Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Prepare for your exams
Study with the several resources on Docsity
Earn points to download
Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan
Community
Ask the community for help and clear up your study doubts
Discover the best universities in your country according to Docsity users
Free resources
Download our free guides on studying techniques, anxiety management strategies, and thesis advice from Docsity tutors
Questions and answers related to advanced pathophysiology. The questions cover topics such as the infectious process, respiratory distress syndrome, compliance, exotoxins, hyperkalemia, and sudden infant death syndrome. The answers provide explanations and additional information on the topics. The document can be useful for students studying advanced pathophysiology or preparing for exams on the subject NR 507 / NR 507: Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm Exam Week 4 (2023/2024)
Typology: Exams
1 / 11
are related to the cause of RDS. Question 4 . Question : Which statement concerning benign tumors is true? Student Answer: The resulting pain is severe. Benign tumors are not encapsulated. Benign tumors are fast growing. Instructor Explanation: The cells are well-differentiated. A benign tumor is well-differentiated with its tissue appearing similar to the tissue from which it arose. The other options are characteristic of a malignant tumor. Question 5 . Question : Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously used by children diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot to relieve hypoxic spells? Student Answer: Lying^ on^ their^ left^ side Performing the Valsalva maneuver Squatting Instructor Explanation: Hyperventilating Squatting is a spontaneous compensatory mechanism used by older children to alleviate hypoxic spells. Squatting and its variants increase systemic resistance while decreasing venous return to the heart from the inferior vena cava. The other options would not result in these changes. Question 6 . Question : Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing
hormone (CRH)? Student Answer: IL–^1 and^ IL-^6 IL- 2 and TNF-𝛼 IFN and IL- 12 Instructor Explanation: TNF-ß and IL- 4 Although a number of stress factors initiate the production of CRH, of the options available, only high levels of IL-1 and IL-6 initiate such a response. Question 7 . Question : Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: Student Answer: Is^ Rh-positive^ and^ the^ fetus^ is^ Rh-negative Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive Has type A blood and the fetus has type O Instructor Explanation: Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B HDN can occur only if antigens on fetal erythrocytes differ from antigens on maternal erythrocytes. Maternal-fetal incompatibility exists only if the mother and fetus differ in ABO blood type or if the fetus is Rh-positive and the mother is Rh-negative. This erythrocyte incompatibility does not exist in any of the other options. Question 8 . Question : Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic? Student Answer: Difficult^ deflation Easy inflation
Stiffness Instructor Explanation: Inability to diffuse oxygen A decrease in compliance indicates that the lungs or chest wall is abnormally stiff or difficult to inflate. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the meaning of decreased compliance. Question 9 . Question : Which statement concerning exotoxins is true? Student Answer: Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria. Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades. Instructor Explanation: Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth. Exotoxins are proteins released during bacterial growth. The other options are not true of exotoxins. Question 10 . Question : What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells? Student Answer: 1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell) 1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells) 1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells) Instructor Explanation: 1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells) The heart has an extensive capillary network, with approximately 3300 capillaries per square millimeter (ca/mm^2 ) or approximately one capillary per one muscle cell (muscle fiber).
Question 11 . Question : How high does the plasma glucose have to be before the threshold for glucose is achieved? Student Answer: 126 mg/dl 150 mg/dl 180 mg/dl Instructor Explanation: 200 mg/dl When the plasma glucose reaches 180 mg/dl, as occurs in the individual with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, the threshold for glucose is achieved. Question 12 . Question : What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? Student Answer: Low birth weight Alcohol consumption during pregnancy Premature birth Instructor Explanation: Smoking during pregnancy RDS of the newborn, also known as hyaline membrane disease (HMD), is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in premature newborns. None of the other options are considered the chief predisposing factors for RDS. Question 13 . Question : Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where? Student Answer: Prefrontal^ cortex Anterior pituitary
Limbic system Instructor Explanation: Hypothalamus Perceived stressors elicit an anticipatory response that begins in the limbic system of the brain, the only option responsible for emotions and cognition. Question 14 . Question : Causes of hyperkalemia include: Student Answer: Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition Vomiting and diarrhea Renal failure and Addison disease Instructor Explanation: Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease Hyperkalemia should be investigated when a history of renal disease, massive trauma, insulin deficiency, Addison disease, use of potassium salt substitutes, or metabolic acidosis exists. The other options are not known to be causes of hyperkalemia. Question 15 . Question : Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur? Student Answer: 0 and^1 2 and 4 5 and 6 Instructor Explanation: 6 and 7 The incidence of SIDS is low during the first month of life but sharply increases in the second month of life, peaking at 2 to 4 months and is unusual after 6 months of age.
Question 16 . Question : What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia? Student Answer: Hypotension Hyperesthesia Hypoxia Instructor Explanation: Ischemia The fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia is a reduced oxygen- carrying capacity of the blood, resulting in tissue hypoxia. Question 17 . Question : What is the life span of platelets (in days)? Student Answer: 10 30 90 Instructor Explanation:
A platelet circulates for approximately 10 days and ages. Macrophages of the mononuclear phagocyte system, mostly in the spleen, remove platelets. Question 18 . Question : What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion? Student Answer: Macula^ densa Visceral epithelium Comments:
Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) Instructor Explanation: Filtration slits Control of renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion occur at the JGA. Together, the juxtaglomerular cells and macula densa cells form the JGA. The control of renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion is not directed by any of the other options. Question 19 . Question : An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Student Answer: Atrial^ septal defect (ASD) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Instructor Explanation: Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect On physical examination, a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill can be detected at the left lower sternal border. The intensity of the murmur reflects the pressure gradient across the VSD. An apical diastolic rumble may be present with a moderate-to-large defect, reflecting increased flow across the mitral valve. The presentations of the other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described symptoms. Question 20 . Question : The coronary ostia are located in the: Student Answer: Left ventricle Aortic valve Coronary sinus Aorta Instructor Coronary arteries receive blood through openings in the aorta, called
Explanation: the coronary ostia. Question 21 . Question : The only surface inside the nephron where cells are covered with microvilli to increase the reabsorptive surface area is called the: Student Answer: Proximal convoluted^ tubules Distal tubules Ascending loop of Henle Instructor Explanation: Descending loop of Henle The only surface inside the nephron where the cells are covered with microvilli (a brush border) is called the proximal convoluted tubules. This proximal convoluted tubular lumen consists of one layer of cuboidal cells with a surface layer of microvilli that increases the reabsorptive surface area. Question 22 . Question : The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes? Student Answer: Inhibiting^ thrombin^ and^ antithrombin^ III^ (AT-III) Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot Instructor Explanation: Degrading the fibrin within blood clots Clinically administered heparin or heparin sulfate (on the surface of endothelial cells) binds to AT-III and induces a conformational change that greatly enhances its activity. Under normal conditions, the presence of endothelial cell heparin sulfate and available AT-III in the circulation cooperate to protect the vessels from the effects of spontaneously activated thrombin. The other options do not accurately describe the role heparin plays in hemostasis.