NREMT Cognitive Exam: Test Questions & Answers for EMTs, Exams of Nursing

Download NREMT Cognitive Exam: Test Questions & Answers for EMTs and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated In which of the following situations would you most likely encounter agonal gasps? A) ANY PT. WHO IS UNRESPONSIVE DUE TO HYPOXIA b) occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue c) shortly after the pt. becomes unresponsive & pulseless d) significant hypoxemia, regardless of the cause - correct answer ✅c) After an adult cardiac arrest patient has been intubated by a paramedic, you are providing ventilations as your partner performs chest compressions. When ventilating the patient, you should A. deliver 2 breaths during a brief pause in chest compressions. B. deliver each breath over 1 second at a rate of 10 breaths/min C. hyperventilate the patient to maximize carbon dioxide elimination. D. deliver each breath over 2 seconds at a rate of 15 breaths/min. - correct answer ✅B) deliver each breath over 1 second at a rate of 10 breaths/min. NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated During your assessment of a trauma patient, you note massive facial injuries, weak radial pulses, and clammy skin. What should be your MOST immediate concern? a) potential obstruction of the airway b) internal bleeding and severe shock c) applying 100 % supplemental O2 d) providing rapid transport to a trauma center - correct answer ✅a Clinically, reduced tidal volume would MOST likely present with respirations that are: - correct answer ✅shallow A patient presents with ineffective breathing that has no identifiable pattern. What term is used to describe this type of breathing? - correct answer ✅Ataxic After an initial attempt to ventilate a patient fails, you reposition the patient's head and reattempt ventilation without success. You should next NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated A 49-year-old woman presents with a headache, nausea, and ringing in her ears. She is conscious and alert and states that she has hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Her BP is 202/114 mmHg, her pulse is 60 beats/min. What should you do? a) place her in supine b) give her one tube of oral glucose c) prepare for immediate transport d) summon an ALS unit to the scene - correct answer ✅c a...likely only make her headache worse b...without knowing the blood glucose lvl, this is inappropriate d...if it does not delay transport (but c is far more important) Which part of the assessment process would MOST likely provide clues as to the possible underlying cause of medical pt.'s c.c.? a) vital signs b) mental status NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated c) medical history d) primary assessment - correct answer ✅c All of the following are signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, EXCEPT: a) melena b) hemoptysis c) tachycardia d) hematemesis - correct answer ✅b (coughing up blood) ...sign of pulmonary injury A 48-year-old male became acutely hypoxic, experienced a seizure, and is now postictal. The MOST effective way to prevent another seizure is to: a) place him in the recovery position b) give him oral glucose if he can swallow c) administer high-flow O2 d) dim the lights in the back of the ambulance - correct answer ✅c) ... should administer high-flow O2 to all pt. who are NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated actively seizing and to pt. who experienced a seizure and are postictal. This is especially true if the seizure was caused by hypoxia a)... the recovery position is appropriate for uninjured pt. w/ a decreased LOC & adequate breathing; it'll help maintain the airway and facilitate drainage of secretions from the mouth. but will not prevent another seizure b)...oral glucose may prevent another seizure if the cause of the seizure was due to hypoglycemia A 39-year-old male asks you to take him to the hospital because he had a fever, headache, and diarrhea for the past 2 days. His B.P. is 120/60 mm Hg, his pulse is 110 beats/min and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. You should: a) ask him if has a history of HIV infection or hepatitis b) transport him to the hospital in a position of comfort c) request an ALS ambulance to the scene to start an IV line d) advise him that he can drive himself to his family physician - correct answer ✅b ... pt. is requesting EMS transport, failure to comply constitutes abandonment NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated A newborn has a heart rate of 130 beats/min, cyanosis of the hands and feet, and rapid respirations. The infant cries when you flick the soles of its feet and resists attempts to straighten its legs. You should assign an Apgar score of: A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 - correct answer ✅c) 9 A 5-year-old boy was struck by a car and is found lying 15 feet away. Based on the child's age and mechanism of injury, you should suspect that the PRIMARY injury occurred to the: A) head. B) pelvis. C) lower legs. D) upper thorax. - correct answer ✅b NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated Your