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NR 566 Test Bank Questions for
Weeks 5-7- with 100% verified
answers-2024-
Week 5: Ch. 18, 19, 27,
Week 6: Ch. 22, 31, 38, 44
Week 7: 48, 49, 50, 51
Week 5 Ch. 18 Drugs Affecting the Hematopoietic System
- Kenneth is taking warfarin and is asking about what he can take for minor aches and pains. The bestrecommendation is: A. Ibuprofen 400 mg three times a day B. Acetaminophen, not to exceed 4 grams per day C. Prescribe acetaminophen with codeine D. Aspirin 640 mg three times a day
- Juanita had a DVT and was on heparin in the hospital and was discharged on warfarin. She asksher primary care provider NP why she was getting both medications while in the hospital. The best response is to: A. Contact the hospitalist as this is not the normal guideline for proscribing these twomedications and she may have had a more complicated case B. Explain that warfarin is often started while a patient is still on heparin becausewarfarin takes a few days to reach effectiveness C. Encourage the patient to contact the Customer Service department at the hospitalas this was most likely a medication error during her admission D. Draw anticoagulation studies to make sure she does not have dangerously highbleeding times
- The safest drug to use to treat pregnant women who require anticoagulant therapy is: A. Low molecular weight heparin B. Warfarin C. Aspirin D. Heparin
- The average starting dose of warfarin is 5 mg daily. Higher doses of 7.5 mg daily should beconsidered in which patients? A. Pregnant women B. Elderly men C. Overweight or obese patients D. Patients with multiple comorbidities
- Cecil and his wife are traveling to Southeast Asia on vacation and he has come into the clinic toreview his medications. He is healthy with only mild hypertension that is well
controlled. He asks about getting “a shot” to prevent blood clots like his friend Ralph did before international travel. The correct respond would be: A. Administer one dose of low-molecular weight heparin 24 hours before travel B. Prescribe one dose of warfarin to be taken the day of travel C. Consult with a hematologist regarding a treatment plan for Cecil D. Explain that Cecil is not at high risk of a blood clot and provide education about
how to prevent blood clots while traveling
- Robert, age 51 years, has been told by his primary care provider (PCP) to take an aspirin a day. Why would this be recommended? A. He has arthritis and this will help with the inflammation and pain. B. Aspirin has anti-platelet activity and prevents clots that cause heart attacks. C. Aspirin acidifies the urine and he needs this for prostrate health. D. He has a history of GI bleed, and one aspirin a day is a safe dose.
- Sally has been prescribed aspirin 320 mg per day for her atrial fibrillation. She also takes aspirinfour or more times a day for arthritis pain. What are the symptoms of aspirin toxicity she would need to be evaluated for: A. Tinnitus B. Diarrhea C. Hearing loss D. Photosensitivity
- Patient education when prescribing clopidogrel includes: A. Do not take any herbal products without discussing with the provider B. Monitor urine output closely and contact the provider if it decreases C. Clopidogrel can be constipating, use a stool softener if needed D. The patient will need regular anticoagulant studies while on clopidogrel
- For patients taking warfarin INRs are best drawn: A. Monthly throughout therapy B. Three times a week throughout therapy C. Two hours after the last dose of warfarin to get an accurate peak level D. In the morning if the patient takes their warfarin at night
- Patients receiving heparin therapy require monitoring of: A. Platelets every 2 to 3 days for thrombocytopenia that may occur on Day 4 of therapy B. Electrolytes for elevated potassium levels in the first 24 hours of therapy C. INR throughout therapy to keep in the range around 2. D. Blood pressure for hypertension that may occur in the first 2 days of treatment
- The routine monitoring recommended for low molecular weight heparin is: A. INR every 2 days until stable then weekly B. aPTT every week while on therapy C. Factor Xa levels if patient is pregnant D. White blood cell count every 2 weeks
- When writing a prescription for warfarin it is common to writeon the prescription. A. OK to substitute for generic B. The brand name of warfarin and Do Not Substitute C. PRN refills D. Refills for 1 year
- Education of patients who are taking warfarin includes discussing their diet. Instructions include:
