NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam Q & A (2022), Exams of Nursing

Download NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam Q & A (2022) and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

orepinephrin Platelets Formation o

NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology Final Exam

Q & A (2022)

Question 1 Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?Correct! 3339 Norepinephrine Norepinephrine Only the release of norepinephrine promotes arousal, increased vigilance, increased anxiety, and other protective emotional responses. Question 2 2 / 2 pts Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies attackingwhich type of cells? Platelets ITP is a disorder of platelet consumption. This selection is the only option that correctly identifies which type of cell is attacked by ITP. Question 3 When renin is released, it is capable of which action? Formation of angiotensin I Formation of angiotensin I

Platelets 60 to 80; 12 When renin is released, it cleaves an α-globulin (angiotensinogen produced by liver hepatocytes) in the plasma to form angiotensin I. Question 4 Which of the following are formed elements of the blood that are not cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments essential for blood clotting? Platelets Platelets Platelets (thrombocytes) are not true cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments that are essentialfor blood coagulation and control of bleeding. This description is not accurate for any of the other options. . Question 5 In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is days, whereas the adult erythrocyte life span is days. 60 to 80; 120 In full-term infants, normal erythrocyte life span is 60 to 80 days; in premature infants it may be as shortas 20 to 30 days; and in children and adolescents, it is 120 days, the same as that in adults. Question 6 2 / 2 pts

Autoantibod Fatigue Bone marro Graves disease is a result of: Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)-receptor sites In the hyperthyroidism (excessive thyroid activity) of Graves disease, autoantibody binds to and activates receptors for TSH (a pituitary hormone that controls the production of the hormone thyroxine by the thyroid). The other options do not accurately describe the cause of Graves disease. Question 7 What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? Fatigue Fatigue Fatigue is the most frequently reported symptom of cancer and cancer treatment. Although patientsreport the other options, they are not as frequently experienced as fatigue. Question 8 In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? Bone marrow

Hypocalcem 20% to 25% Bone marrow B lymphocytes mature and become B cells in specialized (primary) lymphoid organs—the thymus gland for T cells and the bone marrow for B cells. Neither regional lymph nodes nor the spleen are involved in changing B lymphocytes into B cells. Question 9 Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? Hypocalcemia Hypocalcemia Two clinical signs of hypocalcemia are the Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign. These clinical signs are not indicative of any of the other options. Question 10 On average, what percent of cardiac output do the kidneys receive? 20% to 25% 20% to 25% The kidneys are highly vascular organs and usually receive 1000 to 1200 ml of blood per minute, or approximately 20% to 25% of the cardiac output. Question 11

Erythropoiet Alloimmunit Which substance is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure? Erythropoietin Erythropoietin One of the most significant advances in the study of hematopoietic growth factors has been the development of erythropoietin for individuals with chronic renal failure. The other options are not associated with the treatment of chronic anemia. Question 12 When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs? Alloimmunity Alloimmunity Alloimmunity occurs when an individual’s immune system reacts against antigens on the tissues of other members of the same species. Sensitization against fetal antigens is not the cause of any other available option. . Question 13 Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer?

Pain is gene B lymphocy Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer. Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer. Pain is generally associated with the late stages of cancer. Pressure, obstruction, invasion of a structure sensitive to pain, stretching, tissue destruction, and inflammation can cause pain. Pain is not the initial symptom of cancer nor does it indication that the cancer has metastasized. Question 14 2 / 2 pts During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender? Correct! 43363 Blymphocytesproliferate. Blymphocytesproliferate. The B lymphocyte proliferation in response to significant antigen (e.g., during infection) may result in lymph node enlargement and tenderness (reactive lymph node). This description is not accurate for the other options. Question 15 Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis? Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens

Epithelial ce d Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens Cystic fibrosis is best described as a pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein- producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens. This selection is the only option that accurately describes cystic fibrosis. . Question 16 Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? Epithelial cells Epithelial cells Only cancers arising from epithelial cells are called carcinomas. . Question 17 What local complication of a gonococcal infection is diagnosed in approximately 10% of affected women? Acute salpingitis Pulmonary

Lipoma, lipo Acute salpingitis Acute salpingitis, or pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), is the most common local complication in women. Approximately 10% of women with untreated cervical gonorrhea develop PID. . Question 18 Which terms represent the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively? Lipoma, liposarcoma Lipoma, liposarcoma In general, cancers are named according to the cell type from which they originate (e.g., lip for cancers that originate in adipose or fat tissue), whereas benign tumors use the suffix -oma. Cancers arising from connective tissue usually have the suffix sarcoma. . Question 19 What provides the best estimate of the functioning of renal tissue? Correct! 37916 Glomerular filtration rate Acute salpi^ n