assessment of a mother in labor reveals that a fetal limb is protruding from the vagina. What should you do? A) Position the mother in a semi-Fowler's position and administer oxygen B) Position the mother with her hips elevated and administering high- flow oxygen C) Apply gentle traction to the protruding limb to remove pressure of the fetus from the umbilical cord. D) Give the mother 100% oxygen and attempt to manipulate the protruding limb so that delivery can occur. - correct answer ✅B A 5-year-old child has had severe diarrhea and vomiting for 3 days and is now showing signs of shock. Supplemental oxygen has been given and you have elevated his lower extremities. En route to the hospital, you note that his work of breathing has increased. You should: A) lower the extremities and reassess the child. B) begin positive-pressure ventilations and reassess the child. C) insert a nasopharyngeal airway and increase the oxygen flow. D) listen to the lungs with a stethoscope for abnormal breath sounds. - correct answer ✅a NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated Because infants and small children rely heavily on their diaphragm for breathing (as evidenced by belly breathing), elevating their lower extremities can cause the diaphragm to shift into the thoracic cavity and decrease the effectiveness of breathing. Therefore, in the case of this child, you should lower the lower extremities and reassess. A supine position is recommended for any patient in shock, regardless of age. As soon as you begin transport of a patient to the hospital, you should: A) contact medical control. B) notify the receiving facility. C) advise dispatch of your status. D) conduct a detailed examination. - correct answer ✅c Immediately upon departing the scene with a patient, you should first inform the dispatcher that you are en route to the hospital. Never leave the dispatcher in the dark, because it is the dispatcher's job to know which units are available to answer emergency calls. Notifying the receiving facility, contacting medical control, and performing a detailed assessment of your patient all can occur while you are en route to the hospital. NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated A) perform a primary assessment and provide any lifesaving care before extrication. B) immediately apply high-flow oxygen to the patient and allow extrication to begin. C) rapidly assess her from head to toe, obtain vital signs, and apply a cervical collar. D) have the fire department disentangle the patient and quickly remove her from the car. - correct answer ✅a Unless there is an immediate threat of fire, explosion, or other danger, you should perform a primary assessment and begin any lifesaving care as soon as you have gained access to the patient. If you wait to do this until after the patient has been disentangled, it may be too late; the patient may already be dead. After you have assessed the patient and treated any immediate threats to life, allow extrication to commence. Once the patient has been freed from the vehicle, continue any lifesaving care and perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment to identify and treat other life-threatening injuries. Another EMT can obtain vital signs as you rapidly assess the patient. NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated Prepare for immediate transport after the rapid head-to-toe assessment has been performed and spinal precautions have been taken (if indicated). Your partner, a veteran EMT of 20 years, has been showing up late to work with increasing frequency over the last several shifts. When he arrives, he is in a bad mood and is clearly not interested in being at work. His behavior is MOST consistent with: A) burnout. B) delirium. C) drug use. D) acute stress. - correct answer ✅Your partner's behavior is consistent with burnout. Burnout is a condition of chronic fatigue, irritability, and frustration that results from mounting stress over time. Although burnout typically manifests after years of service in EMS, some EMTs begin to experience it in a very short period of time, especially if they work in EMS systems with a high call volume and low morale. Some people with burnout abuse drugs or alcohol; if you suspect this behavior, you should report it to your supervisor immediately. The best way to prevent burnout is to recognize the signs of stress and take action to reduce it. NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated An acute stress reaction occurs in response to a sudden, unexpected event; it is clear that your partner has experienced many stressful events over his career. Delirium is an acute change in cognitive ability; it commonly results from conditions such as hypoxia, hypoglycemia, and drug toxicity. In which of the following situations is an emergency move of a patient from his or her wrecked vehicle clearly indicated? A) The patient appears unresponsive and a high-power line is lying across the hood. B) Your primary assessment reveals that the patient has signs and symptoms of shock. C) The patient has an altered mental status; diaphoresis; and rapid, shallow breathing. D) Gas is