NR 568 Midterm Reviewer Midterm Exam: NR 568 (NR568) Advanced Pharmacology for the Adult-G, Exams of Nursing

Download NR 568 Midterm Reviewer Midterm Exam: NR 568 (NR568) Advanced Pharmacology for the Adult-G and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NR 568 Midterm Reviewer Midterm Exam: NR 568 (NR568) Advanced Pharmacology for the Adult- Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner Week 1-4| Complete Study Guide with Verified Answers- APHY 102 Final Exam OB "HESI" Practice Questions State board practice- Esthetician Test Practice test 1 & 2 for Esthetician Written Exam Latest Updated 2024/2025 Which of the following terms defines the study of maintaining and improving the skin? Select one: a. onychology b. esthetics c. ethical conduct d. personal hygiene - correct Answer Esthetics is the study of maintaining and improving the skin. How many hours of sleep do most people need to function properly? Select one: a. 1 to 2 hours b. 3 to 4 hours c. 6 to 8 hours d. 9 to 12 hours - correct AnswerMost people need 6 to 8 hours of sleep or they become fatigued and cannot function properly. The energy contained in food is measured in: Select one: a. calories b. degrees c. fat content d. protein content - correct AnswerThe energy contained in food is measured in calories. Keeping the abdomen flat, the chin level and the head up are key points in having: Select one: a.bad posture b.good posture c.potential injuries d.a poor standing position - correct AnswerKeeping your head up, chin level and abdomen flat are key points in having good posture. Bacteria that are harmless and can even be beneficial are called: Select one: a.toxins b.viruses c.pathogenic d.nonpathogenic - correct AnswerNonpathogenic bacteria are harmless and can even be beneficial. Bacterial cells that cause infection and diseases are: Select one: a.nontoxic b.vegetative c.pathogenic d.nonpathogenic - correct AnswerPathogenic bacterial cells can cause infections and diseases. Infectious bacteria can be easily spread in the workplace in all of the following ways EXCEPT: Select one: a.dirty hands b.dirty fingernails c.contaminated implements b.viruses c.pseudomonas d.harmful bacteria - correct AnswerVirucidals are disinfectants used to kill viruses. The regulatory agency under the U.S. Department of Labor that enforces safety and health standards in the workplace is: Select one: a.EPA b.SDS c.NIOSH d.OSHA - correct AnswerOSHA is the agency under the U.S. Department of Labor that enforces safety and health standards in the workplace. Key product information-such as toxicology, first-aid, firefighting measures and ecological information-is provided by the: Select one: a.SDS b.DNR c.EPA d.USDA - correct AnswerThe SDS provides key information on products regarding toxicology, first-aid, firefighting measures and ecological information. Examples of personal protective equipment (PPE) include all of the following EXCEPT: Select one: a.apron b.towels c.face masks d.safety glasses - correct AnswerExamples of personal protective equipment (PPE) include gloves, apron, face masks and safety glasses. What is the foundation of infection control efforts and the number one thing you can do to protect yourself and your clients? Select one: a.using antiseptics b.basic handwashing c.sterilizing multi-use supplies d.cleaning and disinfecting your tools - correct AnswerThe foundation of infection control efforts and the number one thing you can do to protect yourself and your clients is basic handwashing. Which type of light can kill bacteria that cause skin infections? Select one: a.infrared light b.ultraviolet light c.fluorescent light d.incandescent light - correct AnswerBacteria that cause skin infections can be killed by ultraviolet light Which of the following terms means the product is less likely to provoke an allergic reaction? Select one: a.fragrance b.allergenic c.antibacterial d.hypoallergenic - correct AnswerHypoallergenic means the product is less likely to provoke an allergic reaction. Ingredients responsible for producing the desired effect are called: Select one: a.preservative b.hypoallergenic c.functional ingredients d.performance ingredients - correct AnswerIngredients responsible for producing the desired effect are called performance ingredients. Which of the following are ingredients that are likely to block or clog the pores and contribute to papules and pustules? Select one: a.antibacterial b.comedogenic c.hypoallergenic d.non-comedogenic - correct AnswerComedogenic ingredients are likely to block or clog the pores and contribute to papules and pustules. Which government agency is responsible for regulating cosmetics in the U.S.? Select one: a.EPA b.FDA c.OTC d.OSHA - correct AnswerThe FDA is the government agency responsible for regulating cosmetics in the U.S. Jane noticed in her appointment book that all available appointments were completely scheduled for Thursday. In the industry this is called a(n): Select one: a.upsell b.full book c.prebook