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NR507/ NR 507 Midterm: Advanced Pathophysiology Study Guide with Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

A comprehensive study guide for the nr507/ nr 507 midterm exam in advanced pathophysiology. It covers key concepts related to innate immunity, hypersensitivity reactions, and various types of anemia. The guide includes questions and answers, providing a valuable resource for students preparing for the exam.

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2024/2025

Available from 02/12/2025

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NR507/ NR 507 Midterm
Advanced Pathophysiology |
Complete Guide with Questions and Verified
Answers| 100% Correct |Grade A Chamberlain
Innate immunity -
ANSWER>>
>>the immunity we are born with
Immune response: 3 levels/lines of protection -
ANSWER>>
>>1 st line: physical,
mechanical, & biochemical barriers
2nd line: the inflammatory response
3rd line: lymphocyte production
most important immune defense -
ANSWER>>
(impermeable barrier)
PAMP -
ANSWER>>
>>pathogen associated molecular pattern
surfaces of bacteria, viruses, and other microbes are covered with many foreign proteins
foreign
DAMP -
ANSWER>>
>>damage associated molecular pattern
many proteins are released from inside our cells when they are damaged
foreign
PRR -
ANSWER>>
>>pattern recognition receptors
surfaces of WBCs contain these receptor sites
-continuously interact with any material they encounter to ID it as "self" or "non-self" (foreign;
PAMP or DAMP)
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Download NR507/ NR 507 Midterm: Advanced Pathophysiology Study Guide with Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NR507/ NR 507 Midterm

Advanced Pathophysiology |

Complete Guide with Questions and Verified

Answers| 100% Correct |Grade A – Chamberlain

Innate immunity - ANSWER>> >>the immunity we are born with

Immune response: 3 levels/lines of protection - ANSWER>> >>1 st line: physical, mechanical, & biochemical barriers

2nd line: the inflammatory response

3rd line: lymphocyte production

most important immune defense - ANSWER>> >> intact skin and mucous membranes (impermeable barrier)

PAMP - ANSWER>> >>pathogen associated molecular pattern

surfaces of bacteria, viruses, and other microbes are covered with many foreign proteins

foreign

DAMP - ANSWER>> >>damage associated molecular pattern

many proteins are released from inside our cells when they are damaged

foreign

PRR - ANSWER>> >>pattern recognition receptors

surfaces of WBCs contain these receptor sites -continuously interact with any material they encounter to ID it as "self" or "non-self" (foreign; PAMP or DAMP)

Chemotaxis - ANSWER>> >> Cell movement that occurs in response to chemical stimulus

Phagocytosis - ANSWER>> >>"cell eating"

1. opsonization and adherence

2. engulfment - WBC surrounds and ingests Ag

3. Fusion of phagosome with lysosome

4. destruction - phagosome digested by lysozyme, H202, acids, and other toxic chemicals

inside the lysosomes

5. egestion

Hypersensitivity Type 1:_____ - ANSWER>> >>Allergic reaction

Hypersensitivity: Type 1 Mediated by ______ - ANSWER>> >>IgE

Hypersensitivity: Type 1 Inflammation due to _____________ - ANSWER>> >>mast cell degranulation

Hypersensitivity: Type 1 local symptoms - ANSWER>> >>itching, rash

Hypersensitivity: Type 1 systemic symptoms - ANSWER>> >>wheezing

Hypersensitivity: Type 1 most dangerous form - ANSWER>> >>anaphylactic reaction-systemic response- hypotension, severe bronchoconstriction

Hypersensitivity: Type 1 main treatment ___________ - ANSWER>> >>epinephrine

Hypersensitivity Type 2: _________________ - ANSWER>> >> Cytotoxic reaction; tissue specific (example: thyroid tissue) hapten causes mediation of IgE or IgM

Hypersensitivity: Type 2 Primary effector cells involved - ANSWER>> >>macrophages

(MHC) alleles or non-MHC genes

Alloimmunity - ANSWER>> >>AKA isoimmunity immune system of one individual produces a reaction against tissues of another individual