leaking from the vehicle and there is a small fire in the engine compartment. - correct answer ✅d An emergency move is indicated if your own or the patient's life is in immediate danger. Gas leaking from the vehicle and a fire in the engine compartment are clear indicators that you and the patient are in NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated In the early stages of shock, decreased perfusion to the brain causes the patient to become restless and anxious. As shock progresses, the pulse becomes thready (weak), signifying a falling blood pressure (hypotension), and the patient eventually loses consciousness. It is critical to recognize the early signs of shock and initiate immediate care and rapid transport. You should not rely on the blood pressure as an indicator of perfusion in any patient; by the time hypotension manifests, the patient's compensatory mechanisms have failed and he or she is in decompensated shock. Internal or external bleeding would be especially severe in a patient: A) with hemophilia. B) who takes aspirin. C) with heart disease. D) who is hypotensive. - correct answer ✅a Hemophilia is a condition in which the patient lacks one or more of the blood's clotting factors. There are several forms of hemophilia, most of which are hereditary and some of which are severe. Sometimes bleeding occurs spontaneously in patients with hemophilia. Because the patient's blood does not clot, all injuries, no matter how minor they appear, are potentially serious. Aspirin does not destroy the blood's NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated clotting factors; it decreases the ability of platelets to stick together. Although this may cause prolonged bleeding time, the patient with hemophilia, who lacks key clotting factors, will bleed for a much longer period of time. Many patients with heart disease take aspirin daily to prevent clot formation in a coronary artery. When blood pressure is low (hypotension), the driving force of the blood through the blood vessels is reduced; as a result, bleeding tends to be less severe relative to patients with high blood pressure. Unfortunately, hypotension indicates decompensated shock. A man was stabbed in the right side of the chest, lateral to the nipple. He is tachypneic, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. His jugular veins are collapsed and breath sounds are difficult to hear on the right side. You should suspect a: A) hemothorax. B) ruptured spleen. C) liver laceration. D) pneumothorax. - correct answer ✅a Based on the injury location and the patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect a hemothorax. In addition to the lung, there is a TON of vasculature in the thoracic cavity that can easily be injured by a NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated penetrating injury. Because the patient is losing blood, one would expect flattened or collapsed jugular veins and profound shock. In addition, because blood is filling the right hemithorax, breath sounds may be weak or absent on the affected side. Although a liver injury cannot be completely ruled out, the injury is above where the liver is located anatomically. If a pneumothorax is present, it is likely in conjunction with the hemothorax (hemopneumothorax). The spleen is located in the upper left quadrant; this patient's injury is on the right side. Which of the following injury mechanisms involves axial loading? A) skater slips and falls, landing on her outstretched arm B) A construction worker falls off a roof and lands feet first C) A woman's knees impact the dash during a frontal collision D) A man's neck is forced laterally during a side impact collision - correct answer ✅a Axial loading injuries occur when a sudden, excessive compression force drives the long axis of the body toward the head, or the head toward the feet. Common injuries that involve axial loading are heavy objects falling on a patient's head, diving head first into shallow water, and falls in which the patient lands feet first. All of these mechanisms cause compression of the spine, potentially resulting in serious injury. None of NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated A young male has a large laceration to his lateral neck, directly over his jugular vein. His airway is patent and his breathing is adequate. Your MOST immediate priority should be to: A) apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B) perform a rapid assessment to detect other injuries. C) obtain vital signs to determine if he is hypotensive. D) keep air out of the wound and control the bleeding. - correct answer ✅d Jugular vein lacerations pose two immediate life threats: entrainment of air into the wound (which may cause a fatal air embolism) and severe external bleeding. The patient's airway is patent and his breathing is adequate; therefore, your most immediate priority is to apply an occlusive dressing directly over the wound, which will keep air from entering the venous circulation, and then cover the occlusive dressing with bulky dressings to control the external bleeding. Apply oxygen if it is clinically indicated (ie, low SpO2). The