A. Avoiding all vitamin K-containing foods B. Avoiding high vitamin K-containing foods C. Increasing intake of iron-containing foods D. Making sure they eat 35 grams of fiber daily
- Patients who are being treated with epoetin alfa need to be monitored for the development of: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Neutropenia C. Hypertension D. Gout
- The FDA issued a safety announcement regarding the use of erythropoiesis- stimulating agents(ESAs) in 2010 with the recommendation that: A. ESAs no longer be prescribed to patients with chronic renal failure B. The risk of tumor development be explained to cancer patients on ESA therapy C. Patients should no longer receive ESA therapy to prepare for allogenic transfusions D. ESAs be prescribed only to patients younger than age 60 years
- When patients are started on darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp) they need monitoring of their bloodcounts to determine a dosage adjustment in: A. 6 weeks if they are a cancer patient B. 1 week if they have chronic renal failure C. 2 weeks if taking for allogenic transfusion D. Weekly throughout therapy
- Jim is having a hip replacement surgery and would like to self-donate blood for the surgery. Inaddition to being prescribed epogen alpha he should also be prescribed: A. Folic acid to prevent megaloblastic anemia B. Iron, to start when the epogen starts C. An antihypertensive to counter the adverse effects of epogen D. Vitamin B 12 to prevent pernicious anemia
- Monitoring for a patient being prescribed iron for iron deficiency anemia includes: A. Reticulocyte count 1 week after therapy is started B. Complete blood count every 2 weeks throughout therapy C. Hemoglobin level at 1 week of therapy D. INR weekly throughout therapy
- Patient education regarding taking iron replacements includes: A. Doubling the dose if they miss a dose to maintain therapeutic levels B. Taking the iron with milk or crackers if it upsets their stomach C. Iron is best taken on an empty stomach with juice D. Antacids such as Tums may help the upset stomach caused by iron therapy
- Patients with pernicious anemia require treatment with: A. Iron
B. Folic acid C. Epogen alpha D. Vitamin^ B 12
The first lab value indication that Vitamin B 12 therapy is adequately treating pernicious anemia is: A. Hematocrit levels start to rise B. Hemoglobin levels return to normal C. Reticulocyte count begins to rise D. Vitamin B 12 levels return to normal
Patients who are beginning therapy with Vitamin B 12 need to be monitored for: A. Hypertensive crisis that may occur in the first 36 hours B. Hypokalemia that occurs in the first 48 hours C. Leukopenia that occurs at 1 to 3 weeks of therapy D. Thrombocytopenia that may occur at any time in therapy Week 5 Chapter 19: Drugs Affecting the Immune System Attenuated vaccines are also known as: A. Killed vaccines B. Booster vaccines C. Inactivated vaccines D. Live vaccines
Live attenuated influenza vaccine (FluMist) may be administered to: A. All patients over 6 months of age B. Patients between age 2 years and 49 years with no risk factors C. Patients with a URI or asthma D. Pregnant women
The reason that two MMR vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is: A. The second dose of MMR “boosts” the immunity built from the first dose B. Two vaccines 1 month apart is the standard dosing for all live virus vaccines C. If the two MMR vaccine doses are given too close together there is a greaterlikelihood of severe localized reaction to the vaccine D. Only 95% of patients are fully immunized for measles after the first vaccine, with 99% having immunity after two doses of MMR
MMR vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women because: A. Pregnant women do not build adequate immunity to the vaccine B. There is a risk of the pregnant women developing measles encephalopathy C. There is a risk of the fetus developing congenital rubella syndrome D. Pregnant women can receive the MMR vaccine
If the MMRV (measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella) combined vaccine is ordered to be givenas the first MMR and varicella dose to a child the CDC recommends: A. Parents be informed of the increased risk of fever and febrile seizures over the MMR plus varicella 2 shot regimen
B. Patients must also receive MMRV as the second dose of MMR and varicella inorder to build adequate immunity C. Patients be premedicated with acetaminophen 15 minutes before the vaccine isgiven
D. Patients should not be around pregnant women for the first 48 hours after thevaccine is given