d.target market - correct AnswerIf all of your appointment times have been scheduled with clients for a given day or week, you have a full book A client retention strategy in which clients reserve a future appointment before leaving the salon/spa during their current visit is called: Select one: a.referral b.upselling c.retention b.bruising of the skin c.severe skin redness d.proper wound healing - correct AnswerExamples of post-op complications include signs of scarring, bruising of the skin and poor wound healing. How often should a skin analysis be performed? Select one: a.once a week b.once a year c.every time the client comes in for a service d.every other time the client comes in for a service - correct AnswerA skin analysis should be done every time the client comes in for a service. Reactions that may happen during or after a treatment are known as: Select one: a.benefits b.features c.contra-actions d.contraindications - correct AnswerReactions that may happen during or after a treatment are known as contra-actions. Any contra-actions noticed during the treatment are included on the: Select one: a.follow-up call b.thank-you card c.skin care regimen d.consultation record - correct AnswerAny contra-actions noticed during the treatment are included on the consultation record. "Is there anything that could have made your experience better?" is an example of a question you might ask a client on a follow-up call to determine: Select one: a.consent b.rapport c.credibility d.satisfaction - correct Answer"Is there anything that could have made your experience better?" is an example of a question you might ask a client on a follow-up call to determine satisfaction. The body system that sends and receives body messages is called the: Select one: a.nervous system b.excretory system c.endocrine system d.reproductive system - correct AnswerThe body system that sends and receives body messages is called the nervous system. The epidermis is composed of how many layers? Select one: a.1 b.3 c.5 d.7 - correct AnswerThe epidermis is composed of 5 layers. The acid mantle keeps the surface of the skin slightly acidic, which helps: Select one: a.allow bacteria to enter the body b.prevent bacteria from entering the body c.create a shock absorber to protect the bones d.act as an emergency reservoir of food and water - correct AnswerThe acid mantle keeps the surface of the skin slightly acidic, which helps prevent bacteria from entering the body. The arrector pilli muscle causes: Select one: a.faster hair growth b.slower hair growth c.the hair to stand on end d.the hair to lay flat and close to the head - correct AnswerThe arrector pilli muscle causes the hair to stand on end. The muscles that create movement based on intentional desire are: Select one: a.cardiac b.striated (voluntary) c.involuntary d.non-striated - correct AnswerStriated or voluntary muscles create movement based on intentional desire. In general, muscles affected by massage are massaged from the: Select one: a.insertion to belly b.belly to insertion c.insertion to origin d.origin to insertion - correct AnswerIn general, muscles affected by massage are massaged from the insertion to origin Cells that fight bacteria and other foreign substances are called leukocytes or: Select one: a.plasma b.hemoglobin c.red blood cells d.white blood cells - correct AnswerCells that fight bacteria and other foreign substances are called leukocytes or white blood cells. Which structure of the lymphatic system is responsible for filtering out bacteria and viruses from the lymph fluid? d.swollen, inflamed skin - correct AnswerA clay mask is beneficial for oily, acne-prone skin Comedones, papules and a few pustules describe which grade of acne? Select one: a.Grade 1 b.Grade 2 c.Grade 3 d.Grade 4 - correct AnswerComedones, papules and a few pustules describe Grade 2 acne. Which of the following is an ingredient used to dry, exfoliate and help in killing bacteria? Select one: a.metrogel b.androgen c.vitamin C d.benzoyl peroxide - correct AnswerBenzoyl peroxide is an ingredient used to dry, exfoliate and help in killing bacteria. While reviewing her client's medication list, Naomi noticed her client takes Accutane. What should Naomi do? Select one: a.call 911 b.avoid treatment c.pretend she didn't see it d.proceed with treatment without cautions - correct AnswerIf a client is taking Accutane, avoid treatment During which phase of a facial should the products used be incorporated into the client's home- care routine? Select one: a.Balance b.Decrease c.Increase d.Hydration - correct AnswerProducts used in the Decrease phase should be incorporated into the client's home-care routine. How long after performing a chemical exfoliation or microdermabrasion service should follow-up be completed? Select one: a.8 to 10 hours b.12 to 24 hours c.26 to 32 hours d.48 to 72 hours - correct AnswerCall within 48-72 hours of performing a chemical exfoliation or microdermabrasion. A neutral oil used to dilute