need to perform a rapid head- to-toe assessment is based on the presence of a significant mechanism of injury (MOI). If a significant MOI is present, the rapid assessment is performed only after problems with the airway, breathing, and circulation have been addressed. Vital signs are typically obtained after the rapid assessment, although they can be obtained by another EMT as you perform the rapid assessment. NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated A woman struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car collided with a tree. She is conscious and alert; however, she is tachypneic and diaphoretic and her pulse is rapid and irregular. What should you do? A) Apply the AED and administer oxygen B) Administer oxygen and protect her spine C) Administer oxygen and position her on her side D) Ventilate with a bag-mask device and apply a c-collar - correct answer ✅b Based on the mechanism of injury and the patient's clinical presentation (especially her rapid, irregular pulse), a myocardial contusion should be suspected. Large myocardial contusions can reduce the pumping function of the heart, resulting in shock. One cannot diagnose a myocardial contusion in the prehospital setting, and there is no specific treatment for this type of injury; therefore, prompt transport is essential. Treatment for the patient in this scenario includes supplemental oxygen (nasal cannula or nonrebreathing mask, depending on her oxygen saturation), spinal motion restriction (ie, c- collar, backboard, etc), and keeping her warm. A lateral recumbent position would likely not be comfortable for her. She does not require NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated ventilation assistance at this point. The AED is not indicated because she is not in cardiac arrest. In contrast to an incision, a laceration: A) is a jagged cut. B) is a superficial injury. C) bleeds more severely. D) usually involves an artery. - correct answer ✅a A laceration is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or a blunt force that tears the tissue, whereas an incision is a sharp, smooth cut. The depth of the injury can vary; it can extend through the skin and subcutaneous tissue or into the underlying muscles and adjacent nerves and blood vessels. Lacerations and incisions can involve arteries, veins, or both, potentially resulting in severe bleeding. A 40-year-old man was hit in the nose during a fight. He has bruising under his left eye and a nosebleed. What should you do? A) Place a chemical icepack over his nose NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated to reduce the space within the pelvis; doing so may help slow internal bleeding. A detailed secondary exam of a critically injured patient at the scene is not appropriate; it takes too long to perform and should be done en route to the hospital if time permits. Which of the following injury mechanisms is associated with hangings? A) Distraction B) Subluxation C) Axial loading D) Hyperextension - correct answer ✅a Injury to the cervical spine following a hanging occurs via distraction, or stretching, of the vertebrae and spinal cord. A subluxation is a partial or incomplete dislocation; it is an injury, not an injury mechanism. Injuries related to hyperextension mechanisms are common in patients who strike their head on the windshield during a motor-vehicle crash. Axial loading is a mechanism of injury in which the spinal column is compressed vertically. Injuries caused by axial loading include cervical spine injuries after diving head first into shallow water and lumbar spine injuries after a fall from a significant height in which the patient lands feet first. NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following blunt trauma to the anterior neck should make you MOST suspicious for a: A) pneumothorax. B) fractured larynx. C) ruptured esophagus. D) carotid artery injury. - correct answer ✅b Crushing or blunt trauma to the anterior neck can injure the trachea or larynx. Once the cartilages of the upper airway and larynx are fractured, they do not spring back to their normal position. Such a fracture can lead to loss of voice, airway obstruction, and leakage of air into the soft tissues of the neck. Air leakage into the soft tissues is called subcutaneous emphysema. Subcutaneous emphysema may also be observed in patients with a tension pneumothorax, although it is typically located in the chest. Esophageal rupture would likely present with difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) and vomiting blood (hematemesis). You should suspect injury to a carotid artery or jugular vein if you observe a rapidly expanding hematoma to the neck following blunt trauma. Which of the following statements regarding heatstroke is correct? NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated A) Not all patients experiencing heatstroke have dry skin. B) Heatstroke is caused by a hyperactive sweating mechanism. C) Heatstroke is more likely to occur when the humidity is low. D) As core body temperature rises, the patient becomes more agitated. - correct answer ✅a Heatstroke occurs when the body is exposed to more