnormal types of hemoglobin are more susceptive to infection by the parasite that causes malaria.

False

True or False The patient with sickle cell anemia is at high risk for stroke.

True

True or false There are four genes involved in encoding synthesis of the alpha protein chain for HB and are located on chromosome number 16.

False

Which of the following is a primary immunodeficiency? a. pneumonia b. chronic granulomatous disease c. sinus infection d. human immunodeficiency virus

b. chronic granulomatous disease

Which of the following is an autoimmune disease? a. osteoarthritis b. iron deficiency anemia

c. systemic lupus erythematosus d. ABO incombatibility

c. systemic lupus erythematosus

What is the most common cause of right sided heart failure?

Pulmonary Hypertension

What is cor pulmonale?

Right ventricular failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension

Primary or Secondary A patient with HIV was admitted to the acute care facility with difficulty breathing. He is diagnosed with pneumocystis carinii.

Secondary

Which stage Patients with structural heart disease who have not yet developed symptoms.

Stage B

Which stage Patients with refractory heart failure that require advanced intervention.

Stage D

Which stage Patient who have developed clinical heart failure.

Stage C

Which class There is marked limitation of physical activity. The patient is comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity causes symptoms of HF

Class 3

Which class There is no limitation of physical activity ordinary physical activity does not cause symptoms of HF

Class 1

Which class The patient is unable to carry on any physical activity without symptoms of HF or they have symptoms of HF at rest

Class 4

Which class There is a slight limitation of physical activity. The patient is comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity results in symptoms of HF

Class 2

In a healthy heart, the respond to an increase in preload is for the stroke volume to a. decrease b. remain constant c. increase d. both increase and cdecrease

c. increase

A deficiency of intrinsic factor will result in a. aplastic anemia b. pernicious anemia c. iron deficiency anemia d. anemia of chronic disease

b. pernicious anemia

What plays a major role in the maturing of RBCs?

Folic Acid

Which lab values are normal in early stages of pernicious anemia?

MCHC

True or False One of the common precipitating factors to folate deficiency is alcohol abuse.

True

The Np is examining a patient with a longstanding history of chronic bronchitis. a. hypoxia b. hypocapnia c. venous status ulcers d. splenomegaly

d. splenomegaly

Which of the following pulmonary function test results are expected in a patient with chronic bronchitis? a. increased vital capacity b. decreased residual volume c. decreased FEV1/FVC ratio d. increased forced expiratory volume in one sec

c. decreased FEV1/FVC ratio

Which of the following indicate that the patients iron stores depleted? a. total iron binding capacity b. vitamin B-12 level c. Ferritin level d. Total RBC count

Ferritin level

Select all that apply Which of the following anemias can be categorized as microcytic- hypochromic? a. anemia of inflammation and chronic disease b. sideroblastic anemia c. iron deficiency anemia

b. sideroblastic anemia c. iron deficiency anemia

True or False The basic pathophysiology of iron deficiency anemia is that there are insufficient iron levels or the inability of the cells mitochondria to utilize iron effectively

True

A patient with chronic bronchitis is at risk for developing pneumonia due to a. inability to cough b. overactive cilia in the lungs c. mucous plugs d. hypoxemia

c. mucous plugs

Which of the following conditions could result in iron deficiency anemia? a. excessive bleeding b. increased absorption of iron containing foods c. reduced absorption of vitamin B- d. reduced intake of vitamin C

a. Excessive bleeding

What am I? The oxygen carrying pigment of red cells a. normal for men is 13.5-17.5g/dl b. normal for women is 12-15.5g/dl

Hb

What am I? The number of erythrocytes in one cubic mm of whole blood a. normal for men 4.7-6.1mcl b. normal in women is 4.5-5.2mcl

RBC

Which of the following is a type of macrocytic anemia a. anemia of chronic disease b. thalassemia c. iron deficiency anemia d. vitamin B-12 deficiency

d. vitamin B-12 deficiency

Which of the following normocytic anemias is characterized by hyperchromic RBCs a. iron deficiency b. Hereditary spherocytosis c. B12 deficiency d. Folate deficiency

b. Hereditary spherocytosis

Which of the following indicates measures the average size of red blood cells. a. mean corpuscular hemoglobin hemoglobin concentration b. mean corpuscular volumes c. reticulocyte count d. hemoglobin

b. mean corpuscular volumes

Which of the following is not a clinical characteristic of anemia? a. fatigue b. dyspnea c. pallor d. bradycardia

d. bradycardia

Anemia can be caused from which of the following? a. excessive blood loss b. increased red blood cell destruction c. impaired red blood cell production d. all of the above

d. all of the above

A patient with mitral regurgitation would most likely present with what heart sound?

