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NR302 Exam 1 Questions And Answers / NR 302 Exam 1 Latest 2024 Chamberlain College Of Nur, Exams of Nursing

NR302 Exam 1 Questions And Answers / NR 302 Exam 1 Latest 2024 Chamberlain College Of Nursing |100% Correct Q & A|

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NR302 Exam 1 Questions And Answers / NR 302 Exam 1

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What type of database is most appropriate when rapid collection of data is required and often compiled concurrently with lifesaving measures? a. Focused b. Follow-up c. Emergency d. Complete c. Emergency A nurse precepting a student nurse asks, "What's the most important step in the critical-thinking process?" a. Clustering subjective and objective data b. Using evidence-based assessment techniques c. Analyzing health data d. Prioritizing health concerns b. Using evidence-based assessment techniques An example of subjective data is a.decreased range of motion. b.crepitation in the left knee joint. c.left knee has been swollen and hot for the past 3 days. d. arthritis. c.left knee has been swollen and hot for the past 3 days. What type of database is most appropriate for an individual who is admitted to a long-term care facility?

a.Focused b.Follow-up c.Emergency d.Complete d.Complete Which of the following is an example of objective data? a.Alert and oriented b.Dizziness c.An earache d.A sore throat a.Alert and oriented An example of objective data is a.a complaint of left knee pain. b.crepitation in the left knee joint. c.sore throat for the past 3 days. d.a report of impaired mobility from left knee pain as evidenced by an inability to walk, swelling, and pain on passive range of motion. b.crepitation in the left knee joint. Which of the following is an example of subjective data? a.Blood glucose 126 md/dL b.Bruising on lower leg c.Pain rated at 7 out of 10 d.Heart rate of 76 bpm c.Pain rated at 7 out of 10 A complete database is a.used to collect data rapidly and is often compiled concurrently with lifesaving measures.

b.used for a limited or short-term problem usually consisting of one problem, one cue complex, or one body system. c.used to evaluate the cause or etiology of disease. d.used to perform a thorough or comprehensive health history and physical examination. d.used to perform a thorough or comprehensive health history and physical examination. A patient admitted to the hospital with asthma has the following problems identified based on an admission health history and physical assessment. Which problem is a first-level priority? a.Ineffective self-health management b.Risk for infection c.Impaired gas exchange d.Readiness for enhanced spiritual well-being c.Impaired gas exchange Each culture has its own healers who usually a.speak at least two languages. b.own and operate specialty community clinics. c.cost less than traditional or biomedical providers. d.recommend folk practices that are dangerous. c.cost less than traditional or biomedical providers. While evaluating the health history, the nurse determines that the patient subscribes to the hot/cold theory of health. Which of the following would most likely describe this patient's view of wellness? a.Good is hot. b.Evil is hot. c.The humors must be balanced. d.The phlegm will be replaced with dryness.

c.The humors must be balanced. When completing a health assessment, which of the following actions most demonstrates cultural competence? a.Ask about use of traditional, herbal, or folk remedies. b.Measure height and weight in a private room. c.Ask about family history of diseases. d.Make sure the blood pressure cuff fits appropriately. a.Ask about use of traditional, herbal, or folk remedies. Spirituality is defined as a.participating in religious services on a regular basis. b.a personal effort to find meaning and purpose in life. c.the process of being raised within a culture. d.a social group that claims to possess variable traits. b.a personal effort to find meaning and purpose in life. Which of the following statements regarding language barriers and health care is true? a.Standards have been identified that are important to eliminate health disparities. b.LEP is associated with a higher quality of care. c.English proficiency is associated with a lower quality of care. d.Patients with language barriers have a decreased risk for nonadherence to medication regimens. a.Standards have been identified that are important to eliminate health disparities. What is the yin/yang theory of health? a.Health exists when all aspects of the person are in perfect balance. b.Health exists when physical, psychological, spiritual, and social needs are met.