an essential oil is called a(n): Select one: a.carrier oil b.antiseptic oil c.soothing oil d.stimulating oil - correct AnswerA neutral oil used to dilute an essential oil is called a carrier oil. The only two essential oils suitable for direct contact with the skin are: Select one: a.chamomile and lemon b.rose and peppermint c.lavender and tea tree d.eucalyptus and orange - correct AnswerThe only two essential oils suitable for direct contact with the skin are lavender and tea tree. A thick cream or salve made from the combination of herbs and petroleum is called a(n): Select one: a.tincture b.ointment c.glucoside d.active ingredient - correct AnswerAn ointment is a thick cream or salve made from the combination of herbs and petroleum. Which concentrated trace element in sea plants help neutralize free-radical skin damage? Select one: a.enzymes b.vitamins c.natural antioxidants d.essential amino acids - correct AnswerNatural antioxidants in sea plants help neutralize free- radical skin damage. What grade of acne would require a physician's consent prior to servicing the client? Select one: a.Grade 1 b.Grade 2 c.Grade 1/2 d.Grade 3/4 - correct AnswerGrade 3/4 of acne would require a physician's consent prior to servicing the client. Which of the following actions is a recommended guideline for an acne facial treatment? Select one: a.extract papules b.do not try to extract papules c.use mechanical exfoliation on inflamed acne d.do not use anti-bacterial products after extractions - correct AnswerA recommended guideline for an acne facial treatment is do not try to extract papules How often should a client return to the salon/spa for a facial treatment for healthy skin maintenance and stress reduction? Select one: A light-pressure massage used to remove waste from the body that also helps with edema, erythema, puffiness, discoloration under the eyes, acne and cellulite is known as: Select one: a.shiatsu b.acupressure c.scalp massage d.manual lymph drainage (MLD) - correct AnswerManual lymph drainage (MLD) is a light- pressure massage for the lymphatic system to remove waste from the body and helps with edema, erythema, puffiness, discoloration under the eyes, acne and cellulite. Conditions that prevent treatment are referred to as: Select one: a.concerns b.cautions c.contra-actions d.contraindications - correct AnswerConditions that prevent treatment are referred to as contraindications. What is the proper way to dispose of unused chemical exfoliants? Select one: a.wash it down the drain b.place it back into chemical exfoliant container c.apply de-greasing product then place in the trash d.saturate with baking soda then place in the trash - correct AnswerThe proper way to dispose of unused chemical exfoliants is to saturate with baking soda then place in the trash. Beneficial effects of direct high frequency include all of the following examples EXCEPT: Select one: a.induces relaxation b.stimulates surface tissue c.reduces inflammation after hair removal d.helps heal existing papules and pustules Feedback - correct AnswerBeneficial effects of direct high frequency include stimulates surface tissue, reduces inflammation after hair removal and helps heal existing papules and pustules. Which electrode is held by a client to create a circuit? Select one: a.mushroom electrode b.sparking electrode c.grounding bar electrode d.grounding pad electrode - correct AnswerA grounding bar electrode is held by a client to create a circuit. How should facial treatment device equipment be disinfected? Select one: a.clean with soap and water b.wipe with clean damp towel c.immerse in approved EPA-registered disinfectant solution d.wipe down with an approved EPA-registered disinfectant spray or wipe - correct AnswerEquipment is disinfected by wiping it down with an approved EPA-registered disinfectant spray or wipe Shondra is performing sparking on an area of extraction. As she uses rapid up-and-down movements, how far should she lift the electrode from the skin? Select one: a. 0.1" (2 mm) b. 0.3" (7 mm) c. 0.5" (12 mm) d. 0.7" (17 mm) - correct AnswerWhen performing sparking on an area of extraction, lift the electrode 0.3" (7 mm) from the skin using rapid up-and-down movements. All of the following medical conditions are contraindicated against electrotherapy devices EXCEPT: Select one: a.pregnancy b.hormone issues c.loss of skin sensation d.plates or pins inside body - correct AnswerPregnancy, loss of skin sensation and plates or pins inside body are contraindicated against electrotherapy devices. When analyzing the skin, the distance the magnifying lamp is placed over the face may vary based on all of the following factors EXCEPT: Select one: a.your eye color b.client's skin c.your eye sight d.strength of magnification - correct AnswerWhen analyzing the skin, the distance of the magnifying lamp will vary depending on strength of magnification, client's skin and your eye sight. At the end of a microdermabrasion treatment, what should be done with