A blowing, holosystolic murmur

Rheumatic fever is a common cause for ______________ valve disorder.

Mitral stenosis

The patient with aortic stenosis would most likely present with what heart sound?

mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur

The patient with aortic regurgitation would most likely present with what heart sound?

An early, high-pitched diastolic murmur heard at the left lower sternal border

True or false Interstitial lung disease includes infectious and neoplastic lung disease

False

These medications are commonly associated with the development of... a. amiodarone b. methotrexate c. nitrofurantoin

medication-induced interstitial lung disease

What are the the most diagnosed interstitial lung disease

hypersensitivity pneumonitis pneumoconiosis radiation pneumonitis

True or False The symptoms that are common to all types or interstitial lung disease are SOB and nonproductive cough

True

True or False The characteristic finding on a chest xray of an individual with ILD is a honeycomb pattern

True

True or False An objective finding in a patient with ILD include productive cough

False

True or false Interstitial lung disease refers to any disease affecting the pulmonary interstitial and typically excludes infectious and neoplastic diseases

True

True or False A subjective finding in interstitial lung disease is rhonchi in the upper posterior airways

False

Which of the following can depress a persons normal immune function a. exercise

b. psychological stress c. hypertension d. a high fiber diet

b. psychological stress

The NP is seeing a patient with chronic bronchitis that needs spirometry on todays visit. What pulmonary function test findings are anticipated based on the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis a. decreased total lung b. increased lung compliance c. decreased diffusing capacity d. decreased forced expiratory flow

d. decreased forced expiratory flow

Chronic bronchitis will decrease which of the following parameters? a. decreased diffusing capacity b. decreased total lung capacity c. increased lung compliance d. decreased forced expiratory flow

d. Decreased forced expiratory flow

What cant simple spirometry measure?

Residual volume

What is the major immune system change associated with Sjogrens Syndrome?

autoantibodies and autoreactive t-cells against apoptic cells

What is the percentage in which a patient with normal lungs should be able to exhale of the forced vital capacity within the first second

80%

What test is positive in 90% of patients diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus?

antinuclear antibody

True or False Simple spirometry includes a measure of residual capacity

False

Obstructive or restrictive FEV1 decreased FVC decreased TLC decreased FEV1/FVC normal

Restrictive

Restrictive or Obstructive Pneumonia

restrictive

Restrictive or Obstructive pulmonary fibrosis

restrictive

Restrictive or Obstructive Chronic Asthma

Obstructive

Restrictive or Obstructive Pulmonary hypertension

restrictive

The NP reviews the results of a pateints pulmonary function tests and notes that the FEV FVC and TLC are reduced and the FEV1/ FVC ratio is normal. Based on interpretation this reflects... a. combined obstructive and restrictive lung disease b. the test is valid c. restrictive lung disease d. obstructive lung disease

c. restrictive lung disease

Which of the following assessment findings would support a diagnosis of RA? a. muscle weakness and ataxia b. inflammation in the salivary and lacrimal glands c. a butterfly rash across the facial cheeks d. swollen metacarpophalangeal joints

d. swollen metacarpophalangeal joints

Which of the following statements best describes the symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus a. tissue inflammation, vasculitis, rash b. inflammation in salivary and lacrimal glands c. joint inflammation, stiffness and pain, loss of range of motion d. formation of sclerotic plaque in the brain, leads to muscle weakness and ataxia

Tissue inflammation, vasculitis, rash

True or false the presenting signs and symptoms of an autoimmune disease is similar across all autoimmune diseases

False

Which of the following findings can be used to diagnose systemic lupus erythematosus a, fever b. low back pain c. headache d. facial rash confined to the cheeks