heat than it can eliminate and normal mechanisms for eliminating heat, such as sweating, are overwhelmed. The core body temperature then rises rapidly to the point where tissues are destroyed. Heatstroke can develop in patients during prolonged vigorous physical activity or when they are in a closed, poorly ventilated, hot and humid space. High humidity impairs a person's ability to eliminate heat via the sweating mechanism. Many patients with heatstroke have hot, dry, flushed skin; however, early in the course of heatstroke, the skin may be moist due to residual perspiration, as with exertional heatstroke. As the core body temperature rises, the patient's level of consciousness decreases. Untreated heatstroke will result in death. In contrast to a patient with a blood glucose level of 25 mg/dL, a patient with a blood glucose level of 800 mg/dL would be expected to present with: A) profuse diaphoresis and pallor. NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated Because the patient is able to speak only in minimal-word sentences (two-word dyspnea), is experiencing severe respiratory distress, and is confused (a likely sign of hypoxemia), it is unlikely that she is ventilating adequately. Therefore, you should assist her ventilations with a bag- valve-mask (BVM) device. If her breathing continues as it is, she will become increasingly hypoxemic and may lose consciousness. Because this patient is conscious, you must explain to her that every time she takes in a breath, the BVM device will be squeezed so that an adequate volume of air can be delivered. Clearly, this can cause the patient great anxiety, so your reassurance during this procedure is important. If the patient will not tolerate your attempts to assist her ventilations, apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and monitor her closely. Your assessment of a 5-year-old child reveals that he is unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. Treatment for this child should include: A) high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and rapid transport. B) oxygen via a nasal cannula at 6 L/min and rapid transport. C) positive-pressure ventilation, chest compressions, and rapid transport. D) back slaps and chest thrusts while attempting artificial ventilations. - correct answer ✅c NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated A heart rate less than 60 beats/min in an infant or child, especially when accompanied by signs of poor perfusion and inadequate breathing, should be treated with positive-pressure ventilation, chest compressions, and rapid transport. Respirations of 8 breaths/min and a heart rate of 50 beats/min will not maintain adequate oxygenation and perfusion in a child. Passive oxygenation (ie, nasal cannula, nonrebreathing mask) is not appropriate for a child with inadequate ventilation, especially when accompanied by bradycardia. Back slaps and chest thrusts are indicated for a responsive infant with a severe foreign body upper airway obstruction. The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to a vesicant agent is: A) tachycardia. B) skin blistering. C) vomiting blood. D) muscle twitching. - correct answer ✅b The primary route of exposure to blister agents, or vesicants, is the skin. If vesicants are left on the skin or clothing long enough, they produce vapors that can enter the respiratory tract. Vesicants cause burn-like blisters to form on the victim's skin as well as in the respiratory tract (if NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated inhaled). Vesicant agents include sulfur mustard (H), Lewisite (L), and phosgene oxime (CX). The symbols H, L, and CX are military designations. Vesicants usually cause the most damage to damp or moist areas of the body, such as the armpits, groin, and respiratory tract. A rapid heart rhythm, usually at a rate of 150 to 200 beats/min, that originates in the ventricles and can cause hemodynamic compromise is called: A) asystole. B) ventricular fibrillation. C) ventricular tachycardia. D) pulseless electrical activity. - correct answer ✅c Ventricular tachycardia (V-Tach) is a rapid heart rhythm, usually at a rate of 150 to 200 beats/min, that originates in the ventricle instead of the atrium. V-Tach usually does not allow adequate time between beats for the left ventricle to fill with blood; therefore, the blood pressure may fall. V-Tach may occur with or without a pulse. Ventricular fibrillation (V- Fib) is a disorganized, chaotic dysrhythmia that does not produce a pulse; it occurs when cardiac cells randomly discharge to the point that regular cardiac contraction is impossible. Asystole (flatline) represents an absence of cardiac electrical and mechanical activity; obviously, NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated wheezing indicates bronchospasm (ie, wheezing), whereas crackles indicate pulmonary edema. Oxygen saturation is used to assess the patient's oxygenation status. If it is low (less than 94%), it indicates that the patient is hypoxemic; however, it does not tell you why. Abnormalities in heart rate and quality, as well as mental status, may be observed in patients with