c.Health exists in the absence of illness. d.Health exists when there is optimal functioning. a.Health exists when all aspects of the person are in perfect balance. Which statement best represents the concept of cultural humility? a.Being aware of one's cultural beliefs and values b.Perceive value in cultural beliefs of others c.Learning about different types of cultures d.Developing relevant skill sets b.Perceive value in cultural beliefs of others Which of the following symptoms is greatly influenced by a person's cultural background? a.Hearing loss b.Pain c.Breast lump d.Food intolerance b.Pain Which of the social determinants of health has the greatest influence on a person's health? a.Education b.Neighborhood c.Poverty d.Work environment c.Poverty When preparing the physical setting for an interview, the interviewer should a.set the room temperature between 64°F and 66°F. b.reduce noise by turning the volume on the television or radio down.

c.conduct the interview at eye level and at a distance of 4 to 5 feet. d.stand next to the patient to convey a professional demeanor. c.conduct the interview at eye level and at a distance of 4 to 5 feet. Parents or caregivers accompany children to the health care setting. Starting at ___ years of age, the interviewer asks the child directly about his or her presenting symptoms. a. b. c. d. b. Which of the following statements made by the interviewer would be an appropriate response? a."I know just how you feel." b."If I were you, I would have the surgery." c."Why did you wait so long to make an appointment?" d."Tell me what you mean by 'bad blood.'" d."Tell me what you mean by 'bad blood.'" While discussing the treatment plan, the nurse infers that the patient is uncomfortable asking the physician for a different treatment because of fear of the physician's reaction. In this situation, the nurse's verbal interpretation a.affects the nurse-physician relationship. b.impedes further discussion. c.helps the patient understand personal feelings in relation to his or her verbal message. d.helps the nurse understand his or her own feelings in relation to the patient's verbal message.

c.helps the patient understand personal feelings in relation to his or her verbal message. The use of euphemisms to avoid reality or to hide feelings is known as a.distancing language. b.sympathetic language. c.avoidance language. d.ethnocentric language. c.avoidance language. When addressing a toddler during the interview, the health care provider should a.ask the child, before the caregivers, about symptoms. b.use nonverbal communication. c.use short, simple, concrete sentences. d.use detailed explanations. c.use short, simple, concrete sentences. Nonverbal communication is the primary form of communication for which group of individuals? a.Infants b.Preschoolers c.Adolescents d.Older adults a.Infants Viewing the world from another person's inner frame of reference is called a.reflection. b.empathy. c.clarification. d.sympathy. b.empathy.

An example of an open-ended question or statement is a."Tell me about your pain." b."On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rate your pain?" c."I can see that you are quite uncomfortable." d."You are upset about the level of pain, right?" a."Tell me about your pain." The most appropriate introduction to use to start an interview with an older adult patient is a."Mr. Jones, I want to ask you some questions about your health so that we can plan your care." b."David, I am here to ask you questions about your illness; we want to determine what is wrong." c."Mr. Jones, is it okay if I ask you several questions this morning about your health?" d."Because so many people have already asked you questions, I will just get the information from the chart." a."Mr. Jones, I want to ask you some questions about your health so that we can plan your care." Which of the following is included in documenting a history source?
a.Appearance, dress, and hygiene b.Cognition and literacy level c.Documented relationship of support systems d.Reliability of informant d.Reliability of informant A patient seeks care for "debilitating headaches that cause excessive absences at work." On further exploration, the nurse asks, "What makes the headaches worse?" With this question, the nurse is seeking information about

a.the patient's perception of pain. b.the nature or character of the headache. c.aggravating factors. d.relieving factors. c.aggravating factors. The CAGE test is a screening questionnaire that helps to identify a.unhealthy lifestyle behaviors. b.personal response to stress. c.excessive or uncontrollable drinking. d.depression. c.excessive or uncontrollable drinking. The "review of systems" in the health history is a.an evaluation of past and present health state of each body system. b.a documentation of the problem as perceived by the patient. c.a record of objective findings. d.a short statement of general health status. a.an evaluation of past and present health state of each body system. When recording information for the review of systems, the interviewer must document a.physical findings, such as skin appearance, to support historic data. b."negative" under the system heading. c.the presence or absence of all symptoms under the system heading. d.objective data that support the history of present illness. c.the presence or absence of all symptoms under the system heading. Assessment of self-esteem and self-concept is part of the functional assessment. Areas covered under self-esteem and self-concept include a.education, financial status, and value-belief system.