- The rotavirus vaccine (RotaTeq, Rotarix): A. Is a live vaccine that replicates in the small intestine, providing active immunityagainst rotavirus B. Should not be administered to infants who are or may be potentiallyimmunocompromised C. Is not given to an infant who has a febrile illness (temperature greater than100.5°F) D. All of the above
- Varicella vaccine is recommended to be given to patients who are: A. HIV positive with a CD4+ T-lymphocyte percentage less than 15 percent B. Taking corticosteroids (up to 2 mg/kg/day or less than 20 mg/day) C. Pregnant D. Immunocompromised
- Zoster vaccine (Zostavax) is: A. A live varicella zoster vaccine from the same strain used to develop the varicella vaccine B. Effective in preventing varicella zoster in patients of all ages C. Recommended for patients age 40 to 80 who have had chickenpox D. Administered at the same time as other live vaccines, as long as they are given thesame day
- True contraindications to diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP or Tdap) vaccine include: A. Fever up to 104°F (40.5°C) after previous DTaP vaccine B. Family history of seizures after DTaP vaccine C. Adolescent pregnancy D. Anaphylactic reaction with a previous dose
- Hepatitis B vaccine (HBV) is contraindicated in patients who: A. Were born less than 32 weeks gestation (give first dose at age 6 months) B. Are pregnant C. Are on hemodialysis D. Are allergic to yeast
- Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine (Gardasil, Cervarix): A. Is a live virus vaccine that provides immunity to six strains of HPV virus B. Has a common adverse effect of syncope within 15 minutes of giving the vaccine C. Should not be given to males younger than age 12 years D. May be given to pregnant women
- Influenza vaccine may be administered annually to: A. Patients with egg allergy B. Pregnant patients C. Patients age 6 weeks or older
D. Patients with acute febrile illness
- Immune globulin serums (IGs): A. Provide active immunity against infectious diseases B. Are contraindicated during pregnancy C. Are heated to above body temperature to kill most hepatitis, HIV, and other virusessuch as parvovirus D. Are derived from pooled plasma of adults and contain specific antibodies inproportion to the donor population
- Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) is administered to provide passive immunity to: A. Infants born to HBsAg-positive mothers B. Household contacts of hepatitis-B virus infected people C. Persons exposed to blood containing hepatitis B virus D. All of the above
- Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is given to: A. Infants born to women who are Rh positive B. Sexual partners of Rh positive women C. Rh negative women after a birth, miscarriage, or abortion D. Rh negative women at 36 weeks gestation
- Tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD): A. Is administered to patients who are known tuberculin-positive reactors B. May be administered to patients who are on immunosuppressives C. May be administered 2 to 3 weeks after an MMR or varicella vaccine D. May be administered the same day as the MMR and/or varicella vaccine
- Diane may benefit from cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Cyclosporin may be prescribed to: A. Treat rheumatoid arthritis B. Treat patients with corn allergy C. Pregnant patients D. Treat patients with liver dysfunction
- Azathioprine has significant adverse drug effects, including: A. Hypertension B. Hirsutism C. Risk of cancer D. Gingival hyperplasia Week 5 Chapter 27 Anemia Pernicious anemia is treated with: A. Folic acid supplement B. Thiamine supplement C. Vitamin B 12 D. Iron
- Premature infants require iron supplementation with: A. 10 mg/day of iron
B. 2 mg/kg per day until age 12 months C. 7 mg/day in diet D. 1 mg/kg per day until adequate intake of iron from foods
- Breastfed infants should receive iron supplementation of: A. 3 mg/kg per day B. 6 mg/kg per day C. 1 mg/kg per day D. Breastfed babies do not need iron supplementation
- Valerie presents to clinic with menorrhagia. Her hemoglobin is 10.2 and her ferritin is 15 ng/mL.Initial treatment for her anemia would be: A. 18 mg/day of iron supplementation B. 6 mg/kg per day of iron supplementation C. 325 mg ferrous sulfate per day D. 325 mg ferrous sulfate TID
- Chee is a 15-month-old male whose screening hemoglobin is 10.4 g/dL. Treatment for hisanemia would be: A. 18 mg/day of iron supplementation B. 6 mg/kg per day of elemental iron C. 325 mg ferrous sulfate per day D. 325 mg ferrous sulfate TID