Alloimmunity examples - ANSWER>> >>Neonatal disease where the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus -Transplant rejection -Transfusion reaction

Hypersensitivity: Type 4 - ANSWER>> >>Tcell mediated delayed response

Does not involve antigen/antibody complexes

Hypersensitivity: Type 4 typical reaction - ANSWER>> >>localized contact dermatitis (symptoms usually occur a few days later)

Differentiating between type 1 and type 4 rash reactions - ANSWER>> >> Type I: IMMEDIATE hypersensitivity reactions, termed atopic dermatitis, are usually characterized by widely distributed lesions

Type 4: contact dermatitis (DELAYED hypersensitivity) consists of lesions only at the site of contact with the allergen -Example: poison ivy

How to treat Type 4 hypersensitivity rash - ANSWER>> >>nonsevere case of contact dermatitis: tx with topical corticosteroid

How to treat emergent Type 1 anaphylactic reactions - ANSWER>> >>epinephrine

Antihistamines act on _____________ - ANSWER>> >>H1 receptors

Primary immune deficiency - ANSWER>> >>congenital -caused generally by a genetic abnormality 60% of cases, symptoms within first 2 years of life

most primary immune deficiencies are the result of ______________ - ANSWER>> >>single gene defects

one of the most severe forms of primary immunodeficiency - ANSWER>> >>B- lymphocyte deficiency

secondary immune deficiency - ANSWER>> >>acquired -caused by illness, such as cancer or viral infection -caused by normal physiological changes, such as aging -more common than congenital

most common cause of secondary immunodeficiency worldwide - ANSWER>> >>malnutrition

most common symptom of immune deficiencies - ANSWER>> >> recurrent severe infections

hematopoiesis - ANSWER>> >>blood cell formation

most of our body's iron stores come from ____________________________ - ANSWER>> >>the recycling of iron from old RBCs

erythropoiesis - ANSWER>> >>formation of red blood cells (7 day process)

lab values for: Iron Deficiency Anemia - ANSWER>> >>Serum ferritin level: Decreased RBC distribution width: Increased Serum iron level: Decreased Total iron-binding capacity: Increased Transferrin saturation: Decreased

lab values for: Thalassemia - ANSWER>> >>Serum ferritin level: Increased RBC distribution width: Normal to incrased Serum iron level: Normal to increased Total iron-binding capacity: Normal Transferrin saturation: Normal to increased

lab values for: Anemia of Chronic Disease - ANSWER>> >> Serum ferritin level: Normal to increased RBC distribution width: Normal Serum iron level: Normal to decreased Total iron-binding capacity: Slightly decreased

Major lab marker for anemia - ANSWER>> >> Increased RBC distribution width (RDW) is one of the earliest lab markers in developing microcytic or macrocytic anemia

Folate deficiency can cause a _______________ - ANSWER>> >> megaloblastic anemia

megaloblastic anemia - ANSWER>> >>a blood disorde r characterized by anemia in which the red blood cells are larger than normal

who is at risk for folate deficiency - ANSWER>> >>alcoholics

Symptoms of Vit B12 deficiency - ANSWER>> >>Fatigue Dyspnea Peripheral neuropathy in BLE

Vit B12 deficiency risk factors - ANSWER>> >>older adults H-pylori infection vegan (its in meat, fish, poultry, dairy)

Hemolytic anemia - ANSWER>> >>anemia caused by the destruction of red blood cells -mismatched blood types-destroys RBCs (cytotoxic type 2) -autoimmune hemolytic anemia due to autoantibodies against erythrocytes the immune system perceives as an antigen and attacks -Allergic reaction to a drug

Trauma victims who are losing blood are at risk for what type of anemia? - ANSWER>> >>Acute blood loss anemia

a normocytic-normochromic type of anemia

Aplastic anemia is characterized by: __________ Dx: ___ - ANSWER>> >>failure of bone marrow to produce red blood cells Dx made by blood tests and bone marrow biopsy -granulocyte count < -platelet count <20,