b.exercise and activity, leisure activities, and level of independence. c.family role, interpersonal relations, social support, and time spent alone. d.stressors, coping mechanisms, and change in past year. a.education, financial status, and value-belief system. Correct PQRSTU is a mnemonic that helps the clinician to remember to address characteristics specific to
a.severity of dementia. b.substance use and abuse. c.pain presentation. d.the ability to perform activities of daily living (ADLs). c.pain presentation. The nurse questions the reliability of the history provided by the patient. One method to verify information within the context of the interview is to a.review previous medical records. b.rephrase the same questions later in the interview. c.ask the patient if there is someone who could verify information. d.call a family member to confirm information. b.rephrase the same questions later in the interview. When taking a health history from an adolescent, the interviewer should a.ask about violence and abuse before asking about alcohol and drug use. b.have at least one parent present during the interview. c.interview the youth alone with a parent in the waiting area. d.ask every youth about the use of condoms. c.interview the youth alone with a parent in the waiting area. What information is included in greater detail when taking a health history on an infant? a.Nutritional data

b.History of present illness c.Family history d.Environmental hazards a.Nutritional data To examine a toddler, the nurse should a.allow the child to sit on the parent's lap. b.remove the child's clothing at the beginning of the examination. c.ask the child to decide whether parents or siblings should be present. d.perform the assessment from head to toes. a.allow the child to sit on the parent's lap. Deep palpation is used to a.identify abdominal contents. b.evaluate surface characteristics. c.elicit deep tendon reflexes. d.determine the density of a structure. a.identify abdominal contents. Amplitude is a.the intensity (soft or loud) of sound. b.the length of time the note lingers. c.the number of vibrations per second. d.the subjective difference in a sound's distinctive overtones. a.the intensity (soft or loud) of sound. The dorsa of the hands are used to determine a.vibration. b.temperature. c.position of an organ. d.fine tactile discrimination.

b.temperature. Fine tactile discrimination is best achieved with the a.opposition of the fingers and thumb. b.fingertips. c.back of the hands and fingers. d.base of the fingers. b.fingertips An ophthalmoscopic examination is an examination of the a.inner ear. b.pharynx. c.internal structures of the eye. d.nasal turbinates. c.internal structures of the eye. Which of the following is considered when preparing to examine an older adult? a.Base the pace of the examination on the patient's needs and abilities. b.Avoid physical touch to avoid making the older adult uncomfortable. c.Be aware that loss will result in poor coping mechanisms. d.Confusion is a normal, expected finding in an older adult. a.Base the pace of the examination on the patient's needs and abilities. When performing percussion, the examiner a.strikes the flank area with the palm of the hand. b.strikes the stationary finger at the distal interphalangeal joint. c.strikes the stationary finger at the proximal interphalangeal joint. d.taps fingertips over bony processes. b.strikes the stationary finger at the distal interphalangeal joint. At the end of the examination, the examiner should

a.complete documentation before leaving the examination room. b.have findings confirmed by another provider. c.compare objective and subjective data for discrepancies. d.review the findings with the patient. d.review the findings with the patient. The examiner should use handwashing instead of an alcohol-based hand rub a.if the patient has an infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. b.if the patient has an infection with Clostridium difficile. c.if the patient has an infection with hepatitis B virus. d.if the patient is HIV positive. b.if the patient has an infection with Clostridium difficile. The general survey consists of four distinct areas. These areas include a.mental status, speech, behavior, and mood and affect. b.gait, range of motion, mental status, and behavior. c.physical appearance, body structure, mobility, and behavior. d.level of consciousness, personal hygiene, mental status, and physical condition. c.physical appearance, body structure, mobility, and behavior. The nurse is completing a general survey assessing the level of consciousness of a person. Which of the following findings are expected in this assessment? a.Patient appears drowsy and is having difficulty answering questions. b.No signs of acute distress are present. c.Patient is alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation. d.Facial features symmetric with movement. c.Patient is alert and oriented to person, place, time, and situation. Data collection for the general survey begins a.at the first encounter. b.at the beginning of the physical examination.

