NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete, Exams of Nursing

Download NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers. 1. Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include: 1. Switching medications after an 8- to 12-week trial 2. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications 3. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication 4. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable 2. An appropriate first-line drug to try for mild to moderate generalized anxiety disorder would be: 1. Alprazolam (Xanax) 2. Diazepa m (Valium) 3. Buspirone (Buspar) 4. Amitriptyline (Elavil) 3. An appropriate drug to initially treat panic disorder is: 1. Alprazolam Page 1 of 41 2 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers (Xanax) 2. Diazepam (Valium) 3. Buspirone (Buspar) 4. Amitriptyline (Elavil) 4. Prior to starting antidepressants, patients should have laboratory testing to rule out: 1. Hypothyroidism 2. Anemia 3. Diabetes mellitus 4. Low estrogen levels 5. David is a 34-year-old patient who is starting on paroxetine (Paxil) for depression. David's education regarding his medication would include: 1. Paroxetine may cause intermittent diarrhea. 2. He may experience sexual dysfunction beginning a month after he starts therapy. 3. He may have constipation and he should increase fluids and fiber. 4. Paroxetine has a long half-life so he may occasionally skip a dose. 6. Jamison has been prescribed citalopram (Celexa) to treat his depression. Education regarding how quickly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants work would be: 1. Appetite and concentration improve in the first 1 to 2 Page 2 of 41 5 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 4. Escitalopram (Lexapro) can be stopped abruptly due to its long half-life 11. The longer-term Xanax patient comes in and states they need a higher dose of the medication. They deny any additional, new, or accelerating triggers of their anxiety. What is the probable reason? 1. They have become tolerant of the medication, which is characterized by the need for higher and higher doses. 2. They are a drug seeker. 3. They are suicidal. 4. They only need additional counseling on lifestyle modification. 12. What "onset of action" symptoms should be reviewed with patients who have been newly prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor? 1. They will have insomnia for a week. 2. They can feel a bit of nausea, but this resolves in a week. 3. They will have an "onset seizure" but this is considered normal. 4. They will no longer dream. 13. Which of the following should not be taken with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor? 1. Aged blue cheese Page 5 of 41 6 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 2. Gr apefruit 3. Alcohol 4. Green leafy vegetables 14. Why is the consistency of taking paroxetine (Paxil) and never running out of medication more important than with most other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)? 1. It has a shorter half-life and withdrawal syndrome has a faster onset without taper. 2. It has the longest half-life and the withdrawal syndrome has a faster onset. 3. It is quasi-addictive in the dopaminergic reward system. 4. It is the most activating of SSRI medications and will cause the person to have sudden deep sadness. 15. The patient shares with the provider that he is taking his Prozac at night before going to bed. What is the best response? 1.This is a good idea because this class of medications generally makes people sleepy. 2. Have you noticed that you are having more sleep issues since you started that? 3. This a good way to remember to take your daily medications because it is near your toothbrush. 4. This is a good plan because you can eat grapefruit if there is 8- 12 hours difference in the time each are ingested. 16. Nicotine withdrawal symptoms include: Page 6 of 41 7 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 1.Nervousness 2.Increased appetite 3.Difficulty concentrating 4. All of the above 17. If a patient wants to quit smoking, nicotine replacement therapy is recommended if the patient: 1.Smokes more than 10 cigarettes a day 2.Smokes within 30 minutes of awakening in the morning 3.Smokes when drinking alcohol 4.All of the above 18. Instructions for a patient who is starting nicotine replacement therapy include: 1.Smoke less than 10 cigarettes a day when starting nicotine replacement. 2.Nicotine replacement will help with the withdrawal cravings associated with quitting tobacco. 3.Nicotine replacement can be used indefinitely. 4.Nicotine replacement therapy is generally safe for all patients. 19. Nicotine replacement therapy should not be used in which patients? 1.Pregnant women 2.Patients with worsening angina pectoris 3.Patients who have just suffered an acute myocardial infarction 4. All of the above Page 7 of 41 10 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 2.Nicotine replacement products should not be used with bupropion. 3.If they smoke when taking bupropion they may have increased anxiety and insomnia. 