used aluminum oxide crystals? Select one: a.use synthetic brush to brush out skin cells b.cleanse with enzymatic cleanser to dissolve biofilm c.dispose of according to your area's environmental rules d.cleanse by saturating a clean towel with an antibacterial soap and water spray - correct AnswerAt the end of a microdermabrasion treatment, used aluminum oxide crystals should be disposed of according to your area's environmental rules. Test the microdermabrasion level on: c.increase treatment effectiveness d.decrease treatment effectiveness - correct AnswerA body scrub can be used prior to a body wrap or cellulite treatment to increase treatment effectiveness. What are the two types of application methods for a sunless tanning treatment? Select one: a.scrub and wrap b.scrub and mask c.dry-brush and loofahs d.spray and hand-applied lotion - correct AnswerTwo types of application methods for a sunless tanning treatment are spray and hand-applied lotion. Absorption and compaction are the principles that create temporary firmness in which type of body wrapping? Select one: a.general wrapping b.compression wrapping c.decompression wrapping d.cellulite wrapping - correct AnswerAbsorption and compaction are the principals that create temporary firmness in compression wrapping. To accommodate male clients, in which direction should an esthetician work to avoid tangling the hair? Select one: a.upward b.sideways c.downward d.horizontally - correct AnswerTo accommodate male clients, an esthetician should work in downward strokes to avoid tangling the hair. Which of the following conditions is NOT a contraindication for performing a body treatment? Select one: a.cancer b.HIV/AIDS c.infestations d.vascular disorder - correct AnswerCancer, infestations and vascular disorders are all contraindications for performing a body treatment. What colors visually diminish or minimize the appearance of facial features? Select one: a.lighter colors b.darker colors c.primary colors d.complementary colors - correct AnswerDarker colors visually diminish or minimize the appearance of facial features. Your client Tina has a wide nose, so you decide to use which of the following colors to recede or diminish it's width? Select one: a.lighter colors b.darker colors c.primary colors d.complementary colors - correct AnswerDarker colors recede and diminish less attractive features. The type of foundation that should always be on hand because it is suitable for most skin types, provides natural to medium coverage and is easy to apply and blend is: Select one: a.cream b.liquid c.powder d.pancake - correct AnswerThe type of foundation that should always be on hand because it is suitable for most skin types, provides natural to medium coverage and is easy to apply and blend is liquid. Which concealer tone is chosen to lighten an area? Select one: a.pink b.flesh c.peach d.yellow - correct AnswerUse flesh tone concealer to lighten an area. Which facial shape can be visually shortened by applying deeper tones under the chin and horizontally at the hairline? Select one: a.pear b.oblong c.round d.square - correct AnswerAn oblong facial shape can be visually shortened by applying deeper tones under the chin and horizontally at the hairline. What are factors that should be discovered during the consultation since they could cause reactions during or after a service? Select one: a.cautions b.concerns c.restrictions d.contraindications - correct AnswerContraindications should be discovered during the consultation. what layer is above the stratum lucidum - correct Answerthe stratum corneum Where do you start and end the cleansing process? - correct AnswerStart at neck/end of temple Muscle that covers the bridge of the nose? - correct Answerprocerus What covers the skeletal system? - correct AnswerMuscular system What is the muscle that covers the upper back and back of neck? - correct Answertrapezius What is a vehicle that helps to spread agents onto the skin? - correct Answeremollients The study of hair is called?on - correct Answertrichology The largest organ of the body? - correct Answerthe skin What occupies space? - correct Answermatter What happens if you wash your face to often? - correct Answerdehydration What layer contains keratin? - correct Answerstratum corneum Glands that excrete perspiration? - correct Answersuderiferous Glands that excrete sebum? - correct Answersebaceous This layer connects the dermis and the epidermis? - correct Answerpapillary A cluster of boils is known as a? - correct Answercarbuncles Redness,dilation of blood vessels is a condition associated with? - correct AnswerRosacea Sebum trapped by dead skin cells is known as? - correct Answermillia Severe oiliness of he skin? - correct Answerseborrhea An open comedone is referred to as a? - correct Answerblackhead During the Elizabethan period of the Renaissance what was in style? - correct AnswerFacial masks The most stimulating facial massage? - correct AnswerTapotement or percussion What level