- Monitoring for a patient taking iron to treat iron deficiency anemia is: A. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and ferritin 4 weeks after treatment is started B. Complete blood count every 4 weeks throughout treatment C. Annual complete blood count D. Reticulocyte count in 4 weeks
- Valerie has been prescribed iron to treat her anemia. Education of patients prescribed iron wouldinclude: A. Take the iron with milk if it upsets her stomach B. Antacids may help with the nausea and GI upset caused by iron C. Increase fluids and fiber to treat constipation D. Iron is best tolerated if it is taken at the same time as her other medications
- Allie has just had her pregnancy confirmed and is asking about how to ensure a healthy baby. What is the folic acid requirement during pregnancy? A. 40 mcg/day B. 400 mcg/day C. 800 mcg/day D. 2 gm/day
- Kyle has Crohn’s disease and has a documented folate deficiency. Drug therapy for folatedeficiency anemia is: A. Oral folic acid 1 to 2 mg per day B. Oral folic acid 1 gram per day C. IM folate weekly for at least 6 months
D. Oral folic acid 400 mcg daily
- Patients who are being treated for folate deficiency require monitoring of: A. Complete blood count every 4 weeks B. Hematocrit and hemoglobin at 1 week and then at 8 weeks C. Reticulocyte count at 1 week D. Folate levels every 4 weeks until hemoglobin stabilizes
- The treatment of vitamin B 12 deficiency is: A. 1 ,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin B. 2 gm per day of oral cobalamin C. 100 mcg/day Vitamin B 12 IM D. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin 2 sprays once a week
- The dosage of Vitamin B 12 to initially treat pernicious anemia is: A. Nasal cyanocobalamin 1 gram spray in each nostril daily x 1 week then weekly x 1month B. Vitamin B 12 IM monthly C. Vitamin B 12 1,000 mcg IM daily x 1 week then 1,000 mg weekly for a month D. Oral cobalamin 1,000 mcg daily
- Before beginning IM Vitamin B 12 therapy, which laboratory values should be obtained? A. Reticulocyte count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit B. Iron C. Vitamin^ B 12 D. All of the above
- should be monitored when Vitamin B 12 therapy is started. A. Serum calcium B. Serum potassium C. Ferritin D. C-reactive protein
- Anemia due to chronic renal failure is treated with: A. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) B. Ferrous sulfate C. Vitamin B 12 D. Hydroxyurea Week 5 Chapter 37: HIV The goals of treatment when prescribing antiretroviral medication to patients with HIV include: A. Prevent vertical HIV transmission B. Improve quality of life C. Prolong survival D. All of the above
- A challenge faced with antiretroviral therapy (ART) is: A. Patients abusing ART B. Drug-resistant mutations of HIV
C. Reduction of transmissibility of HIV D. Lack of efficacy data
- Predictors for successful treatment with antiretroviral therapy (ART) in HIV-positive patientsinclude: A. They respond to low potency treatment regimen B. They have demonstrated resistance in the past and should respond to newer ARTdrugs C. The patient is strictly adherent to the ART treatment regimen D. Lower baseline CD4 T-cell count at baseline
- The goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in HIV-positive patients is: A. Maximum suppression of HIV replication B. Eradication of HIV virus from the body C. Determining a treatment regimen that is free of adverse effects D. Suppression of CD4 T-cell count
- Pregnant women who are HIV positive: A. Are treated with AZT alone to prevent birth defects B. Are treated with a combination ART regimen C. Should not be treated with ART due to teratogenicity of the drugs D. Are at high risk of developing resistance to ART drugs
- Antiretroviral therapy is recommended for HIV-positive patients with: A. A history of AIDS-defining illness B. Pregnant women C. Hepatitis B co-infection D. All of the above
- If considering starting a patient on the nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) abacavir,the following testing is recommended prior to prescribing: A. Renal function B. HLA B*5701 testing C. Pancreatic enzyme levels D. CYP 450 enzyme activity
- Suzanne is pregnant and has tested HIV positive. Which antiretroviral drug should be avoided inwomen who are pregnant? A. Lopinavir/r B. Zidovudine C. Ritonavir D. Lopinavir/ritonavir
- The cost of HIV treatment can be prohibitive for any patient. Patients can receive assistance fromthe: A. Best Pharmaceuticals for HIV/AIDS Patient Act B. Ryan White HIV/AIDS Treatment Modernization Act C. National Institute of Health HIV/AIDS Assistance Fund D. Centers for Disease Control HIV/AIDS Treatment Fund