Facial rash confined to the cheeks

Asthma results in... a. increase alveolar ventilation b. increased alveolar oxygenation c. decreased alveolar ventilation d. scant mucus production

decreased alveolar ventilation

In normal gas exchange which of the following is correct? a. after air is breathing in, it diffuses into the pulmonary capillaries b. deoxygenated blood is pumped out through the aorta to into the systemic circulation c. only the pulmonary artery carries the oxygenated blood d. after air is breathing it diffuses into the pulmonary veins

a. after air is breathing in it diffuses into the pulmonary veins

Which of the following would normocytic-normochromic indicate a. the cell is normal in size but low in hemoglobin level b. the cells is normal in size and normal in hemoglobin level c. the cell is abnormal in shape but normal in hemoglobin level d. the cell is abnormal in size and abnormal in hemoglobin lever

b. the call is normal in size and normal in hemoglobin level

Which lab values are low in aplastic anemia

Reticulocyte Count

Which of the following is the underlying pathology for hay fever? a. formation of autoantibodies b. mast cell degranulation c. destruction by t-cells d. activation of complement

b. mast cell degranulation

The diagnosis fo an individual who presents to the office with swollen lips and eyes, SOB and throat tightness after a bee sting is... a. angioedema b. asthma c. reactive airway disease d. anaphylaxis

d. anaphylaxis

Damage occurs with ABO incompatibility because a. mast cells degranulation b. complement damages RBC membrane causing cell lysis. c. antigen/antibody complexes attack the RBC d. autoantibodies specific for thyroid tissue impairs the receptors for TSH

b. complement damages RBC membrane causing cell lysis

What is the main cause of coronary artery disease?

longstanding atherosclerosis

Which of the following statements correctly describes the flow of blood between the heart and lungs? a. the pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart b. oxygenated blood is transported from the lungs to the heart via the pulmonary veins c. oxygenated blood is transported from the lungs to the right atrium of the heart d. deoxygenated blood is transported from the left ventricle to the lungs via the pulmonary arteries

b. oxygenated blood is transported from the lungs to the heart via the pulmonary veins

True or false In coronary artery disease pumpability of the heart can be impaired due to the deprivation of oxygen

True

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease? a. family history b. obesity c. age d. menopause

b. obesity

Choose the types of interstitial lung disease that are commonly associated with smoking? a. hypersensitivity pneumonitis b. respiratory bronchiolitis- interstitial lung disease c. sarcoidosis d. pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis e. Desquamative interstitial pneumonia

e. Desquamative interstitial pneumonia f. pulmonary langerhans cell histocytosis b. respiratory bronchiolisis- interstitial lung disease

Bronchitis or Emphysema Cor pulmoale- common

Bronchitis

Bronchitis or Emphysema productive cough- classic sign

Bronchitis

Bronchitis or Emphysema polycythemia- late in course

Emphysema

Bronchitis or Emphysema dyspnea- late in course

Bronchitis

Bronchitis or Emphysema chronic hypoventilation- late in course

Emphysema

Bronchitis or Emphysema cyanosis- uncommon

Emphysema

Bronchitis or Emphysema Barrel Chest- classic

Emphysema

Bronchitis or Emphysema Wheezing-intermittent

Bronchitis

Bronchitis or Emphysema Barrel chest- occasional

Bronchitis

Bronchitis or Emphysema wheezing- minimal

Emphysema

Bronchitis or Emphysema barrel chect- occasional

Bronchitis

Bronchitis or Emphysema Cyanosis- common

Bronchitis

Bronchitis or Emphysema Dyspnea-common

Emphysema

Bronchitis or Emphysema productive cough-late in course with infection

Emphysema

Bronchitis or Emphysema Chronic hypoventilation-common

Bronchitis

Bronchitis or Emphysema polycythemia- common

Bronchitis

Bronchitis or Emphysema Cor Pulmonale- late in course

Emphysema

Sickle Cell or Thalassemia Involves a single amino acid change on the beta-chain

Sickle cell

Sickle Cell or Thalassemia increased RBC hemoglobin concentration, RBC dehydration, acidosis and hypoxemia

Sickle cell

Sickle Cell or Thalassemia May have many possible genetic mutation

Thalassemia

Sickle Cell or Thalassemia Ineffective erythopoiesis

Thalassemia

Sickle Cell or Thalassemia Characterized by acute painful episodes

Sickle cell

Sickle Cell or Thalassemia Occurs primarily in persons from southeast Asia and China