of decontamination is it when we was our hands? - correct Answersanitation In which direction to we massage the face? - correct AnswerInsertion to origin Broad muscle extending from the chest and shoulder to the chin? - correct AnswerPlatysma One of the fattiest oils used in skin care is? - correct Answercoconut What are the fatty alcohols? - correct AnswerFatty acids that have been exposed to hydrogen Collagen makes up how much of the dermis? - correct Answer70% Ethnic skin that is more prone to sensitivities? - correct AnswerAsian Ethnic skin more prone to pigmentation problems? - correct AnswerBlack skin A face that has a greater length in portion to its width than a square or round face? - correct Answeroblong The technical name for an eyelash hair? - correct AnswerCilia The application of false individual lashes is known as? - correct AnswerEye tabbing What is the effect of the hair if using the galvanic electrolysis method? - correct AnswerDecomposition The only recognized permanent hair removal? - correct AnswerElectrolysis What does the Fitzpatrick scale measure? - correct AnswerSkin's ability to tolerate sun exposure What pathogenic agents produce pus? - correct AnswerAny cocci bacteria (staphylococci, streptococci) What would be the cause of hormonal hyperpigmentation? - correct AnswerIntrinsic causes What does ultraviolet do? - correct AnswerDisinfect What is a pearl-like mass of sebum trapped under the skin? - correct Answermilia What skin cancer is characterized by pearly nodules? - correct AnswerBasel cell carcinoma How does electrolysis produces heat to destroy the hair follicle? - correct AnswerElectrocoagulation The suderiferous glands excrete? - correct Answerexcess salt and water What skin do you not use with vacuum suction? - correct AnswerCouperose What ethnic skin ages the slowest? - correct AnswerBlack skin Fitzpatrick scale measures? - correct AnswerThe skin's ability to tolerate the sun The two types that are used in salons and spas are chemical disinfectants and hospital-grade disinfectants are also know by? - correct AnswerTuberculocidal Tuerculocidal disinfectants are proven to kill the bacteria that cause? - correct AnswerTuberculosis "Cocci" - correct AnswerAre round shaped bacteria "staphylococci" - correct AnswerPus forming bacteria that grow in clusters like a bunch of grapes. Diplococci" - correct AnswerSpherical bacteria that grow in pairs and cause diseases such as pneumonia "Bacilli" - correct AnswerAre short,rod shaped bacteria. "Spirilla" - correct AnswerAre spiral of corkscrew-shaped bacteria. True - correct AnswerA person under stress may have a lowered resistance to infection. T or F all of the above. - correct AnswerThe B vitamins are : a. essential for normal cellular metabolism b. involved in the oxidation of carbohydrates, lipids, and protiens c. grouped because they are in the same foods d. all of the above. b. D - correct AnswerDeficiency of vitamin__________ causes osteomalacia a. E b. D c. C d. A c. supplies oxygen and nutrients to and remove wastes from tissues - correct AnswerCirculation is vital because it a. inflates the lungs b. delivers carbon dioxide to tissues and removes excess oxygen c. supplies oxygen and nutrients to and remove wastes from tissues d. delivers wastes to tissues a. absorbed more readily in the presence of bile salts - correct AnswerFat-soluble vitamins are a. absorbed more readily in the presence of bile salts b. excreted rapidly by the kidneys c. easily destroyed by heat during cooking d. not stored in tissues False - correct AnswerThe stomach is C- shaped and extends from the duodenum to the spleen. T or F c. blood cells and platelets - correct Answer"Formed elements" are a. blood and lymph b. serum and plasma c. blood cells and platelets d. sodium and potassium True - correct AnswerLymph transports fat molecules with longer chains of carbon atoms away from the intestine. T or F c. a fever - correct AnswerInterleukin-1 secretion causes a. an allergic reaction b. an antibody response c. a fever d. cytokine secretion D. all of the above - correct AnswerWhich of the following terms is (are) defined correctly? a. Adequate diet-diet that provides sufficient energy and essential nutrients for growth, maintenance , and repair of tissues. b. Malnutrition- poor nutrition that results from a lack of essential nutrients c. Bulimia- binging and purging d. All of the above c. neutrophils. - correct AnswerWhich of the following are most active as phaocytes? a. erythrocytes b. eosinophils c. neutrophils. d. basophils b. an increase in the concentration of blood glucose - correct AnswerSecretion of glucagon causes a. an increase in the formation of fat b. an increase in the concentration of blood glucose c. an increase in the permeability of the cell membrane to glucose d. an increase in glycogen d. all of the above - correct AnswerSteroid hormones a. are soluble in lipids b. combine with protein receptor muscles c. cause messenger RNA synthesis d. all of the