respiratory distress; however, they do not tell you why the patient is experiencing respiratory distress. During your assessment of a woman in labor, you see the baby's arm protruding from the vagina. The mother tells you that she needs to push. You should: A) gently push the protruding arm back into the vagina. B) encourage the mother to push and give her high-flow oxygen. C) cover the arm with a sterile towel and transport immediately. D) insert your gloved fingers into the vagina and try to turn the baby. - correct answer ✅c On rare occasions, the presenting part of the fetus is neither the head nor the buttocks, but a single arm or leg. This is called a limb presentation. You cannot successfully deliver such a presentation in the field. These infants usually must be delivered at the hospital. If you encounter a limb presentation, instruct the mother to stop pushing if she is experiencing a contraction; instead, instruct her to pant. Pushing NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated may place pressure on the fetus, potentially causing injury. Cover the protruding limb with a sterile dressing or towel and transport immediately. Never try to push the limb back in, and never pull on it. Place the mother on her back, with head down and pelvis elevated. Because both mother and fetus are likely to be physically stressed in this situation, give the mother high-flow oxygen. After drying, warming, and suctioning a newborn's mouth and nose, assessment reveals central cyanosis, a weak cry, and a heart rate of 60 beats/min. What should you do? A) Clamp and cut the umbilical cord and transport at once B) Begin chest compressions and reassess after 30 seconds C) Resuction the mouth and nose and reassess the heart rate D) Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask at 40 to 60 breaths/min. - correct answer ✅d The intial treatment for a cyanotic and bradycardic newborn is positive- pressure ventilation (PPV). Ventilate the newborn with a bag-valve- mask device at a rate of 40 to 60 breaths/min and then reassess the heart rate after 30 seconds. If the heart rate is below 60 beats/min after 30 seconds of adequate PPV, you should begin chest compressions. The umbilical cord should not be clamped and cut until it stops pulsating NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated and the newborn is breathing adequately. Unnecessary suctioning can worsen hypoxia and bradycardia and should be avoided. During a soccer game, an 18-year-old woman injured her knee. Her knee is in a flexed position and is obviously deformed. You should: A) assess circulatory function distal to her injury. B) straighten the knee to facilitate immobilization. C) manually stabilize the leg above and below the knee. D) immobilize the knee in the position in which it was found. - correct answer ✅c Treatment for any musculoskeletal injury begins by providing manual stabilization above and below the injury (in this case, the distal femur and proximal tibia); this will prevent further injury. Distal circulatory (pulse), sensory, and motor functions should then be assessed. After manually stabilizing the injury and assessing distal circulatory, sensory, and motor functions, you should appropriately splint the injury. Reassess distal circulatory, sensory, and motor functions after the splint has been applied. Because of the vascularity of the knee, as well as the presence of major nerves in that area, you should not straighten an injured knee. Joint injuries should be immobilized in the position found. If there is no distal pulse and transport will be delayed, medical control may authorize you to make one attempt to gently manipulate the joint to restore a pulse. NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated Gravida is the term used to describe the number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of whether she carried the infant to term. Para is the term used to describe the number of times a woman has carried a fetus beyond 28 weeks, regardless of whether the infant was born dead or alive. Because your patient is currently pregnant and was pregnant once before, she is gravida 2. However, because she had a miscarriage with her first pregnancy (she did not carry beyond 28 weeks) and has not yet delivered the baby she is currently carrying, she is para 0. When she delivers, she will become gravida 2 and para 1. If the EMT could initially only take two pieces of equipment to the side of a patient in cardiac arrest, which of the following should he or she select? A) AED and suction device B) AED and oxygen cylinder C) Pocket mask and oxygen cylinder D) Bag-valve-mask and suction devices - correct answer ✅a Determining the equipment that should be taken to the patient's side is often guided by the nature of the call and/or departmental policy. For a cardiac arrest patient, the AED would clearly need to be taken in immediately since defibrillation is a critical intervention and has been NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated directly linked to positive patient outcomes. The suction device, which may be needed to clear secretions from the airway, should also