  • absolute reticulocyte count ≤ 40x109/L

Aplastic anemia is a __________-__________ type of anemia - ANSWER>> >>

Sickle Cell Anemia - ANSWER>> >>Hemoglobinopathy Inherited autosomal recessive genetic disorder Inherit 2 abnormal genes, one from each parent, if only one abnormal Hb gene inherited then person has sickle cell trait

Sickle cell anemia pathophysiology: _______________________ - ANSWER>> >>single amino acid change on beta-chain (valine replaces glutamic acid)

Sickle cell anemia increases the risk for: - ANSWER>> >>stroke and splenic damage

Thalassemia - ANSWER>> >>Hemoglobinopathy Inherited autosomal recessive genetic disorder that causes decreased circulating hemoglobin -abnormal gene from both parents

Thalassemia has __________genetic mutations - ANSWER>> >>many possible

Thalassemia relation to malaria - ANSWER>> >> abnormal RBCs are more resistant to infection by parasite that causes malaria, shortened life span doesn't allow malaria parasite to complete life cycle *more prevalent in Africa

Anatomy of Heart: Flow through heart (Valves in order) - ANSWER>> >>. Tricuspid valve

2. Pulmonary valve

3. Mitral valve (Bicuspid)

4. Aortic valve

Blood flow through the heart: - ANSWER>> >>1-Superior & Inferior Vena Cava 2-Rt Atrium 3-Tricuspid Valve 4- Rt Ventricle 5-Pulmonary Valve 6-Pulmonary Artery 7- Lungs-pick up oxygen 8-Pulmonary Veins

9- Lt Atrium

10- Mitral Valve (Bicuspid)

Hemorrhage can ___________ afterload due to decreased volume - ANSWER>> >>decrease

Increased preload __________ stroke volume (in the healthy heart)-the heart is able to __________ to the extra volume. - ANSWER>> >>increases, compensate

__________ preload caused by hemorrhage, dehydration-anything that reduces blood volume - ANSWER>> >>Decreased

Types of heart failure - ANSWER>> >>Left heart failure (CHF) Right heart failure (Cor Pulmonale) High-output failure

Left heart failure - ANSWER>> >>Inability of left ventricl e to provide adequate blood flow into systemic circulation

Causes of left heart failure - ANSWER>> >>systemic hypertension (most common) LV MI LV hypertrophy (often secondary to cardiac damage) Aortic semilunar or bicuspid valve damage Secondary to right heart failure

Left heart failure process - ANSWER>> >>1. high systemic vasular pressure

2. increase LV contraction force (increase afterload)

3. LV unable to eject normal amount of blood

4. increase LV preload

5. LA unable to eject normal amount of blood

6. Increase LA preload

7. Increase blood volume and pressure in pulmonary veins

8. fluid forced out into pulmonary tissues -pulmonary edema, dyspnea

-right heart failure=biventricular heart failure

underlying pathophysiology of heart failure - ANSWER>> >> less cardiac output to meet bodys oxygen demands

heart failure: over time there is decreased _________, decreases __________, increased ____________________________. - ANSWER>> >> contractility, stroke volume, left ventricular end-diastolic volume (LVEDV)

When contractility is decreased, stroke volume falls, and left ventricular end-diastolic volume (LVEDV) increases. This causes dilation of the heart and an increase in __________ - ANSWER>> >>preload

Heart failure: major risk factor in its development - ANSWER>> >>longstanding hypertension Sometime right-sided heart failure can occur without there being left-sided heart failure; This usually occurs because the person has _________________________________. - ANSWER>> >>long-standing pulmonary issues (COPD)

Right heart failure - ANSWER>> >> Inability of RV to provide adequate blood flow into pulmonary circulation

Right heart failure causes - ANSWER>> >>pulmonary disease RV MI RV hypertrophy pulmonary semilunar valve or tricuspid valve damage Secondary to left heart failure

Characteristic of right heart failure - ANSWER>> >>JVD

Right heart failure process - ANSWER>> >>1. high pulmonary vascular pressure

2. increase RV contraction force (increase afterload)

3. RV unable to empty completely

4. increase RV preload

5. RA unable to empty completely

6. increase RA preload

7. increase vena cava and systemic venous volume and pressure

8. fluid forced out into peripheral tissues

-jugular distension, hepatosplenomegaly, peripheral edema -Left heart failure = biventricular heart failure