- Resistance to antiretroviral therapy (ART) is measured by: A. Measuring the DNA viral load in the serum B. Determining plasma viral RNA on two successive measurements C. Phenotype assays of the combination of ART the patient is on D. Elevation of T4 counts
- Phenotype assays are used to measure of antiretroviral therapy (ART). A. Effectiveness B. Genotype C. Sensitivity D. Hypersensitivity susceptibility
- Patient factors that contribute to antiretroviral therapy (ART) failure include: A. Being a male who has sex with males B. HIV diagnosis in pregnancy C. Good compliance with ART treatment regimen D. ART adverse effects
- Patients who are taking antiretroviral therapy (ART) need to have the following monitored: A. Lipid levels B. Sexual functioning C. Platelet count D. All of the above
- Successful antiretroviral therapy (ART) in an HIV-positive patient is determined by: A. Being able to stop ART therapy due to HIV virus eradication B. Lowering HIV viral load to unmeasurable amounts C. Individual measures of success based on their personal situation D. Normal blood hematologic factors Week 6 Chapter 22 Drugs affecting the reproductive system Men who use transdermal testosterone gel (AndroGel) should be advised to avoid: A. Washing their hands after applying the gel B. Wearing occlusive clothing while using the gel C. Exposure to estrogens while using the gel D. Skin-to-skin contact with pregnant women while using the gel
- Education when prescribing androgens to male patients includes: A. Short-term use places the patient at risk for hepatocellular carcinoma B. Cholestatic hepatitis and jaundice may occur with low doses of androgens C. Gynecomastia is a rare occurrence with the use of androgens D. Low sperm levels only occur with long-term use of androgens
- Patients who are prescribed exogenous androgens need to be warned that decreased libido: A. Is an unusual side effect of androgens and should be reported to the provider B. Is treated with increased doses of androgens, so the patient should let the providerknow if he is having problems C. May be a sign of early prostate cancer and he should make an appointment
for a
prostate screening exam D. May occur with androgen therapy
- The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) warns that androgens may cause: A. Peliosis hepatis B. Orthostatic hypotension C. Menstrual irregularities D. Acne
- Monitoring for a patient who is using androgens includes: A. Complete blood count and C-reactive protein level B. Lipid levels and liver function tests C. Serum potassium and magnesium levels D. Urine protein and potassium levels
- Male patients require before and during androgen therapy. A. A digital prostate exam B. A Doppler exam of testicular blood flow C. Urine analysis for proteinuria D. Serial orthostatic blood pressures
- Absolute contraindications to estrogen therapy include: A. History of any type of cancer B. Clotting disorders C. History of tension headache D. Orthostatic hypotension
- Women with an intact uterus should not be prescribed: A. Estrogen/progesterone combination B. IM medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) C. Estrogen alone D. Androgens
- Women who have migraine with aura should not be prescribed estrogen due to: A. The interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices B. An increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen C. An increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use D. Patients with migraines may be prescribed estrogen without any concerns
- A 22-year-old women receives a prescription for oral contraceptives. Education for this patientincludes: A. Counseling regarding decreasing or not smoking while taking oral contraceptives B. Advising a monthly pregnancy test for the first 3 months she is taking thecontraceptive C. She may miss two pills in a row and not be concerned about pregnancy D. Her next follow-up visit is in 1 year for a refill and “annual exam”
- A 19-year-old female is a nasal Staph aureus carrier and is placed on 5 days of rifampin for treatment. Her only other medication is combined oral contraceptives. What education shouldshe receive regarding her medications? A. Separate the oral ingestion of the rifampin and oral contraceptive by at least anhour. B. Both medications are best tolerated if taken on an empty stomach. C. She should use a back-up method of birth control such as condoms for the rest ofthe current pill pack. D. If she gets nauseated with the medications she should call the office for anantiemetic prescription.