4.Because they are not using bupropion as an antidepressant, they do not need to worry about increased suicide ideation when starting therapy. Page 10 of 41 11 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 27. Varenicline (Chantix) may be prescribed for tobacco cessation. Instructions to the patient who is starting varenicline include: 1.The maximum time varenicline can be used is 12 weeks. 2.Nausea is a sign of varenicline toxicity and should be reported to the provider. 3.The starting regimen for varenicline is start taking 1 mg twice a day a week before the quit date. 4.Neuropsychiatric symptoms may occur. 28. The most appropriate smoking cessation prescription for pregnant women is: 1.A nicotine replacement patch at the lowest dose available 2.Bupropion (Zyban) 3.Varenicline (Chantix) 4.Nonpharmacologic measures 29. Charlie is a 65-year-old male who has been diagnosed with hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Doxazosin has been chosen to treat his hypertension because it: 1.Increases peripheral vasoconstriction 2.Decreases detrusor muscle contractility 3.Lowers supine blood pressure more than standing pressure 4. Relaxes smooth muscle in the bladder neck 30. To reduce potential adverse effects, patients taking a peripherally acting alpha1 antagonist should do all of the following EXCEPT: Page 11 of 41 12 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 1.Take the dose at bedtime 2.Sit up slowly and dangle their feet before standing 3.Monitor their blood pressure and skip a dose if the pressure is less than 120/80 4.Weigh daily and report weight gain of greater than 2 pounds in one day 31. John has clonidine, a centrally acting adrenergic blocker, prescribed for his hypertension. He should: 1.Not miss a dose or stop taking the drug because of potential rebound hypertension 2.Increase fiber in the diet to treat any diarrhea that may occur 3.Reduce fluid intake to less than 2 liters per day to prevent fluid retention 4.Avoid sitting for long periods, as this can lead to deep vein thrombosis 32. Clonidine has several off-label uses, including: 1.Alcohol and nicotine withdrawal 2.Post-herpetic neuralgia 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 33. Jim is being treated for hypertension. Because he has a history of heart attack, the drug chosen is atenolol. Beta blockers treat hypertension by: 1.Increasing heart rate to improve cardiac output 2. Page 12 of 41 15 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 3.Effects on the male genitalia, which may produce impotence 4.None of the above 38. Beta blockers have favorable effects on survival and disease progression in heart failure. Treatment should be initiated when the: 1.Symptoms are severe 2.Patient has not responded to other therapies 3.Patient has concurrent hypertension 4.Lef t ventricular dysfunction is diagnosed 39. Abrupt withdrawal of beta blockers can be life threatening. Patients at highest risk for serious consequences of rapid withdrawal are those with: 1.Angina 2.Coronary artery disease 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 40. To prevent life-threatening events from rapid withdrawal of a beta blocker: 1.The dosage interval should be increased by 1 hour each day. 2.An alpha blocker should be added to the treatment regimen before withdrawal. 3.The dosage should be tapered over a period of weeks. 4.The dosage should be decreased by one-half every 4 days. Page 15 of 41 16 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 41. Beta blockers are prescribed for diabetics with caution because of their ability to produce hypoglycemia and block the common symptoms of it. Which of the following symptoms of hypoglycemia is not blocked by these drugs and so can be used to warn diabetics of possible decreased blood glucose? 1.Dizziness 2.Increased heart rate 3.Nervousness and shakiness 4. Diaphoresis 42. Combined alpha-beta antagonists are used to reduce the progression of heart failure because they: 1.Vasodilate the peripheral vasculature 2.Decrease cardiac output 3.Increase renal vascular resistance 4.Reduce atherosclerosis secondary to elevated serum lipoproteins 43. Carvedilol is heavily metabolized by CYP2D6 and 2C9, resulting in drug interactions with which of the following drug classes? 1.Histamine 2 blockers 2.Quinolones 3.Serotonin re-uptake inhibitors 4. All of the above 44. Alpha-beta blockers are especially effective to treat hypertension for which ethnic group? Page 16 of 41 17 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 1.White 2.Asian 3.African American 4.Native American 45. Bethanechol: 1.Increases detrusor muscle tone to empty the bladder 2.Decreases gastric acid secretion to treat peptic ulcer disease 3.Stimulates voluntary muscle tone to improve strength 4.Reduces bronchial airway constriction to treat asthma 46. Clinical dosing of Bethanechol: 1.Begins at the highest effective dose to obtain a rapid response 2.Starts at 5 mg to 10 mg PO and is repeated every hour until a satisfactory clinical response is achieved 3.Requires dosing only once daily 4.Is the same for both the oral and parenteral route 47. Patients who need to remain alert are taught to avoid which drug due to its antimuscarinic effects? 