c.while taking vital signs. d.during the mental status examination. a.at the first encounter. Which of the following assessments should be included as part of the body structure portion of the general survey? a.Stature, nutrition, and symmetry b.Sexual development, skin color, and overall appearance c.Gait and range of motion d.Facial expression, speech pattern, and dress a.Stature, nutrition, and symmetry The nurse documents the following findings for the behavioral portion of the general survey assessment, "patient demonstrates flat affect, lack of eye contact, hair not brushed, and strong body odor". The nurse should be concerned that the patient is displaying signs/symptoms of? a.Dysarthria b.Depression c.Seizures d.Bulimia b.Depression Endogenous obesity is a.due to inadequate secretion of cortisol by the adrenal glands. b.caused by excess adrenocorticotropin (ACTH) production by the pituitary gland. c.characterized by evenly distributed excess body fat. d.a result of excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood. b.caused by excess adrenocorticotropin (ACTH) production by the pituitary gland. An adult with a body mass index (BMI) less than 18.5 kg/m2 is considered which of the following?

a.Obesity b.Normal weight c.Underweight d.Overweight A person with a body mass index (BMI) less than 18.5 kg/m2 is classified as underweight. Classification of obesity is a body mass index (BMI) of 30 to 39. kg/m2. Classification of normal weight is a body mass index (BMI) of 18.5 to 24. kg/m2. Classification of overweight is a body mass index (BMI) of 25 to 29. kg/m2. c.Underweight A person with a body mass index (BMI) less than 18.5 kg/m2 is classified as underweight. Classification of obesity is a body mass index (BMI) of 30 to 39.9 kg/m2. Classification of normal weight is a body mass index (BMI) of 18.5 to 24.9 kg/m2. Classification of overweight is a body mass index (BMI) of 25 to 29.9 kg/m2. Physical appearance includes statements that compare appearance with a.mood and affect. b.stated age. c.gait. d.nutrition. b.stated age. Which of the following would be most appropriate when weighing an infant? a.Weigh the mother then have her hold the infant and subtract the mother's weight from the result. b.It's okay to weigh the infant fully dressed. c.The infant should be weighed undressed on a platform-type scale. d.If the infant can sit up, he/she can be weighed on a standard upright scale.

c.The infant should be weighed undressed on a platform-type scale. The nurse is completing a general survey for an older adult and notices the patient demonstrates a wider gait with short, uneven steps. Which of the following would be the most important action of the nurse? a.Document this as normal findings. b.Notify the physician immediately. c.Refer the patient to a geriatric health care specialist. d.Ask another nurse to assess the patient. a.Document this as normal findings. Which of the following is a normal range for a patient's temperature measured using an oral thermometer? a.36.2°C to 38.2°C b.36.5°C to 37.8°C c.37.5°C to 39.2°C d.34.0°C to 34.9°C b.36.5°C to 37.8°C This is the correct range for oral temperature. This range is the expected range for temperature measured using a rectal thermometer. A patient with an oral temperature in this range should be evaluated for other signs of hyperthermia (increased fever). An oral temperature less than 36.0°C is considered hypothermia. (96.8 to 100.4°F) A common error in blood pressure measurement is a.taking the blood pressure in an arm that is at the level of the heart. b.waiting less than 1 to 2 minutes before repeating the blood pressure reading on the same arm. c.deflating the cuff about 2 mm Hg per heartbeat.