High-Output Failure (HOF) - ANSWER>> >> Inability of heart to pump sufficient amounts of blood to meet the circulatory needs of the body, despite the normal blood volume and cardiac contractility

High-output failure causes - ANSWER>> >>severe anemia nutritional deficiencies hyperthyroidism

NYHA Functional Classification - ANSWER>> >>Stage I: mild - no limitation of physical activity

Stage II: mild - slight limitation of physical activity Stage III: moderate - marked decrease in physical activity

Stage IV: severe - inability to carry on any physical activity without discomfort

Mitral stenosis murmur characteristics - ANSWER>> >>-rumbling, decrescendo diastolic murmur heard at apex of heart -low-pitched murmur auscultated at apex of heart -opening snap

mitral stenosis s/s - ANSWER>> >>As it progresses, symptoms of decreased CO occur: SOB exercise intolerance JVD crackles in bases pulmonary congestion/edema cough fatigue pounding/racing heart

mitral regurgitation murmur characteristic - ANSWER>> >>-blowing, holosystolic murmur -blowing pansystolic murmur heard best at the hearts apex and radiates to the back and axilla

Mitral regurgitation s/s - ANSWER>> >>SOB JVD crackles in bases

aortic stenosis murmur characteristic - ANSWER>> >>mid-systolic crescendo- decrescendo murmur heard loudest at the base and radiating to the neck

aortic regurgitation presents with - ANSWER>> >>-early, high pitched diastolic decrescendo murmur heard loudest at the left lower sternal border

aortic regurgitation s/s - ANSWER>> >>fatigue syncope SOB palpitations

wide pulse pressure (SBP-DBP) LV dilation -can have extra heart sound (S3) or displaced PMI

chest xray may show signs of pulmonary edema and cardiomegaly with what type of heart valve disorder? - ANSWER>> >>aortic regurgitation

mitral valve prolapse (MVP) s/s - ANSWER>> >>-many asymptomatic -atypical chest pain -palpitations -SOB -mid-systolic click certain arrhythmias mitral valve prolapse increases the risk for: - ANSWER>> >>infective endocarditis progression to mitral regurgitation

Fainting and chest pressure upon exercising are symptoms of ___________. - ANSWER>> >>aortic stenosis

Aortic stenosis has __________, laterally displaced ___________. - ANSWER>> >>sustained, apical pulse

what kind of heart valve disorder will have a S4 gallop present - ANSWER>> >> aortic stenosis

Spirometry that indicates obstructive pulmonary disease - ANSWER>> >> decreased FEV low FEV1/FEV ratio <70%

Spirometry that indicates restrictive pulmonary disease - ANSWER>> >> FEV1/FVC ratio above 70%

Asthma - ANSWER>> >>obstructive pulmonary disease airways are constricted two forms: intrinsic or extrinsic

asthma characterized by: - ANSWER>> >>airway inflammation bronchial hyperreactivity and smooth muscle spasm

Diagnostic PFT for COPD - ANSWER>> >> reveals airway obstruction (decreased FEV1) that is progressive and unresponsive to bronchodilators

COPD consists of _______ and _______ - ANSWER>> >> chronic bronchitis and emphysema

risk factors for COPD - ANSWER>> >>smoking airborne irritants -air pollutants, chemical fumes, dust anything that affects lung growth during gestation - smoking, antibiotic use, preterm, air pollution inherited mutation of alpha-antitrypsin gene -genetic cause of COPD

COPD has decreased _______ due to expiratory airway obstruction from ______________________ - ANSWER>> >> decreased FVC, mucus, edema, loss of elastic recoil

COPD causes air trapping in the lungs which leads to: - ANSWER>> >> chest to hyper expand causing increased work of breathing -hypoventilation -hypercapnia

COPD chest xray reveal - ANSWER>> >>flattened diaphragm distended lung fields increased thoracic diameter