above True - correct AnswerA set of primary teeth consists of 20 teeth, whereas a set of secondary teeth consists of 32 teeth. T or F False - correct AnswerCarbohydrates include cholesterol and phospholidids T or F b. resembles a large lymph node divided into lobules - correct AnswerThe spleen a. consists of two lobes in the mediastinum b. resembles a large lymph node divided into lobules c. produces T lymphocytes d. produces B lymphocytes a. esophagus - correct AnswerHeartburn is usually caused by the effects of gastric juice on the a. esophagus b. stomach c. heart d. small intestine c. hypoxia d. hypoglycemia c. the diaphragm and external intercostal respiratory muscles relax - correct AnswerThe first event in expiration is a. elastic tissues of the lungs, thoracic cage, and abdominal organs recoil b. air is squeezed out of the lungs c. the diaphragm and external intercostal respiratory muscles relax d. inter-alveolar pressure increases True - correct AnswerThe glomerular capsule is composed of two layers of squamous epithelial cells T or F b. extracellular-fluid in tissue spaces, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels - correct AnswerWhich of the following body compartments is correctly matched with its location in the body a. intracellular-all fluids outside cells b. extracellular-fluid in tissue spaces, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels c. extracellular- fluid in cells d. transcellular- between the lipid layers of cell membrane True - correct AnswerIn a healthy body, the volume of water remains relatively stable at all times T or F d. Ionizes more completely; HC1 - correct AnswerA strong acid is one that _______and an example is ______ a. ionizes more completely H2CO3 b. gives off less H+; H3PO4 c. Ionizes less completely ; H2SO4 d. Ionizes more completely; HC1 d. all of the above - correct AnswerThe mucous membrane lining the nasal cavity a. warms incoming air b. moistens incoming air c. entraps dust d. all of the above b. Proximal convoluted tubule, descending limb of nephron loop, ascending limb of nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule - correct AnswerWhich of the following indicates the parts of a renal tubule in the sequence from the beginning to end? a. Distal convoluted tubule, ascending limb of nephron loop, descending limb of nephron loop, proximal convoluted tubule b. Proximal convoluted tubule, descending limb of nephron loop, ascending limb of nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule c. Proximal convoluted tubule, ascending limb of nephron loop, descending limb of nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule d. Collecting duct, proximal convoluted tubule, descending limb of nephron loop, ascending limb of nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule False - correct AnswerThe urinary bladder is superior to the parietal peritoneum T or F True - correct AnswerGonadotropins include FSH and LH T or F d. is all of the above - correct AnswerSemen a. consists of sperm and secretions b. is alkaline c. includes prostaglandins and nutrients d. is all of the above c. ejaculatory duct - correct AnswerThe structure the sperm enters upon exiting the ductus deferens is the a. seminal vesicles b. rete testis c. ejaculatory duct d. epididymis d. androgens - correct AnswerThe interstitial cells of the testes produce a. seminal fluid b. spermatogenic cells c. sperm cells d. androgens d. all of the above - correct AnswerWhich of the following is (are) forms of contraception? a. Rhythm method b. Chemical barriers c. Intrauterine device d. all of the above b. epididymides - correct AnswerSperm cells mature in the a. ejaculatory ducts b. epididymides c. semical vesicles d. ductus deferentia c. stimulates uterine wall development; stimulates the uterine lining to become more glandular - correct AnswerIn the reproductive cycle, estrogen _________, whereas progestrone _________ a. Inhibits the release of FSH; stimulates the release of FSH b. ejects milk from the mammary glands; stimulates milk secretion c. stimulates uterine wall development; stimulates the uterine lining to become more glandular d. stimulates erection of the clitoris; stimulates the uterine lining to become glandular a. cervix - correct AnswerThe tubular part of the uterus that extends downward into the upper vagina is the a. cervix b. endometrium c. fundus d. perimetrium a. uterine tube - correct AnswerFertilization normally occurs in the a. uterine tube b. uterus c. vagina d. perimetrium b. tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the abdominal cavity - correct AnswerIn endometriosis a. tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the thoracic cavity b. tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the abdominal cavity c. the inner uterine lining tissue no longer grows during the womans reproductive cycles d. a new mother becomes extremely depressed. True - correct AnswerPrimary oocyte production begins before birth. a. respiratory