- A 56-year-old women is complaining of vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. To treat her symptomswith the lowest adverse effects she should be prescribed: A. Low-dose oral estrogen B. Low-dose estrogen/progesterone combination C. Vaginal estradiol ring D. Vaginal progesterone cream
- Shana is receiving her first medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) injection. Shana will need to bemonitored for: A. Depression B. Hypertension C. Weight loss D. Cataracts
- When prescribing medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) injections, essential education wouldinclude the adverse drug effects of: A. Hypertension and dysuria B. Depression and weight gain C. Abdominal pain and constipation D. Orthostatic hypotension and dermatitis
- Medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) injection has an FDA Black Box warning due to: A. Development of significant hypertension B. Increased risk of strokes when on Depo C. Decreased bone density while on Depo D. Risk of life-threatening rash such as Stevens-Johnson
- Shana received her first medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) injection 6 weeks ago and calls the clinic with a concern that she has been having a light “period” off and on since receiving herDepo shot. What would be the management of Shana? A. Reassurance that some spotting is normal the first few months of Depo and itshould improve. B. Schedule an appointment for an exam as this is not normal. C. Prescribe 4 weeks of estrogen to treat the abnormal vaginal bleeding. D. Order a pregnancy test and suggest she use a back-up method of contraceptionuntil she has her next shot.
- William is a 62-year-old male who is requesting a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). He shouldbe screened for before prescribing sildenafil. A. Renal dysfunction B. Unstable coronary artery disease C. Benign prostatic hypertrophy D. History of priapism
- Men who are prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) need ongoing monitoring for: A. Development of chest pain or dizziness B. Weight gain C. Priapism D. Renal function
- Men who are prescribed an erectile dysfunction drug such as sildenafil (Viagra) should bewarned about the risk for: A. Impotence when combined with antihypertensives B. Fatal hypotension if combined with nitrates C. Weight gain if combined with antidepressants D. All of the above Week 6 Chapter 31 Contraception Women who are taking an oral contraceptive containing the progesterone drospirenone may requiremonitoring of: A. Hemoglobin B. Serum calcium C. White blood count D. Serum potassium
- The mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives which prevents pregnancy is: A. Estrogen prevents the LH surge necessary for ovulation B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility C. Estrogen thins the endometrium making implantation difficult D. Progestin suppresses FSH release
- To improve actual effectiveness of oral contraceptives women should be educated regarding: A. Use of a back-up method if they have vomiting or diarrhea during a pill packet B. Doubling pills if they have diarrhea during the middle of a pill pack C. They will have a normal menstrual cycle if they miss two pills D. Mid-cycle spotting is not normal and the provider should be contacted immediately
- A contraindication to the use of combined contraceptives is: A. Adolescence (not approved for this age) B. A history of clotting disorder C. Recent pregnancy D. Overweight
- Obese women may have increased risk of failure with which contraceptive method?
A. Combined oral contraceptives
B. Progestin-only oral contraceptive pill C. Injectable progestin D. Combined topical patch
- Ashley comes to clinic with a request for oral contraceptives. She has successfully used oral contraceptives before and has recently started dating a new boyfriend so would like to restart contraception. She denies recent intercourse and has a negative urine pregnancy test in the clinic.An appropriate plan of care would be: A. Recommend she return to the clinic at the start of her next menses to get a DepoProvera shot B. Prescribe oral combined contraceptives and recommend she start them at thebeginning of her next period and use a back-up method for the first 7 days C. Prescribe oral contraceptives and have her start them the same day with a back-upmethod used for the first 7 days D. Discuss the advantages of using the topical birth control patch and recommend sheconsider using the patch
- When discussing with a patient the different start methods used for oral combinedcontraceptives, the advantage of a Sunday start over the other start methods is: A. Immediate protection against pregnancy the first week of using the pill B. No back-up method is needed when starting C. Menses occur during the week D. They can start the pill on the Sunday after the office visit
- The topical patch combined contraceptive (Ortho Evra) is: A. Started on the first day of the menstrual cycle B. Recommended for women over 200 pounds C. Is not as effective as oral combined contraceptives D. Has more adverse effects, such as nausea, than the oral combined contraceptives
- Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who: A. Are breastfeeding B. Have a history of migraine C. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen D. All of the above
- Women who are prescribed progestin-only contraception need education regarding whichcommon adverse drug effects? A. Increased migraine headaches B. Increased risk of developing blood clots C. Irregular vaginal bleeding for the first few months D. Increased risk for hypercalcemia
- An advantage of using the NuvaRing vaginal ring for contraception is: A. It does not require fitting and is easy to insert B. It is inserted once a week, eliminating the need to remember to take a daily pill C. Patients get a level of estrogen and progestin equal to combined oral
contraceptives D. All of the above
- Oral emergency contraception (Plan B) is contraindicated in women who: A. Had intercourse within the past 72 hours B. May be pregnant C. Are taking combined oral contraceptives D. Are using a diaphragm Week 6 Chapter 38: Hormone Replacement Therapy and Osteoporosis The goals of therapy when prescribing hormone replacement therapy (HRT) include reducing: A. Cardiovascular risk B. Risk of stroke or other thromboembolic event C. Breast cancer D. Vasomotor symptoms
- The optimal maximum time frame for hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or estrogenreplacement therapy (ERT) is: A. 2 years B. 5 years C. 10 years D. 15 years
- Dosage changes of conjugated equine estrogen (Premarin) are made at intervals. A. 1 to 2 week B. 2 to 4 week C. 6 to 8 week D. 12 week
- The advantage of vaginal estrogen preparations in the treatment of vulvovaginal atrophy anddryness is: A. Ability to deliver higher doses of estrogen in a non-oral form B. The vaginal cream formula provides moisture to the vaginal area C. Relief of symptoms without increasing cardiovascular risk D. All of the above
- Women with an intact uterus should be treated with both estrogen and progestin due to: A. Increased risk for endometrial cancer if estrogen alone is used B. Combination therapy provides the best relief of menopausal vasomotor symptoms C. Reduced risk for colon cancer with combined therapy D. Lower risk of developing blood clots with combined therapy
- Ongoing monitoring for women on estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) includes: A. Lipid levels, repeated annually if abnormal B. Annual health history and review of risk profile C. Annual mammogram D. All of the above
- Kristine would like to start hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to treat the significant vasomotor symptoms she is experiencing during
menopause. Education for a woman consideringhormone replacement would include:
A. Explaining that HRT is totally safe if used short term B. Telling her to ignore media hype regarding HRT C. Discussing the advantages and risks of HRT D. Encouraging the patient to use phytoestrogens with the HRT
- Angela is a black woman who has heard that women of African descent do not need to worryabout osteoporosis. What education would you provide Angela about her risk? A. She is correct, black women do not have much risk of developing osteoporosis dueto their dark skin B. Black women are at risk of developing osteoporosis due to their lower calcium intake as a group C. If she doesn’t drink alcohol, her risk of developing osteoporosis is low D. If she has not lost more than 10% of her weight lately, her risk is low
- Drugs that increase the risk of osteoporosis developing include: A. Oral combined contraceptives B. Carbamazepine C. Calcium channel blockers D. High doses of Vitamin D
- Selective estrogen receptor modifiers (SERMs) treat osteoporosis by selectively: A. Inhibiting magnesium resorption in the kidneys B. Increasing calcium absorption from the GI tract C. Acting on the bone to inhibit osteoblast activity D. Selectively acting on the estrogen receptors in the bone
- Sallie has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and is asking about the “once a month” pill to treather condition. How do bisphosphonates treat osteoporosis? A. By selectively activating estrogen pathways in the bone B. By reducing bone resorption by inhibiting PTH C. By reducing bone resorption and inhibiting osteoclastic activity D. By increasing parathyroid hormone production
- Inadequate Vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by: A. Increasing calcitonin production B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine C. Altering calcium metabolism D. Stimulating bone formation
- Cassie is a 15-year-old female who presents to clinic for a sports physical. Her diet history indicates she drinks less than one glass of milk per day and avoids dairy products to lose weight.What is the recommended daily calcium intake for Cassie? A. 500 mg B. 1,000 mg C. 1,300 mg D. 1,500 mg
- Susan is a 52-year-old perimenopausal woman who is lactose intolerant.