be taken immediately; mortality increases significantly if aspiration occurs. Oxygen and ventilation equipment are important; however, chest compressions and defibrillation have clearly been shown to provide the greatest benefit to cardiac arrest patients. Following the initial steps of resuscitation, a newborn remains apneic and cyanotic. You should: A) immediately resuction its mouth and nose. B) begin ventilations with a bag-valve-mask. C) gently flick the soles of its feet for up to 60 seconds. D) start CPR if the heart rate is less than 80 beats/min. - correct answer ✅b The initial steps of newborn resuscitation, which are performed on all newborns following delivery, include drying, warming, positioning, suctioning, and tactile stimulation. If the newborn remains apneic (or is gasping) after the initial steps of resuscitation, or has a heart rate less than 100 beats/min, you should begin positive-pressure ventilations (PPV) with a bag-valve-mask device at a rate of 40 to 60 breaths/min. Continued tactile stimulation (eg, flicking the soles of the feet, rubbing the lateral thorax) of an apneic newborn wastes time; you must NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated ventilate at once. If the newborn's heart rate is less than 60 beats/min despite effective PPV, you should begin chest compressions. A 32-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant complains of a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, which she describes as a tearing sensation, and vaginal bleeding. Her medical history includes hypertension and she admits to using cocaine. Which of the following should you suspect? A) The umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby's neck B) The placenta has implanted over the cervical opening C) Excessive fetal movement has torn the amniotic sac D) The placenta has detached from the wall of the uterus - correct answer ✅d Given the patient's presentation and medical history, you should suspect that she is experiencing abruptio placenta. This condition occurs when the placenta acutely detaches from the uterine wall. Signs and symptoms include acute, severe abdominal pain that is often described as a ripping or tearing sensation; vaginal bleeding; and signs of shock. Risk factors include hypertension, abdominal trauma, and cocaine use, among others. Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor, and frequent use can cause vascular injury. In pregnant patients, this vascular injury could cause premature placental separation. Placenta NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated The nerves that supply the diaphragm (the phrenic nerves) exit the spinal cord at C3, C4, and C5. A patient whose spinal cord is injured below the C5 level will lose the ability to move his or her intercostal muscles (the muscles in between the ribs), but the diaphragm will still function. The patient may still be able to breathe because the phrenic nerves remain intact. Patients with spinal cord injuries at C3 or above often lose their ability to breathe entirely. Remember this: C3, 4, and 5 keep the diaphragm alive. Which of the following signs and symptoms are MOST characteristic of hyperglycemic ketoacidosis? A) Cool, clammy skin and a slow onset B) Cool, clammy skin and a rapid onset C) Warm, dry skin and a slow onset D) Warm, dry skin and a rapid onset - correct answer ✅c Hyperglycemic ketoacidosis (diabetic coma) is characterized by a dangerously high blood glucose level (hyperglycemia); slow onset; warm, dry skin (from dehydration); Kussmaul respirations, which are deep and rapid; and breath with a fruity or acetone odor. Insulin shock results from a low blood glucose level (hypoglycemia) and is NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated characterized by a rapid onset; altered mental status; and cool, clammy skin. After 30 seconds of positive-pressure ventilation, a newborn's heart rate is 50 beats/min and its face and trunk are cyanotic. The EMT should: A) give blow-by oxygen. B) begin chest compressions. C) increase the ventilation rate. D) resuction the mouth and nose. - correct answer ✅b Immediate treatment for newborn bradycardia (heart rate less than 100 beats/min) involves positive-pressure ventilation. If the heart falls below 60 beats/min despite positive-pressure ventilation, you should begin chest compressions. Central cyanosis (cyanosis to the face and trunk) and severe bradycardia indicate significant hypoxia; if immediate corrective action is not taken, cardiopulmonary arrest could follow. Blow-by oxygen is appropriate for newborns with central cyanosis who are otherwise breathing adequately and have a heart rate that is greater than 100 beats/min. The mouth and nose should be suctioned if secretions are present. Increasing the ventilation rate could cause more harm secondary to increased intrathoracic pressure. NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated You arrive at a residence shortly after a 4-year-old boy experienced an apparent febrile seizure. The child is alert and crying. His skin is flushed, hot, and moist. His mother tells you that the seizure lasted about 2 minutes. You