tract, urinary bladder, and urethra b. nervous system and sense organs c. epidermis, hair, nails, and glands of skin d. muscle tissue, bone tissue, and bone marrow d. all of the above - correct AnswerWhich of the following is (are) true in regard to the fetal stage of development? a. it begins 8 weeks after fertilization b. The organ systems are mostly formed, although inmature. c. The head is disproportionately large compared to the rest of the body at the beginning of the stage d. all of the above c. placental estrogen and progesterone - correct AnswerThe hormones that maintain the uterine wall during the last 5 to 6 months of pregnancy are a. FSH and LH b. placental lactogen and relaxin c. placental estrogen and progesterone d. human chorlonic gonadotropin and synthetic estrogen. d. all of the above - correct AnswerThe major body parts derived from endoderm are the epithelial lining of the a. digestive tract b. respiratory tract c. urinary bladder d. all of the above c. cell produced by cleavage; a hollow ball of cells - correct AnswerA blastomere is a ________ and a blastocyst is ______ a. hollow ball of cells; a cell resulting from cleavage b. fetal organ produced by cleavage; an embrtonic organ produced by cleavage c. cell produced by cleavage; a hollow ball of cells d. fetal membrane; an embryonic membrane b. a breakdown of structures and slowing of functions - correct AnswerPassive aging is a. a result of a person being much less active in layer years b. a breakdown of structures and slowing of functions c. a buildup of structures and speeding of functions d. decay of tissues a. mesoderm - correct AnswerWhich of the following layers is considered loosely organized connective tissue a. mesoderm b. epidermis c. endoderm d. ectoderm d. all of the above - correct AnswerChanges that occur as death approaches include a. limbs become cool and numb b. accumulation of secretions in the respiratory tract c. blood pressure falls d. all of the above a. nervous system and skin - correct AnswerThe major body part(s) derived from ectoderm is/are a. nervous system and skin b. bone tissue c. muscle tissue d. liver and pancreas False - correct AnswerAging related changes include shrinking of the prostate in men and enlargement of the breasts in woman T or F b. projects into endometrium and helps form the placenta; is a membrane that encircles a developing embryo - correct AnswerThe chorion _________ and the amnion _________ a. is the outer protective membrane around the embryo; is the site where an embryo is implanted into the uterus b. projects into endometrium and helps form the placenta; is a membrane that encircles a developing embryo c. is the site from which primary germ layers develop; is the site from which secondary germ layers develop d. is the part of the blastocyst that is not the inner cell mass; is the inner cell mass c. nerves - correct AnswerWhich of the following adult structures is not derived from the same primary gem layer as the others a. muscles b. bones c. nerves d. blood vessels False - correct AnswerConjoined twins result from incomplete twinning, which occurs during the first month of gestation. T or F d. Becoming reproductively functional - correct AnswerWhich of the following is not a characteristic of childhood? a. Establishing bowel control b. Developing a high degree of voluntary muscular control c. Secondary teeth replacing primary teeth d. Becoming reproductively functional d. chorionic villus sampling - correct AnswerA procedure used to obtain enough fetal tissue sampled through the cervix to test for genetic disorders without culturing cells is a. amniocentesis b. fetal cell sorting c. ultrasonography d. chorionic villus sampling True - correct AnswerAbsence of the SRY gene and expression of the Wnt4 gene are necessary for female reproductive structures to develop in an embryo and fetus T or F a. ultrasound - correct AnswerWhich of the following prenatal tests is non-invasive? a. ultrasound b. chorionic villi sampling c. inserting a shunt into a fetus with water on the brain d. amniocentesis c. euploid - correct AnswerA human with 46 chromosomes is a. aneuploid b. haploid c. euploid d. polyploid True - correct AnswerFreckles are a phenotype and the allele combination that causes a clotting disorder is a genotype T or F a. renal tubule - correct AnswerOnce in the glomerular capsule, the filtrate moves into the a. renal tubule b. ureter c. minor calyx d. renal pelvis b. distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct - correct AnswerThe hormone ADH promotes water re-absorption through the wall(s) Of the a. proximal convoluted tubule and collecting duct b. distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct c. descending limb of the nephron loop d. ascending limb of the nephron loop c. nephrons invert - correct AnswerWhich of the following does not occur with aging of the urinary system? a. decreased GFR b. renal tubules become encased in fat c. nephrons invert d. fibrous connective