1.Levothyroxine 2.Prilosec 3.Dulcolax Page 17 of 41 20 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 4.Stimulation of the locus coeruleus Page 20 of 41 21 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 55. Nicotine gum products are: 1.Chewed to release the nicotine and then swallowed for a systemic effect 2."Parked" in the buccal area of the mouth to produce a constant amount of nicotine release 3. Bound to exchange resins so the nicotine is only released during chewing 4. Approximately the same in nicotine content as smoking two cigarettes 56. Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT): 1.Is widely distributed in the body only when the gum products are used 2.Does not cross the placenta and so is safe for pregnant women 3. Delays healing of esophagitis and peptic ulcers 4. Has no drug interactions when a transdermal patch is used 57. Success rates for smoking cessation using NRT: 1.Are about the same regardless of the method chosen 2. Vary from 40% to 50% at 12 months 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 58. Cholinergic blockers are used to: 1.Counteract the extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) effects of phenothiazines 2.Control tremors and relax smooth muscle in Parkinson's disease 3.Inhibit the muscarinic action of ACh Page 21 of 41 22 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers on bladder muscle 4. All of the above 59. Several classes of drugs have interactions with cholinergic blockers. Which of the following is true about these interactions? 1.Drugs with a narrow therapeutic range given orally may not stay in the GI tract long enough to produce an action. 2.Additive antimuscarinic effects may occur with antihistamines. 3.Cholinergic blockers may decrease the sedative effects of hypnotics. 4.Cholinergic blockers are contraindicated with antipsychotics. 60. Scopolamine can be used to prevent the nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness. The patient is taught to: 1.Apply the transdermal disk at least 4 hours before the antiemetic effect is desired. 2. Swallow the tablet 1 hour before traveling where motion sickness is possible. 3. Place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve. 4. Change the transdermal disk daily for maximal effect. 61. You are managing the care of a patient recently diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). He is taking tamsulosin but reports dizziness when standing abruptly. The best option for this patient is: 1.Continue the tamsulosin because the side effect will resolve with continued treatment. 2. Discontinue the tamsulosin and start doxazosin. 3. Have him double his fluid intake and stand more slowly. Page 22 of 41 25 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers centers in the brain. 1.Vasodilation 2.Vasoconstriction 3.Cardiovascular 4.Respiratory 66. Sarah, a 42-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include: 1.Understanding that obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine 2. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for 6 months 3. Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension 4. Renal function should be monitored closely while on anorexiants 67. Before prescribing phentermine to Sarah, a thorough drug history should be taken including assessing for the use of serotonergic agents such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and St John's wort due to: 1.Additive respiratory depression risk 2.Additive effects affecting liver function 3. The risk of serotonin syndrome 4. The risk of altered cognitive functioning 68. Antonia is a 3-year-old child who has a history of status epilepticus. Along with her routine antiseizure medication, she should also have a home prescription for to be Page 25 of 41 26 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers used for an episode of status epilepticus. 1.IV phenobarbital Page 26 of 41 27 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 2.Rectal diazepam (Diastat) 3.IV phenytoin (Dilantin) 4.Oral carbamazepine (Tegretol) 69. Rabi is being prescribed phenytoin for seizures. Monitoring includes assessing: 1. For phenytoin hypersensitivity syndrome 3 to 8 weeks after starting treatment 2.For pedal edema throughout therapy 3.Heart rate at each visit and consider altering therapy if heart rate is less than 60 bpm 4.For vision changes, such as red-green blindness, at least annually 70. Dwayne has recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels include: 1.Dwayne hasn't been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia. 2.Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance. 3.Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine. 4.Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne. 71. Carbamazepine has a Black Box Warning due to life- threatening: Page 27 of 41 30 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 2.Consult with a neurologist, as this is not a common adverse effect of topiramate. 3.Decrease her dose of topiramate. 4.Reassure her that this is a normal side effect of topiramate and continue to monitor her weight. 76. Monitoring of a patient on gabapentin to treat seizures includes: 1.Routine therapeutic drug levels every 3 to 4 months 2.Assessing for dermatologic reactions, including Steven's Johnson 3.Routine serum electrolytes, especially in hot weather 4. Recording seizure frequency, duration, and severity 77. Scott's seizures are well controlled on topiramate and he wants to start playing baseball. Education for Scott regarding his topiramate includes: 1.He should not play sports due to the risk of increased seizures 2.He should monitor his temperature and ability to sweat in the heat while playing 3.Reminding him that he may need higher dosages of topiramate when exercising 4.Encouraging him to use sunscreen due to photosensitivity from topiramate 78. Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes reminding her: 1.To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to risk for Page 30 of 41 31 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers withdrawal seizures 2.To wear sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam 3.To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam 4.To report weight loss if it occurs 79. Levetiracetam has known drug interactions with: 1.Combined oral contraceptives 2.Carbamazepine 3.Warfarin 4.Few, if any, drugs 80. Zainab is taking lamotrigine (Lamictal) and presents to the clinic with fever and lymphadenopathy. Initial evaluation and treatment includes: 1.Reassuring her she has a viral infection and to call if she isn't better in 4 or 5 days 2. Ruling out a hypersensitivity reaction that may lead to multi-organ failure 3. Rapid strep test and symptomatic care if strep test is negative 4. Observation only, with further assessment if she worsens 81. Samantha is taking lamotrigine (Lamictal) for her seizures and requests a prescription for combined oral contraceptives (COCs), which interact with lamotrigine and may cause: 1.Contraceptive failure 2.Excessive weight gain 3.Reduced lamotrigine levels, requiring doubling the dose of lamotrigine Page 31 of 41 32 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 4.Induction of estrogen metabolism, requiring higher estrogen content OCs be prescribed 82. The tricyclic antidepressants should be prescribed cautiously in patients with: 1.Eczema Page 32 of 41 35 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers given with a phenothiazine to: 1.Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia Page 35 of 41 36 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 2.Potentiate the effects of the drug 3.Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur 4.Increase central nervous system (CNS) depression 89. Patients who are prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa) should be monitored for: 1.Insomnia 2.Weight gain 3.Hypertension 4.Galactorrhea 90. A 19-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including: 1.Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation 2.Excessive weight gain 3.Hypertension 4.Potentially fatal agranulocytosis 91. In choosing a benzodiazepam to treat anxiety the prescriber needs to be aware of the possibility of dependence. The benzodiazepam with the greatest likelihood of rapidly developing dependence is: 1.Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) 2.Clonazepam (Klonopin) 3. Alprazolam (Xanax) 4. Oxazepam (Serax) Page 36 of 41 37 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 92. A patient with anxiety and depression may respond to: 1.Duloxetine (Cymbalta) 2.Fluoxetine (Prozac) 3.Oxazepam (Serax) 4.Buspirone (Buspar) and an SSRI combined 93. When prescribing temazepam (Restoril) for insomnia, patient education includes: 1.Take temazepam nightly approximately 15 minutes before bedtime. 2.Temazepam should not be used more than three times a week for less than 3 months. 3.Drinking 1 ounce of alcohol will cause additive effects and the patient will sleep better. 4.Exercise for at least 30 minutes within 2 hours of bedtime to enhance the effects of temazepam. 94. Patients should be instructed regarding the rapid onset of zolpidem (Ambien) because: 1.Zolpidem should be taken just before going to bed. 2.Zolpidem may cause dry mouth and constipation. 3.Patients may need to double the dose for effectiveness. 4.They should stop drinking alcohol at least 30 minutes before taking zolpidem. 95. One major drug used to treat bipolar disease is lithium. Because lithium has a narrow therapeutic range, it is important to recognize symptoms of toxicity, such as: 1.Orthostatic hypotension Page 37 of 41 40 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers 102. Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder Page 40 of 41 41 NR 508Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 4 Full Exam with Verified Answers 2023/24 Latest Complete Solutions Questions and Answers (ADHD) includes: 1.ADHD symptoms 2.Routine height and weight checks 3.Amount of methylphenidate being used 4. All of the above 103. When prescribing Adderall (amphetamine and dextroamphetamine) to adults with ADHD the nurse practitioner will need to monitor: 1.Blood pressure 2.Blood glucose levels 3.Urine ketone levels 4.Liver function 5. Page 41 of 41