Essential am Human papi Glomerular filtration rate The glomerular filtration rate provides the best estimate of the level of functioning of renal tissue. Theother options are not used to assess renal tissue function. . Question 20 Children with phenylketonuria (PKU) are unable to synthesize: Correct! 97971 Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine PKU is an inborn error of metabolism characterized by the inability of the body to convert the essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine. PKU does not affect synthesis of the other options. Question 21 Which of the following causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts? Human papillomavirus (HPV) Glomerular^ f

Autosomal Cortex Human papillomavirus (HPV) Genital warts are quite contagious and are a result of only HPV. Question 22 Cystic fibrosis is caused by which process? Correct! 57529 Autosomal recessive inheritance Autosomal recessive inheritance Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder that is associated with defective epithelial ion transport. None of the other options cause cystic fibrosis. Question 23 The area of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli and portions of the tubules is called the: Cortex Cortex The cortex contains all the glomeruli and portions of the tubules of the kidneys. Although the other options are also located in the kidney, they do not contain the glomeruli.

Posterior pit Infectivity

.

Question 24 The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland? Posterior pituitary Posterior pituitary ADH, which is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland, controls the concentration of the final urine.ADH is not secreted by any of the other options. Question 25 The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as: Infectivity Infectivity Infectivity is the ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host. The other options do not accurately denote the pathogen’s ability to invade and multiply in the host. . Question 26

Physiologic Insulin In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: Physiologic hormonal delays Physiologic hormonal delays In 95% of children with delayed puberty, the delay is physiologic; that is, hormonal levels are normal and the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is intact, but maturation is slowly happening. This option is the only answer that accurately describes the most common cause of delayed puberty. Question 27 Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone? Insulin Insulin Peptide or protein hormones, such as insulin, pituitary, hypothalamic, and parathyroid, are water soluble and circulate in free (unbound) forms. All the remaining options are fat-soluble hormones. . Question 28 Having ejected a mature ovum, the ovarian follicle develops into a(n):

Health histo Corpus luteum u Corpus luteum Having ejected a mature ovum, the only resulting structure is the corpus luteum. Question 29 The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is: Health history Health history Although the history may be supplemented with the remaining options, it remains the pivotal tool for establishing the cause of a seizure disorder. Question 30 The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are: Obesity and positive family history Corpus lute

Joint capsul Obesity and positive family history The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are positive family history and obesity. The other options are not believed to be important risk factors for this form of diabetes. Question 31 It is true that myasthenia gravis: Causes muscle weakness. s Causes muscle weakness. Exertional fatigue and weakness that worsens with activity, improves with rest, and recurs with resumption of activity characterizes myasthenia gravis. None of the other options are true of myasthenia gravis. Question 32 What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly suppliedwith nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels? Jointcapsule Jointcapsule Causes mu Obesity and

IgA Dysfunction The joint capsule is made up of parallel, interlacing bundles of dense, white fibrous tissue. It is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels. None of the other options are associated with this structure. Question 33 The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin? Correct! 2610 IgA IgA Mucosal secretions from the cervix contain enzymes and antibodies—predominantly IgA. Question 34 Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and thedepletion of iron stores support which diagnosis? Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Unpredictable and variable bleeding, in terms of amount and duration, characterize dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Especially during perimenopause, dysfunctional bleeding also may involve flooding and the passage of large clots, which often indicate excessive blood loss. Excessive bleeding can lead to iron- deficiency anemia. This option is the only answer that demonstrates the clinical manifestations described.

Periorbital e Toxoplasmo Question 35 What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children? Periorbital edema Periorbital edema Onset of nephritic syndrome is insidious, with periorbital edema as the first sign of the disorder. None ofthe other options represent the first indication of nephritic syndrome in children. Question 36 What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Toxoplasmosis Toxoplasmosis Toxoplasmosis is the most common opportunistic infection and occurs in approximately one third of individuals with AIDS. Cytomegalovirus encephalitis is common in those with AIDS but is often not diagnosed while the person is alive. Other neoplasms associated with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) include systemic non-Hodgkin lymphoma and metastatic Kaposi sarcoma. Question 37

Limbic syste Sudden incr What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain?Correct! 72654 Limbicsystem Limbicsystem The limbic and reticular tracts are involved in alerting the body to danger, initiating arousal of the organism, and emotionally processing the perceived afferent signals, not just as stimuli, but also as pain.The remaining options do not fulfill this objective. Question 38 What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle? Sudden increase of LH Sudden increase of LH Menstrual cyclicity and regular ovulation are dependent on (1) the activity of the gonadostat (GnRH pulse generator); (2) the pituitary secretion of gonadotropins; and (3) estrogen (estradiol)–positive feedback for the preovulatory LH and FSH surges, oocyte maturation, and corpus luteum formation. Question 39 Transcription is best defined as a process by which:

RNA is synt SSRIs RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. Transcription is the process by which RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. The correct option is theonly one that accurately defines the term transcription. Question 40 Considering the mediating factors of premenstrual syndrome (PMS), which medication may be usedeither continually or only during the menstrual period as a treatment for the condition? SSRIs SSRIs A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) (an antidepressant) relieves symptoms in approximately 60% to 90% of women and may be continually administered or only prescribed during the premenstrual period. Oral contraceptive pills that contain estrogen and progesterone also can be continuously used forup to 3 months to decrease the frequency of menstrual periods, PMS, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Nonsteriodal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) would not be continually administered. Question 41 Pinkeye is characterized by inflammation of which structure?