tissue accumulates around the kidney capsule a. an increase in the osmotic pressure; distension of the stomach by water - correct AnswerThe thirst center in the hypothalamus is stimulated by ________ of the extracellular fluid, and is inhibited by _______ a. an increase in the osmotic pressure; distension of the stomach by water b. a decrease in the osmotic pressure; stimulation of osmoreceptors c. a decrease in sodium ions; an increase in sodium levels d. nerve impulses from the cerebrum; nerve impulses from the thalamus c. re-absorption of sodium ions - correct AnswerThe hormone aldosterone promotes the a. secretion of calcium ions b. re-absorption of sodium ions c. re-absorption of sodium ions d. secretion of sodium ions a. they are fast - correct AnswerAcid-base buffers are the first line of defense against shifts in pH because a. they are fast b. they are slow and prolonged c. they occur in everyone d. they occur closest to the skin False - correct AnswerThe hormone ADH is released from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland T or F The amniotic membranes of a client in active labor spontaneously rupture. The fluid is greenish brown with a foul odor. What action is a priority for the nurse? A. Evaluate the labor pattern. B. Administer oxygen. C. Place the client into the knee-chest position. D. Apply internal fetal heart monitor and note the time of membrane rupture - correct AnswerANS: D Rationale: In the presence of greenish brown amniotic fluid, the fetal heart rate should be monitored continuously using an internal fetal heart rate monitor, and the time of membrane rupture should be noted since birth should occur within 24 hours of the rupture of membranes. A primigravida in labor has complete cervical dilatation. Contractions are occurring every 1 1/2 to 2 minutes lasting 60 to 90 seconds. Upon examination, the nurse determines that birth is imminent because what has occurred? A. An increase in bloody show B. Perineum is bulging. C. Perineum is flattened. D. Crowning - correct AnswerANS: D The nurse, assessing a client who is 32 weeks pregnant during a routine visit, is concerned that the fetus is in the breech presentation. What did the nurse assess in the client? - correct AnswerFetal heart rate above the umbilicus. A client in the last trimester of pregnancy is prescribed sulfonamide for a urinary tract infection. What risk will this medication be to the developing fetus? - correct AnswerJaundice The fetal heart rate of a client in active labor shows variable decelerations. The cervix is 7cm dilated and the membranes are intact. What intervention should the nurse implement first? - correct AnswerAssist client with turning to the left side. An Rh negative mother and an Rh positive father are expecting a child. Screening revealed a positive indirect coombs test. Which statement regarding this result is correct? - correct AnswerThere is no need to administer RhoGAM to this woman. A client, pregnant with her first child, tells the nurse that she is vegan. When discussing the client's nutritional needs, what should the nurse include? - correct AnswerUse fortified soy or rice milk to meet dairy needs. A woman in the first trimester of her pregnancy has a Hemoglobin level of 11 mg/dl and MCV of 113 fL. What action should the nurse take? - correct AnswerDetermine folate and Vitamin B12 levels. A woman in the active phase of labor takes slow, deep breaths at the beginning of each contraction, while increasing the rate and decreasing the depth of her breaths as she reaches the peak of the contraction. Once the contraction is over, her breathing becomes slower and deeper again. What breathing pattern does the nurse recognize this client is using? - correct AnswerModified-paced breathing A pregnant client at risk for preterm labor has received betamethasone (Celestone) for 2 days. What is most important for the nurse to monitor? - correct AnswerBlood glucose level The nurse is preparing a presentation on the organs of the developing fetus for a group of expecting families. When preparing this material, the nurse will include which organ system as being the most developed by 3 weeks of gestation? - correct AnswerCardiovascular system The nurse suspects that a pregnant client is experiencing domestic violence. During the assessment, the client tells the nurse that this is the first time it ever happened and does not expect it to occur again. What should the nurse respond to the client? - correct Answer"This type of behavior can continue after the child is born and may include the child as well." A client at 28 weeks gestation reports occasional blurry vision and demonstrates clonus on exam. What action is most important for the nurse take? - correct AnswerCheck urine specimen for protein. A pregnant client's medical record shows: Gravida 6 Term 2 Preterm 1 Abortion 2. Assuming that no children passed away after birth, how should the nurse interpreted this data? - correct AnswerThe client has 3 living children.