COPD GOLD staging - ANSWER>> >> GOLD guidelines are based on the degree of airway limitation: Gold 1: Mild - FEV1 ≥ 80% predicted Gold 2: Moderate - 50% ≤ FEV1 < 80% predicted Gold 3: Severe - 30% ≤ FEV1 < 50% predicted Gold 4: Very Severe - < 30% predicted

perfusion - ANSWER>> >> the actual exchange of O2 and CO2 in the bloodstream -occurs via the alveoli and pulmonary capillaries

ventilation - ANSWER>> >>air movement in/out of the lung -critical to ensure sufficient perfusion

damage from Emphysema occurs in the ___________ - ANSWER>> >>alveoli

emphysema impairs _________ - ANSWER>> >>gas exchange

emphysema s/s - ANSWER>> >>air trapping pursed-lip breathing increased A&P diameter barrel chest prolonged expiration dyspnea

damage from chronic bronchitis occurs in the __________ - ANSWER>> >>airway dyspnea wheezing rhonchi chronic bronchitis s/s - ANSWER>> >>Productive cough with copious amount of sputum cyanosis of the skin and mucus membranes prolonged expiration

chronic bronchitis characterized by: - ANSWER>> >>chronic productive cough: -persisting for at least 3 consecutive months for at least 2 successive years bronchial inflammation hypersecretion of mucus

Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) is what type of immunodificiency? - ANSWER>> >>Primary immunodeficiency

what is a predominant cause of secondary immune deficiency worldwide? - ANSWER>> >>malnutrition

Pneumocystis Carinii is what type of immunodeficiency? - ANSWER>> >> secondary immunodeficiency -caused by something external to immune system (yeast-like fungus)

contact dermatitis is an example of type ______ hypersensitivity reaction - ANSWER>> >>type 4

"first responders" of the innate immune system - ANSWER>> >>neutrophils -appear 1st in any immune response anaphylaxis is an example of a type ____ hypersensitivity reaction - ANSWER>> >> type 1

antigens

anemia types are classified by: - ANSWER>> >>size -normocytic, microcytic, macrocytic color -normochromic, hypochromic, hyperchromic variability -anisocytosis (size), poikilocytosis (shape) sideroblastic thalassemia microcytic-hypochromic anemias - ANSWER>> >>iron deficiency

microcytic-normochromic - ANSWER>> >>anemia of inflammation and chronic disease

microcytic-hyperchromic - ANSWER>> >>hereditary spherocytosis infection transfusion reaction causes of hemolytic anemia - ANSWER>> >>RBC's are destroyed: hemolytic disease of newborn (Rh incompatability) Autoimmune reaction drug-induced

aplastic anemia - ANSWER>> >>failure of blood cell production in the bone marrow

what valve disorder is associated with a hx of rheumatic heart disease - ANSWER>> >>mitral stenosis

an ECG may demonstrate atrial fibrillation and left ventricular hypertrophy in _______ - ANSWER>> >>mitral stenosis

4 main categories of interstitial lung diseases (ILD) - ANSWER>> >>ExposureRelated ILD Connective Tissue Disease Idiopathic Interstitial Pneumonias Other ILDs ILDs observed almost solely in current or past smokers - ANSWER>> >> Respiratory bronchiolitis-interstitial lung disease (RB-ILD) Desquamative interstitial pneumonia (DIP) Pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis

Meds that can cause Medication-Induced ILD - ANSWER>> >>Amiodarone Nitrofurantoin Methotrexate

ILD s/s - ANSWER>> >>dyspnea non-productive cough hypoxemia fine (velcro-like) crackles fever clubbing extrapulmonary symptoms hemoptysis, chest pain, wheezing -relatively uncommon but can occur

interstitial lung disease (ILD) excludes: - ANSWER>> >> infectious and neoplastic diseases alterations of alveolar and airway architecture ILD characterized by: - ANSWER>> >>interstitial inflammation and fibrosis -scarring around alveolar sacs

ILD 4 diagnostic tests - ANSWER>> >>1. High resolution chest CT

2. PFT

3. Bronchoalveolar lavage

4. lung biopsy

What are the most diagnosed ILD's - ANSWER>> >>Radiation pneumonitis Pneumoconioses Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis