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NR507NP Midterm Exam Questions with Answers 2024/2025 Latest Updates
Typology: Exams
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Anaphylaxis. Asthma. Angioedema. Reactive airway disease.: Anaphylaxis
9. Damage occurs with ABO incompatibility because: Complement damages RBC membrane causing cell lysis. Mast cell degranulation. Autoantibodies specific for thyroid tissue impairs the receptors for TSH. Antigen/Antibody complexes attack the RBC.: Complement damages RBC membrane causing cell lysis 10. Which is true about a primary immunodeficiency? It is the result of a single gene defect. It appears primarily in older adults. It is usually inherited. It is the result of multiple gene defects.: It is the result of a single gene defect.
Familial Mediterranean Fever. Pneumocystis Carinii.: Pneumocystis Carinii.
13. An example of a primary immunodeficiency is: Sinus Infection. Human Immunodeficiency virus. Pneumonia. Chronic Granulomatous Disease.: Chronic Granulomatous Disease 14.True or False: Cancer is a secondary immunodeficiency.: True 15.Sinusitis is considered a primary immunodeficiency.?: False 16. Select the best statement below that describes a primary immunodeficien- cy: Are less common and occur due to a defect on the development of the immune system. Conditions where the immune system becomes compromised because of something else.: Are less common and occur due to a defect on the development of the immune system. 17. A patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) was admitted to the acute care facility with difficulty breathing. He is diagnosed with Pneumocytis carinii. Pneumocystis carinii an example of: A primary immune disease. A secondary immune disease.: A secondary immune disease 18. The major immune system change associated with Sjogren's Syndrome
is: Autoantibodies and auto-reactive T-cells against apoptotic cells. Autoantibodies and auto-reactive T-cells and B-cells against joint-associated antigens. Autoantibodies and auto-reactive T-cells against brain antigens.
Autoantibodies and auto-active T-cells against DNA and nucleoprotein anti- gens: Autoantibodies and auto-reactive T-cells against apoptotic cells.
19. Which of the following findings can be used to diagnose Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)? Facial rash confined to the cheeks. Low back pain. Fever. Headache.: Facial rash confined to the cheeks. 20.The test is positive in 90% of patients diagnosed with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE).: Antinuclear Antibody (ANA) 21. A renal disease most often associated with autoimmunity is: Cystitis. Renal lithiasis. Urinary Tract Infection. Glomerulonephritis.: Glomerulonephritis. 22. The presence of a low number of autoantibodies is an indicator that the individual will develop an autoimmune disease. True False: False 23. The following immune components can be involved in autoimmune dis- eases: T-Cells, B-cells and autoantibodies. True
False: true
24. Which of the following assessment findings would support a diagnosis of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)? Muscle weakness and ataxia. Inflammation in the salivary and lacrimal glands. A butterfly rash across the facial cheeks. Swollen metacarpophalangeal joints.: Swollen metacarpophalangeal joints. 25. The presenting signs and symptoms of an autoimmune disease is similar across all autoimmune diseases. True False: False 26. Which of the following indices measures the average size of red blood cells? Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV). Hemoglobin (Hb). Reticulocyte count. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC).: Mean Corpuscular Vol- ume (MCV). 27. Which of the following is not a clinical characteristic of anemia? Pallor Bradycardia Dyspnea Fatigue: Bradycardia 28. Which of the following microcytic anemias is characterized by
hyper- chromic RBCs? Folate deficiency. Hereditary spherocytosis. Iron deficiency. B12 deficiency.: Hereditary spherocytosis.
29. Anemia can be caused from which of the following? (Select all that apply.) Impaired red blood cell production. Increased red blood cell destruction. Excessive blood loss.: Impaired red blood cell production. Increased red blood cell destruction. Excessive blood loss. 30. The terms normocytic, microcytic, and macrocytic characterizes red blood cells by their: Shape Color Size Variability: size 31. Identification of the type of anemia involves an examination of size of the RBC only. True
False: False
32. Which of the following would normocytic-normochromic indicate? The cell is normal in size, but low in hemoglobin level The cell is abnormal in size and abnormal in hemoglobin level The cell is abnormal in shape, but normal in hemoglobin level The cell is normal in size and normal in hemoglobin level: The cell is normal in size and normal in hemoglobin level 33. Which of the following is a type of macrocytic anemia? Thalassemia. Iron-deficiency anemia. Anemia of chronic disease. Vitamin B-12 deficiency.: Vitamin B-12 deficiency. 34. Which of the following anemias can be categorized as microcyt- ic-hypochromic? (Select all that apply.) Anemia of inflammation and chronic disease. Sideroblastic anemia. Iron deficiency anemia.: Anemia of inflammation and chronic disease. Sideroblastic anemia. Iron deficiency anemia. 35.The most common type of anemia is : Iron deficien- cy anemia 36. The treatment of iron deficiency anemia includes:
Blood transfusions. Vitamin-B-12 replacement. Ferritin replacement. Iron supplementation.: Iron supplementation.
37. Which of the following would indicate that the patient's iron stores are depleted? Ferritin level. Total iron binding capacity. Total RBC count. Vitamin-B-12 level.: Ferritin level. 38. A transferrin deficiency will most likely result in: Iron-deficiency anemia. Aplastic anemia. Pernicious anemia. Hemolytic anemia.: Iron-deficiency anemia. 39. The basic pathophysiology of iron deficiency anemia is that there are insufficient iron levels or the inability of the cell's mitochondria to utilize iron effectively. True False: true 40. Which of the following are iron-rich
foods? Spinach. Lima beans. Meat.: Spinach. Lima beans. Meat.
41. Although less common, transferrin deficiencies and mitochondrial defects can lead to iron deficiency anemia. True False: true 42. Loss of vibratory sense in a patient with Vitamin B-12 deficiency is due to which of the following pathophysiological changes: Cellular atrophy. Posterior and lateral column spinal cord changes due to nerve demyelination. Changes in cerebellar brain function. Myelopathy.: Posterior and lateral column spinal cord changes due to nerve de- myelination. 43. One of the common precipitating factors of folate deficiency is alcohol abuse. True False: True 44. A deficiency of intrinsic factor will result in:
Pernicious anemia Iron deficiency anemia Anemia of chronic disease Aplastic anemia: Pernicious anemia
45. Folic acid is essential to the body because it: Prevents cardiovascular disease. Allows for the production of erythropoietin. Plays a major role in the maturing of RBCs. Impacts the absorption of vitamin B-12.: Plays a major role in the maturing of RBCs. 46. Which of the following lab values will be low in a patient with folate deficiency? Reticulocyte count. Ferritin. MCV. MCHC.: Reticulocyte count. 47.The lab values will be normal in a patient with pernicious anemia: MCHC 48. Which of the following will be elevated in a patient with pernicious
anemia? MCV. Reticulocyte count. Folate. Serum B-12.: MCV 49.In a patient with pernicious anemia, lab values can be normal or low?: folate
50. Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for Coronary Artery Disease? Obesity. Family history. Hypertension. Hyperlipidemia.: Family History 51. Coronary artery disease (CAD) is mainly the result of: Hyperlipidemia. Hypertension. A history of myocardial infarction. Longstanding atherosclerosis.: Longstanding atherosclerosis. 52. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease (CAD)? Menopause. Obesity.
Age. Family history.: Obesity
53. In Coronary Artery Disease (CAD), pumping ability of the heart can be impaired due to the deprivation of oxygen. True False: True 54. Which of the following statements correctly describes the flow of blood between the heart and lungs: The pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. Oxygenated blood is transported from the lungs to the right atrium of the heart. Deoxygenated blood is transported from the left ventricle to the lungs via the pulmonary arteries. Oxygenated blood is transported from the lungs to the heart via the pulmonary veins.: Oxygenated blood is transported from the lungs to the heart via the pul- monary veins. 55. Cor Pulmonale is: Right ventricular failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension. Right ventricular failure due to systemic hypertension. Left ventricular failure due to a pulmonary disease. Left ventricular failure secondary to systemic hypertension.: Right
ventricular failure secondary to pulmonary hypertension.
56. Classify the level of HF: there is a slight limitation of physical activity. The patient is comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity results in symptoms of HF.: Class II 57.Classify the level of HF: The patient is unable to carry on any physical activity without symptoms of HF, or they have symptoms of HF at rest.: Class IV 58. Classify the level of HF: there is no limitation of physical activity; Ordinary physical activity does not cause symptoms of HF. Class I: Class I 59.Classify the level of HF: there is marked limitation of physical activity. The patient is comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity causes symptoms of HF.: Class III 60. The patient with aortic stenosis would most likely present with: S3 gallop. Right ventricular hypertrophy. High-pitched murmur. Mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur.: Mid-systolic crescendo- de- crescendo murmur 61. A patient with mitral stenosis would most likely present with: Bradycardia. Rumbling, decrescendo diastolic murmur heard at apex of the heart. Holosystolic murmur. High-pitched murmur.: Rumbling, decrescendo diastolic murmur heard at
apex of the heart.
62. The patient with aortic regurgitation would most likely present with: An early, high-pitched diastolic murmur heard at the left lower sternal border A diastolic rumbling murmur heart at the apex of the heart A systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur heart at the left upper sternal border All of the above: All of the above 63. A patient with mitral regurgitation would most likely present with a. blowing, holosystolic murmur high-pitched murmur clear lungs bradycardia: blowing, holosystolic murmur 64. R heumatic fever is a common cause for valve disorder. Mitral Stenosis Mitral Valve Prolapse Aortic Stenosis Aortic Regurgitation: Mitral Stenosis 65. A 64-year old female reports to the primary care office with a complaint of "fainting". She reported that the episode occurred while she was engaged in her usual low impact aerobics class. She also noticed, for the first time,
during exercise that her heart "hurt". The NP conducts a symptom analysis of the chest pain and determined that the patient describes it as chest pressure. The patient reports no dyspnea with exercise and denies orthopnea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. On examination, the NP notes that all vital signs are nor- mal, lungs are clear to auscultation; There is a laterally displaced, sustained apical impulse and a grade 4/6 mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur, heard loudest at the base and radiating to the neck. There is also an S4 gallop. no peripheral edema noted. There is a laterally displaced, sustained apical impulse and a grade 4/6 mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur, heard loudest at the base and radiating to the neck. There is also an S4 gallop. The NP performs an ECG in the office and discovers left ventricular hypertrophy. Mitral Valve Stenosis Aortic Stenosis Aortic Regurgitation Mitral Valve Prolapse: Aortic Stenosis
66. A 60-year-old male reports to the primary care office with "shortness of breath" that started a few days after being released from the hospital following angioplasty and stent placement. Upon exam, the NP observes that the patient does have dyspnea and jugular vein distention. Crackles are also noted in lung bases bilaterally. A blowing holosystolic murmur is also heard at the heart's apex with radiation into the axilla. Aortic Regurgitation
Mitral Regurgitation Mitral Valve Stenosis Mitral Valve Prolapse: Mitral Regurgitation
67. A woman brings her 67-year old father to see the NP at the primary care clinic. The patient reports that he has experienced shortness of breath for the last two months that has continued to get progressively worse. He expresses great concern that this development has kept him from participating in his Silver Sneaker's program that he enjoys with his friends. He reports that he can barely walk a city block or walk up the stairs in his home without becoming short of breath. Upon exam, the NP notes a blood pressure of 180/58 mmHg and peripheral pulses are palpable at 4+. The cardiac exam reveals several murmurs: an early diastolic murmur that is high-pitched located loudest at the left lower sternal border; a diastolic rumbling sound heard at the heart's apex and a systolic crescendo- decrescendo murmur heard at the left upper sternal border. A chest x-ray is performed at the office and shows pulmonary edema and cardiomegaly. Aortic Stenosis Mitral Valve Stenosis Aortic Regurgitation Mitral Regurgitation: Aortic Regurgitation 68. A 40-year old male reports to the primary care office with a chief complaint of dyspnea, especially with activity, over the last 5 days. He also
notices that several times during the last two days that he could feel his heart "pounding and racing". On collecting the medical history, the patient indicates that he had rheumatic heart disease as a young child but remembers little about it. On exam, the NP determines that he is tachycardic with a heart rate of 120 beats/minute that is irregularly irregular. A low-pitched murmur is also auscultated and is heard most prominently at the apex. The NP also notes jugular vein distention (JVD) and bilateral crackles in the lung bases. The NP performs an ECG in the office that reveals atrial fibrillation and left atrial hypertrophy. Mitral Regurgitation Mitral Valve Prolapse Aortic Stenosis Mitral Stenosis: Mitral Stenosis
69. Simple spirometry can be used to measure any of the following EXCEPT: Inspiratory reserve volume. Residual volume. Tidal volume. Vital capacity.: Residual volume 70. The NP notes that a patient's FEV1/FVC ratio is severely reduced. Which of the following conditions is most likely the patient's pulmonary issue? Pneumonia.
Pulmonary hypertension. Chronic asthma. Morbid obesity.: Chronic asthma.
71. The NP is seeing a patient with chronic bronchitis that needs spirometry on today's visit. What pulmonary function test (PFT) findings are anticipated based on the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis? Decreased forced expiratory flow (FEV1). Decreased diffusing capacity. Decreased total lung capacity (TLC). Increased lung compliance.: Decreased forced expiratory flow (FEV1). 72. A patient with normal lungs should be able to exhale of the forced vital capacity within the first second. 50% 70% 80% 90%: 80% 73. The NP reviews the results of a patient's pulmonary function tests and notes that the FEV1, FVC, and total lung capacity (TLC) are reduced. The FEV1/FVC ratio is normal. Based on interpretation, this reflects: Obstructive lung disease. Combined obstructive-restrictive lung disease. Restrictive lung disease. The test is invalid.: Restrictive lung disease.