d.using a blood pressure cuff whose bladder length is 80% of the arm circumference. b.waiting less than 1 to 2 minutes before repeating the blood pressure reading on the same arm. The Doppler technique a.is used to assess the apical pulse. b.amplifies Korotkoff sounds during blood pressure measurement. c.provides an easy and accurate measurement of the diastolic pressure. d.measures arterial oxygenation saturation. b.amplifies Korotkoff sounds during blood pressure measurement. The tympanic membrane thermometer (TMT) a.provides an accurate measurement of core body temperature. b.senses the infrared emissions of the cerebral cortex. c.is not used in unconscious patients. d.accurately measures temperature in 20 to 30 seconds. a.provides an accurate measurement of core body temperature. To perform an accurate assessment of respirations, the examiner should a.inform the person of the procedure and count for 1 minute. b.count for 15 seconds while keeping fingers on the pulse and then multiply by four. c.count for 30 seconds after completing a pulse assessment and multiply by two. d.assess respirations for a full 2 minutes if an abnormality is suspected. c.count for 30 seconds after completing a pulse assessment and multiply by two. An adult patient's pulse is 46 beats per minute. The term used to describe this rate is a.tachycardia. b.bradycardia.

c.weak and thready. d.sinus dysrhythmia. b.bradycardia The nurse records that the patient's pulse is 3+ or full and bounding. Which of the following could be the cause? a.Dehydration b.Shock c.Bleeding d.Anxiety d.Anxiety Which of the following respiratory rates recorded for an infant without chronic illness would require further interventions and assessment by the nurse? a. b. c. d. d. The nurse would need to complete further assessments and notify the physician for a respiratory rate of 55 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate greater than 50 would indicate tachypnea in an infant from 2 months to 12 months of age. Which technique would the nurse use to noninvasively assess arterial oxygen saturation? a.Pulse oximeter b.Respiratory rate c.Blood pressure d.Arterial blood gas a.Pulse oximeter

Pain signals are carried to the central nervous system by way of a.perception. b.afferent fibers. c.modulation. d.referred pain. b.afferent fibers. Which of the following is the most reliable indicator for chronic pain? a.Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) results b.Patient self-report c.Tissue enzyme levels d.Blood drug levels b.Patient self-report Which of the following statements regarding cultural/racial differences in the treatment of pain is true? a.White individuals receive more analgesic therapy than black or Hispanic individuals with similar symptoms. b.Black and Hispanic individuals have been found to have a higher pain tolerance than white individuals. c.Pain modulation is more highly developed in black and Hispanic individuals. d.Neurotransmitters are more concentrated in white individuals than in black and Hispanic individuals. a.White individuals receive more analgesic therapy than black or Hispanic individuals with similar symptoms. What occurs during transduction (the first phase of nociceptive pain)? a.Pain signals move from the site of origin to the spinal cord. b.The pain impulse moves from the spinal cord to the brain.

c.The brain interprets the pain signal. d.Chemical mediators are neutralized to decrease the perception of pain. a.Pain signals move from the site of origin to the spinal cord. What type of pain is short and self-limiting and dissipates after the injury heals? a.Chronic b.Persistent c.Acute d.Breakthrough c.Acute Neuropathic pain implies an abnormal a.degree of pain interpretation. b.processing of the pain message. c.transmission of pain signals. d.modulation of pain signals. b.processing of the pain message. What is the source of deep somatic pain? a.Skin and subcutaneous tissues b.Bones and joints c.Pancreas d.Intestine b.Bones and joints Which of the following has been found to influence pain sensitivity in women? a.Age b.Hormonal changes c.Parity d.Weight b.Hormonal changes

An older adult verbalizes to the nurse that he/she is having pain in his/her left wrist. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response by the nurse? a."Tell me more about the pain." b."It's nothing to worry about." c."Occasional pain is a normal part of getting older." d."We try to avoid prescribing pain medicine to older adults because they often become addicted." a."Tell me more about the pain." The nurse is completing an assessment of a nonverbal patient who had an appendectomy the previous day. The patient is restless, holding their hand over his abdomen, sweating, and vital signs are heart rate 100 bpm, respirations 20, blood pressure 135/90. Which of the following would be the most appropriate action by the nurse? a.Chart vital signs and assessment and determine normal findings. b.Ask the patient to nod "yes" or "no" and ask them if they are experiencing pain. c.Teach the patient the importance about getting out of bed and walking after surgery. d.Offer to turn on healing music. b.Ask the patient to nod "yes" or "no" and ask them if they are experiencing pain.