Conjunctiva Embolic Conjunctiva Conjunctiva Acute bacterial conjunctivitis (pinkeye) is an inflammation of the conjunctiva (mucous membrane covering the front part of the eyeball). The other structures are not affected by this inflammation. Question 42 Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke? Embolic Embolic High-risk sources for the onset of embolic stroke are atrial fibrillation (15% to 25% of strokes), left ventricular aneurysm or thrombus, left atrial thrombus, recent myocardial infarction, rheumatic valvular disease, mechanical prosthetic valve, nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis, bacterial endocarditis, patent foramen ovale, and primary intracardiac tumors. These are not risk factors for the other options provided. Question 43 Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease are caused by a deficit in which of the brain’s neurotransmitters?

Dopamine Leptin Dopamine Dopamine Parkinson disease is a commonly occurring degenerative disorder involving deficits of dopamine, not of any of the other options. Question 44 Which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty? Leptin Leptin Sensitivity to leptin, which regulates appetite and energy metabolism, increases during puberty; in theory, the adolescent consumes more calories to meet the caloric needs of the pubertal growth spurt. The percent of body fat and leptin levels in girls continue to increase, whereas muscle mass increases in boys. No apparent link exists between increased appetite during puberty and any of the other options. Question 45 Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection?Vaginal pH becomes more acidic. b Vaginal pH becomesmore acidic. Vaginal pH

Parathyroid At puberty, the pH becomes more acidic (4 to 5) and the squamous epithelial lining thickens. These changes are maintained until menopause (cessation of menstruation), at which time the pH rises againto more alkaline levels and the epithelium thins out. Therefore protection from infection is greatest during the years when a woman is most likely to be sexually active. Estrogen does not play a role in infection protection. Question 46 Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels? Correct! 8830 Parathyroid hormone(PTH) Parathyroid hormone(PTH) The parathyroid glands produce PTH, a regulator of serum calcium; therefore the other options are incorrect. Question 47 Which medication compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis? Pancreatic enzymes e Pancreatic enzymes Pancreatic

Is preceded Intussuscep Pancreatic replacement enzymes are administered before or with meals, and high-calorie, high- protein diets with frequent snacks and vitamin supplements are used to treat the deficiency. These statements are not true of the other options. Question 48 It is true that Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS): Is preceded by a viral illness. Is preceded by a viral illness. GBS is considered to be an autoimmune disease triggered by a preceding bacterial or viral infection.None of the other options are true of GBS. Question 49 An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that the infant passed a normal stool, followed by one that looked like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect? Intussusception Intussusception Based on these data, the nurse should suspect intussusception. A single normal stool may be passed, evacuating the colon distal to the apex of the intussusception. After passing a normal stool, 60% of

Failure to ov Anterior pitu infants will pass “currant jelly” stools, which appear dark and gelatinous because of their blood and mucus content. Intussusception is the only option that describes the symptoms listed. Question 50 Which condition is considered a clinical cause of amenorrhea? Failure to ovulate Failure to ovulate Depressed ovarian hormone levels, which are associated with a variety of clinical disorders, also cause amenorrhea by preventing ovulation. This option is the only answer that accurately identifies a clinical cause of cycle irregularities. Question 51 Which anatomic structure secretes follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)? Anterior pituitary Anterior pituitary The anterior pituitary is the gland that secretes FSH and LH. Question 52

Ankylosing Pressure on Which medical diagnosis is described as a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffeningand fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints? Correct! 92746 Ankylosing spondylitis Ankylosing spondylitis Of the options available, only ankylosing spondylitis (spondyloarthritis) is described as a chronic, inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion (ankylosis) of the spine and sacroiliac joints. Question 53 How can glaucoma cause blindness? Pressure on the optic nerve Pressure on the optic nerve Loss of visual acuity as a result of pressure on the optic nerve is the only reason glaucoma can result in blindness. Question 54 Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer?

Human papi Osmotic Human papillomavirus (HPV) Human papillomavirus (HPV) Infection with high-risk (oncogenic) types of HPV (predominantly 16 and 18) is a necessary precursor to the development of precancerous dysplasia of the cervix that leads to invasive cancer. The other optionsIare not precursors to CIN and cervical cancer. Question 55 Which type of diarrhea results from lactose intolerance? Osmotic Osmotic The malabsorption of lactose results in osmotic diarrhea, in which fluids move by osmosis from the vascular compartment into the intestinal lumen. Of the available options, this selection is the only typeof diarrhea that results from lactose intolerance. Question 56 Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain? GCT