Thalassemia

Right or Left Heart Failure increased left ventricular afterload

Left

Right or Left Heart Failure decreased ejection fraction

Left

Right or Left Heart Failure jugular vein distention

Right

Right or Left Heart Failure increased Left ventricular preload

Left

Right or Left Heart Failure hepatosplenomegaly

Right

Right or Left Heart Failure peripheral edema

Right

Right or Left Heart Failure cor pulmonale

Right

Right or Left Heart Failure pulmonary edema

Left

Right or Left Heart Failure Tricuspid valve damage

Right

Right or Left Heart Failure Dypsnea

Left

Type 1-4 Pathology Mast Cell Degranulation results in an inflammatory response

Type 1

Type 1-4 Pathology Complement damages RBC membrane and cell lyse Autoantibodies specific for thyroid tissue impair receptor for TSH

Type 2

Type 1-4 Pathology Complex deposited in small peripheral vessels in cool temperatures leading to vasoconstriction and blocked circulation

Type 3

Type 1-4 Pathology T cells attack tissue directly (no antibody)

Type 4

Type 1-4 Example Hay Fever

Type 1

Type 1-4 Example ABO incompatibility Graves Disease

Type 2

Type 1-4 Example contact dermatitis

Type 4

Type 1-4 Example Raynauds Phenomenon

Type 3

Type 1-4 Mechanism Cytotoxic T cell-Mediated

Type 4

Type 1-4 Mechanism IgE action on mast cells

Type 1

Type 1-4 Mechanism Antigen-antibody complex deposited in tissues

Type 3

Immune System Changes Autoantibodies and auto-active T-cells against DNA and nucleoprotein antigens

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Immune System Changes Autoantibodies and auto-reactive T-cells against apoptotic cells

Sjogrens Syndrome

Immune System Changes Autoantibodies and auto-reactive T-cells and B-cells against joint-associated antigens

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Immune System Changes Autoantibodies and auto-reactive T-cells against brain antigens

Multiple Sclerosis

Common Manifestation Inflammation in salivary and lacrimal glands

Sjogrens Syndrome

Common Manifestation Formation of sclerotic plaque in the brain; leads to muscle weakness and ataxia

Multiple Sclerosis

Common Manifestation Joint inflammation stiffness and pain loss of range of motion

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Common Manifestation Tissue Inflammation Vasculitis Rash

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Hypersensitivity: Type 1

-Mediated IgE -inflammation due to mast cell degranultion -anaphylactic, asthma, hay fever treatment: epinephrine

Hypersensitivity: Type 2

-Cytotoxic reaction: tissue specific -binds to the antigen ON THE CELL SURFACE -macrophages are primary effectors cells involved cause tissue damage or alter function

Hypersensitivity 2

-Graves Disease (hyperthyroidism) -alters function not destroy -blood transfusions reaction- transfused erythrocytes are destroyed by agglutination or lysis -drug allergies -hemolytic anemia

Hypersensitivity: type 3

-Not organ specific -antibody binds to soluble antigen OUTSIDE THE CELL SURFACE that was released into the blood or bodily fluids, and the complex is then deposited in the tissues

Hypersensitivity: Type 3

-rheumatoid arthritis -Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) -Raynaud's

Hives (urticaria)

Hypersensitivity Type 1

First responders to innate the immune system

Neutrophils

Allergic contact dermatitis

Hypersensitivity Type IV

Type 2 cytotoxic hypersensitivity mediated by:

-IgG IgM -macrophages are primary effort cells

Serum Sickness

type 3 hypersensitivity

Hypersensitivity IV,

-is more of a delayed immune response. -mediated T-cells attack tissue directly (no antibodies)

Autoimmune

-diseases in which the body makes antibodies directed against its own tissues

Primary immunodeficiency

-Genetic; inherited -result of single gene defects -B and T cell deficiencies

secondary immunodeficiency

-acquired

Common cause of secondary immunodeficiency

Malnutrition

Most patients diagnosed with SLE will have a positive?

antinuclear antibody (ANA)

SLE (lupus)

-Facial rash -vasculitis

• tissue inflammation

Renal disease associated with autoimmunity?

Glomerulonephritis

Sjogren's syndrome

Inflammation in salivary and lacrimal glands

SLE

Autoantibodies and auto-active t-cells against DNA and nucleoprotein

Sjögren's syndrome immune changes:

Autoantibodies and auto-reactive t-cells against apoptotic cells

rheumatoid arthritis manifestations:

Joint inflammation, stiffness, pain, loss of range of motion

Rheumatoid Arthritis immune changes:

T-cells and B cells against joint associated antigens

MS manifestations