74. Simple spirometry includes a measure of residual capacity. True False: False 75. Chronic bronchitis will decrease which of the following parameters? Decreased total lung capacity. Decreased forced expiratory flow (FEV1). Increased lung compliance. Decreased diffusing capacity.: Decreased forced expiratory flow (FEV1). 76. Which of the following would indicate obstructive lung disease? Chronic asthma. Pneumonia. Pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary hypertension.: Chronic asthma. 77. Which of the following spirometry results indicate restrictive lung dis- ease? FEV1, FEV, and total lung capacity normal: FEV1/FVC ratio normal. FEV1 reduced, FVC normal, total lung capacity reduced; FEV1/FVC ratio nor- mal. FEV1, FVC, and total lung capacity reduced; FEV1/FVC ratio normal. FEV1, FEV, and total lung capacity reduced; FEV1/FVC ratio reduced.: FEV1, FVC, and total lung capacity reduced; FEV1/FVC ratio normal. 78. The NP notes that a patient's FEV1/FVC ratio is normal. Which of the following conditions is most likely the patient's pulmonary issue? Pneumonia.
Chronic asthma. Emphysema. Pulmonary fibrosis.: Pulmonary fibrosis.
79. A patient with chronic bronchitis is most likely to experience: Respiratory alkalosis due to inability to exhale CO2. Respiratory acidosis due to decreased intake of O2. Respiratory acidosis due to inability to exhale CO2. Respiratory alkalosis due to inability to exhale CO2: Respiratory acidosis due to inability to exhale CO2. 80. The number one cause of chronic bronchitis is . cigarette smoking alpha-antitrypsin deficiency exposure dust exposure to allergens: cigarette smoking 81. Which of the following is considered a late effect of emphysema? Hypoxemia. Hypocapnia. Hypercapnia. Hypoxemia and Hypercapnia.: Hypoxemia and Hypercapnia. 82. Which of the following pulmonary function test results are expected in a patient with chronic bronchitis? Decreased FEV1/FVC ratio.
Decreased residual volume. Increased forced expiratory volume in one second. (FEV1) Increased vital capacity.: Decreased FEV1/FVC ratio.
83. The effects of an Alpha-antitrypsin 1 deficiency is: Reduction in elastase production. Deactivates neutrophils. Inhibits the immune cell response. Inability to block the effects of proteolysis.: Inability to block the effects of proteolysis. 84. An expected chest x-ray finding for a patient with COPD is a . flattened diaphragm enlarged heart protruding diaphragm elongated diaphragm: flattened diaphragm 85. A lung volume measurement that indicates air trapping in a COPD patient is: Decreased residual volume. Decreased total lung volume. Normal residual volume. Increase residual volume.: Increase residual volume. 86. The NP is examining a patient with a longstanding history of
chronic bronchitis. Cor pulmonale is expected in the patient that presents with: Hypocapnia. Hypoxia. Hepatomegaly. Venous stasis ulcers.: Hepatomegaly.
87. A patient with chronic bronchitis is at risk for developing pneumonia due to: Hypoxemia. Overactive cilia in the lungs. Mucus plugs. Inability to cough.: Mucus plugs. 88. Hyperresonance found on lung percussion with a patient with COPD is primarily due to. air trapping consolidation of secretions ruptured alveoli mucus plugs: air trapping 89. In normal gas exchange, which of the following is correct? Deoxygenated blood is pumped out through the aorta to into the systemic circulation After air is breathed in, it diffuses into the pulmonary veins. Only the pulmonary artery carries the oxygenated blood. After air is breathed in, it diffuses into the pulmonary capillaries.: After air is breathed in, it diffuses into the pulmonary veins. 90. Asthma results in:
Decreased alveolar ventilation. Increased alveolar ventilation. Increased alveolar oxygenation. Scant mucus production.: Decreased alveolar ventilation.
91. Symptoms common to both intrinsic and extrinsic asthma include: Elevated heart rate. Slowed breathing. Wheezing. Dizziness.: Wheezing. 92. Asthma is a chronic disease characterized by: Airway infection. Air trapping. Intermittent, reversible airflow obstruction. Bronchial scarring.: Intermittent, reversible airflow obstruction. 93. Extrinsic asthma is triggered by an. allergic reaction triggered by non-allergic factors characterized by no elevation in IgE typically seen in adults less than 40 years of age: allergic reaction 94. Symptoms common to both intrinsic and extrinsic asthma
include: Elevated heart rate. Wheezing. Slowed breathing. Dizziness.: Wheezing.
95. Asthma is a chronic disease characterized by: Air trapping. Bronchial scarring. Airway infection. Intermittent, reversible airflow obstruction.: Intermittent, reversible airflow ob- struction. 96. Which of the following pulmonary function test results are consistent with asthma? decreased residual volume increased forced vital capacity (FVC) increased forced expiratory volume (FEV1) and FEV1/FVC decreased peak expiratory flow rate: decreased peak expiratory flow rate 97. Asthma results in: Increased alveolar oxygenation. Increased alveolar ventilation. Scant mucus production. Decreased alveolar ventilation.: Decreased alveolar ventilation. 98. A subjective finding in interstitial lung disease is rhonchi in the