NR 511 final EXIT EXAM|LATEST VERSION |NEW UPDATE |GUARANTEED PASS|2024- 2025, Exams of Nursing

Download NR 511 final EXIT EXAM|LATEST VERSION |NEW UPDATE |GUARANTEED PASS|2024- 2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NR511 final EXIT EXAM|LATEST VERSION |NEW UPDATE |GUARANTEED PASS|2024- 2025 |BEST STUDYING MATERIAL 100 QUESTIONS Julia asks how smoking increases the risk of folic acid deficiency. You respond that smoking: - ANSWER Decreases Vit C absorption What is the goal of nursing research? A. Make decisions regarding nursing education based on published literature B. Determine topics that could develop nursing knowledge C. Gather information from published literature to make decisions about application to clinical practice D. Conduct studies to develop a body of nursing knowledge - ANSWER D. Conduct studies to develop a body of nursing knowledge Which is the most important question to ask in evidence-based practice? A. What findings constitute evidence? B. How will the findings be used? C. Is this a randomized controlled trial? D. What theory is being utilized? - ANSWER B. How will the findings be used? Nursing research should be utilized by: A. Nurses at the bedside B. Advanced practice nurses C. Nurse researchers D. Nurses at all levels of practice - ANSWER D. Nurses at all levels of practice A clinical guideline may be found useful if the guideline was: A. Published 2 years ago B. Created using one group C. Authored by a relatively unknown source D. Funded by an anonymous source - ANSWER A. Published 2 years ago Practice guidelines are designed to: A. Be inflexible B. Be utilized in every circumstance C. Provide a reference point for decision making D. Be created by a professional organization to guide the practice of a profession - ANSWER c. Provide a reference point for decision making. Which of the following is an example of determining whether a crucial element of a guideline is applicable to your patients? A. There are no intended specific patients in the guideline. B. You are a primary-care provider and the guidelines were written for primary-care providers. C. Your patients have a much lower prevalence of a condition than the patients in the guideline. D. Single descriptive or qualitative study - ANSWER B. Opinion of authorities and expert committees Identify the primary challenge for insurance carriers in today's health delivery model. A. Preventing illness B. Screening for disease C. Educating the public D. Reducing health-care spending - ANSWER D. Reducing health-care spending Medicare benefits were offered to U.S. beneficiaries beginning in 1965. What was the service added with the Medicare D plan in 2006? A. Health-care screening B. Health-care education C. Pharmaceutical coverage D. Durable medical equipment coverage - ANSWER C. Pharmaceutical coverage The cost of care provided by an APRN is approximately: A. One-quarter that of a physician B. One-third that of a physician C. One-half that of a physician D. One and one-half that of a physician - ANSWER C. One-half that of a physician How do bundled payments differ from fee-for-service or global capitation? A. Bundled payments are designed to reduce the number of payments to providers. B. Bundled payments align payment to care outcomes delivered by the team. C. Bundled payments reduce the amount of paperwork required for payment. D. Bundled payments allow for streamlined and coordinated billing for providers. - ANSWER B. Bundled payments align payment to care outcomes delivered by the team. Which of the following tests is the most specific for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis? - ANSWER Anticyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP). 2 Caroline, 65, is homeless and has iron deficiency anemia. She smokes and drinks when she can and has a stomach ulcer. Which of the following is not one of her risk factors for iron deficiency anemia - ANSWER Smoking . Which of the following white blood cell types are elevated in parasitic infections, hypersensitivity reactions, and autoimmune disorders? - ANSWER eosinophils Skip, age 4, is brought to the office by his mother. His symptoms are pallor, fatigue, bleeding, fever, bone pain, adenopathy, arthralgias, and hepatosplenomegaly. You refer him to a specialist. Which of the following tests do you expect the specialist to perform to confirm a diagnosis? - ANSWER A bone marrow smear Barbara, age 27, had her spleen removed after an automobile accident. You are seeing her in the office for the first time since her discharge from the hospital. She asks you how her surgery will affect her in the future. How do you - ANSWER "You may have difficulty salvaging iron from old red blood cells for reuse." When the donor and recipient of a transplant are identical twins, this is referred to as what type of transplant? - ANSWER isograft . You are examining Joseph, age 9 months, and note a palpable right supraclavicular lymph node. You know that this finding is suspicious for: - ANSWER Lymphoma of the mediastinum. Samuel, age 5, is receiving radiation therapy for his acute lymphoblastic leukemia. This treatment puts him at increased risk of developing which type of cancer as a secondary malignancy when he becomes an adult? - ANSWER Brain Tumor Julie's brother has chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). She overheard that he was in stage IV and asks what this means. According to the Rai classification system, stage IV is a stage: - ANSWER Of thrombocytopenia in which the life expectancy may be only 2 years Macrocytic normochromic anemias are caused by: - ANSWER A deficiency of folic acid A 28-year-old female presents to your primary care office for an annual physical. She denies any complaints other than heavy menstrual bleeding, which is something she has experienced her whole life. On routine complete blood count (CBC) evaluation, her hemoglobin is 11.0. Other pertinent values include a decreased serum ferritin and elevated total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). Her mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is 75. Which of the following is the likely cause of her anemia? - ANSWER Iron deficiency anemia Your client Shirley has an elevated mean corpuscular volume (MCV). What should you be considering in terms of diagnosis? - ANSWER liver disease physical exam, you notice multiple areas of bruising. His throat is not erythematous, and no exudates are seen. He has palpable splenomegaly, and his rapid strep and mono tests are negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? - ANSWER Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) Your client Mrs. Young, age 64, is here to see you because she has pain in her left breast. She reports no pain in her right breast and no noted lesions or masses on breast self-exam, which she performs monthly. You know that: - ANSWER She must be sent for mammogram as soon as possible A 30-year-old male nurse presents to the emergency department. He was stuck with a needle yesterday while working and found out today that the patient involved in the needle stick is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive. What is the time window for starting postexposure prophylaxis to help prevent the transmission of HIV - ANSWER 72 hours Jill has just been given a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and has a normal initial Pap smear. When do the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines state she should have a repeat Pap test? - ANSWER in 6 months Stu, age 49, has slightly reduced hemoglobin and hematocrit readings. What is your next action after you ask him about his diet? - ANSWER Perform a fecal occult blood test Which of the following conditions is an X-linked recessive disorder commonly seen in African American males? - ANSWER Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency 6. Ms. Jones, your client, has an elevated platelet count. You suspect: - ANSWER Splenectomy Which of the following is the most common type of leukemia in the United States? - ANSWER Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). Joan had a modified radical mastectomy with radiation therapy 10 years ago. She asks when she can have her blood pressure and needle sticks performed in the affected arm. How do you respond? - ANSWER "You must observe these precautions forever" is the best serum test for spotting an iron deficiency early, before it progresses to full-blown anemia - ANSWER ferritin Which of the following is not considered an AIDS-defining condition? - ANSWER A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive patient with 1 episode of bacterial pneumonia and a CD4 count greater than 500 Robin has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and is having a problem with massive diarrhea. You suspect the cause is: - ANSWER Cryptosporidiosis In which of the following circumstances is the reticulocyte count elevated? - ANSWER acute blood loss Jimmy, age 6 months, is newly diagnosed with sickle cell disease. His mother brings him to the clinic for a well-baby visit. Which of the following should you do on this visit? - ANSWER Immunize Jimmy with the diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (DTaP); Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib); hepatitis B virus (HBV); and poliomyelitis vaccines. Your client Jeannie, age 64, comes to you complaining of tinnitus and lightheadedness without loss of consciousness. On physical exam, you note splenomegaly. To sort out your differential diagnosis, you order an alkaline phosphatase and vitamin B12 level because you are ruling out a diagnosis of: - ANSWER Polycythemia vera Which of the following is the most common cause of megaloblastic anemia? - ANSWER pernicious anemia . Mrs. Jameson complains of unilateral blurry vision and partial blindness in the left eye. On physical examination, you find decreased peripheral vision on her left side. Funduscopic examination reveals cotton wool spots. Your most likely diagnosis is - ANSWER Cytomegalovirus infection. . Nancy recently had a mastectomy and refuses to look at the site. Her husband does all the dressing changes. When she comes in to the office for a postoperative checkup, what would you say to her? - ANSWER "You have to accept this eventually; just glance at it today. Allie, age 5, is being treated with radiation for cancer. Her mother asks about the effect radiation will have on Allie's future growth. Although she knows that a specialist will be handling Allie's care, her mother asks for your opinion. How do you respond? - ANSWER "She will probably have growth hormone problems, in which case she can then begin growth hormone therapy." Despite successful primary prophylaxis, which infection remains a common AIDS-defining diagnosis - ANSWER Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia Which hypersensitivity reaction results in a skin test that produces erythema and edema within 3 to 8 hours? - ANSWER Immune complex-mediated reaction Shelley has esophageal cancer and asks you if cigarettes and alcohol played a part in its development. How do you respond? - ANSWER "Alcohol modifies the metabolism of carcinogens in the esophagus and increases their effectiveness." Sally has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and asks which method of birth control, other than abstinence, would be best for her. You suggest: - ANSWER latex condoms Mandy's 16-year-old daughter has hepatitis A. Which of the following statements made by Mandy indicates she understands the teaching you've just completed? - ANSWER "We'll stop at the store and buy plastic eating utensils." B. MCOs can independently determine whether to utilize certain CPT code rules and/or the reimbursement values for the payment year. C. MCOs can create personalized CPT codes. D. MCOs must continue to use modifiers. - ANSWER B. MCOs can independently determine whether to utilize certain CPT code rules and/or the reimbursement values for the payment year. All medical practices are required by the CMS to adopt a certified electronic medical record software system for documenting and billing for medical services. Why is this so critical? A. Electronic software allows CMS to audit all medical practices' performance. B. Electronic filing protects patient information as required by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. C. Electric billing and automated electronic filing sets makes timely transition to new provider fee schedule rates possible. D. Medical record software eliminates the possibility for duplicate bills and overcharging patients. - ANSWER C. Electric billing and automated electronic filing sets makes timely transition to new provider fee schedule rates possible. All health-care practices should develop a compliance plan. Compliance plans offer practice safeguards that prevent which of the following? A. Malpractice claims B. Conflict-of-interest claims C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act violations D. Safety and Health Administration violations - ANSWER B. Conflict-of-interest claims What is the purpose of an Evaluation and Management Audit Tool? A. To justify CPT coding B. To provide guidelines for CMS review C. To assist in estimating profit/loss for patient visits D. To allow hospitals to comply with CMS guidelines - ANSWER A. To justify CPT coding Each state has criteria defining the level of collaboration required between the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) and an oversight physician. Which is among the questions an APRN should seek when selecting a practice setting? A. List of practice limitations as an APRN B. Standard hourly rate as office staff C. Expectation for net revenue generation D. Standard benefit package offered to office staff - ANSWER C. Expectation for net revenue generation Identify one of the primary reasons for an APRN to develop a business plan: A. To monitor monthly actual expense to budgeted expense B. To reduce the likelihood of litigation action C. To identify the marketing needed to grow the APRN practice D. To assure accreditation standards are met - ANSWER C. To identify the marketing needed to grow the APRN practice Despite the growth in the numbers of APRNs over the last decades, the role of the profession is often not understood by the public. What actions should APRNs undertake to market their services to the public? A. Request that the physician act as an APRN spokesperson. B. Increase articles in nursing professional journals about the APRN role. C. Personally seek out the news media to communicate their value. D. Rely on patients to communicate their benefits to neighbors. - ANSWER C. Personally seek out the news media to communicate their value. Phases of diagnostic reasoning - ANSWER -data acquisition -hypothesis formation -hypothesis evaluation -problem naming -goal setting -therapeutic option consideration -evaluation Subjective data - ANSWER CC, HPI, PMH, Social, ROS Objective data - ANSWER physical assessment findings Assessment - ANSWER DDX Plan - ANSWER diagnostics, meds, follow-up, and referral Medical billing - ANSWER process of submitting claims to receive payment Medical coding - ANSWER codes to communicate procedures performed and why Common Procedure Terminology (CPT) - ANSWER recognized universally. Service is represented by a 5 digit code in: Evaluation andMGMT, Anesthesiology, Surgery, Radiology, and Patho and Medicine Medical coding ICD-10 - ANSWER shorthand for diagnosis *every CPT must have a diagnosis specificity predictive value prioritizing complaints - ANSWER Requires a pt-centered approach, not enough time to address everything Fee for Service - ANSWER A model that is structured so a provider is given a set amount of monetary reimbursement for a specific visit/procedure performed that is adjusted for geographical location Public payers - ANSWER Government agencies (Medicare/Medicaid) Private payers - ANSWER insurance companies Global Capitation - ANSWER Global capitation is a payment model specifically for integrated health care delivery. In this model, capitation payment for services delivered by different providers or at different levels of care is combined into a single prospective payment to an integrated care organization or a large physician group. insurance exchange - ANSWER allows citizens to select a plan that meets their financial and health needs Accountable Care Organizations - ANSWER groups of providers—providers, hospitals, outpatient-care facilities—that come together to coordinate the care of patients, seeking to offer a high quality of care at a lower cost Medicaid - ANSWER offers medical assistance to individuals and families with low incomes and limited resources Past medical history - ANSWER childhood and other illnesses surgical history other hospital admissions history of trauma pregnancies psychiatric diagnoses randomized controlled trial - ANSWER an experiment in which participants are randomly assigned to different conditions for the purpose of examining the effectiveness of an intervention Specificity of a test - ANSWER equal to the number of true negatives divided by the number of all tested individuals who do not have the disease.