should: A) begin rapid cooling measures at once. B) give him acetaminophen or ibuprofen. C) provide supportive care and transport. D) allow the mother to take her child to the doctor. - correct answer ✅c Febrile seizures are common in children between the ages of 6 months and 6 years; they occur when the child's body temperature suddenly rises or when an already febrile child experiences an acute fever spike. Treatment for a child who has experienced a febrile seizure involves providing supportive care (eg, monitoring ABCs, administering oxygen as tolerated) and transporting to the hospital. Any infant or child who experienced a seizure should be transported by EMS. Although febrile seizures are typically self-limiting and are rarely life threatening, there are other causes of fever and seizures, such as meningitis. The EMT is generally not authorized to administer medications unless directed by local protocol or direct medical control. Active cooling (eg, cool or cold water baths) should be avoided; a sudden lowering of the child's NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated ambulance, you should always have at least one backup portable cylinder (preferably two) when administering oxygen to a patient at the scene, especially if you are giving high-flow (12 to 15 L/min) oxygen and/or your on-scene time will be delayed (eg, lengthy extrication, moving a patient from the second floor). In contrast to the contractions associated with true labor, Braxton-Hicks contractions: A) do not increase in intensity and are alleviated by a change in position. B) may be intensified by activity and are accompanied by a pink discharge. C) generally follow rupture of the amniotic sac and occur with regularity. D) consistently become stronger and are not alleviated by changing position. - correct answer ✅a During pregnancy, the mother may experience false labor, or Braxton- Hicks contractions, in which there are contractions but they do not represent true labor. Unlike true labor contractions, Braxton-Hicks contractions do not increase in intensity, are not regular, and are typically alleviated by activity or a change in position. The contractions NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated associated with true labor, once they begin, consistently get stronger and closer together and are regular; a change in position does not relieve the contractions. True labor is also commonly followed by, or in some cases preceded by, a rupture of the amniotic sac (bag of waters) and a pink or red vaginal discharge that is generally accompanied by mucus (bloody show). A patient with a mild foreign body airway obstruction: A) is typically not cyanotic. B) presents with a weak cough. C) has a low oxygen saturation. D) has progressive difficulty breathing. - correct answer ✅a Patients with a mild (partial) airway obstruction are able to move adequate amounts of air, but will have varying degrees of respiratory distress. The patient can cough forcefully, although you may hear wheezing in between coughs. Because the patient is able to move air effectively, the level of oxygen in his or her blood remains adequate; therefore, cyanosis is typically absent. By contrast, the patient with a severe (complete) airway obstruction cannot move air effectively and cannot speak. If a cough is present, it is weak and ineffective. As the level of oxygen in the blood falls, cyanosis develops, oxygen saturation falls, and the patient's level of consciousness decreases. A foreign body NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated airway obstruction, mild or severe, is an acute event that presents with an acute onset of difficulty breathing. Progressive (gradually worsening) difficulty breathing is more consistent with diseases such as congestive heart failure and pneumonia. A 40-year-old man is conscious, but has an increased rate of breathing. You should: A) apply 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. B) immediately insert a nasopharyngeal airway. C) assess the regularity and quality of breathing. D) ventilate him with a bag-mask device. - correct answer ✅c You must assess ALL parameters of a patient's breathing: rate, regularity, depth, and quality. If a patient is breathing outside the normal ranges for his or her age, you should assess the depth, quality, and regularity of the respirations to determine overall breathing adequacy. On the basis of this assessment, the most appropriate treatment can be provided--passive oxygenation with a nasal cannula or nonrebreathing mask, or some form of positive-pressure ventilation (ie, bag--mask ventilation). Breathing adequacy is not determined by respiratory rate alone. Conscious patients do not require an artificial airway adjunct (ie, oral or nasal airway). NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated signs for collapsing of the trachea - correct answer ✅marked respiratory distress and retractions. A woman has a painful, deformed humerus after she fell. The injured arm is cool and pale, and a radial pulse cannot be palpated. The EMT should: A) allow her to stabilize the arm on her own and transport. B) splint the arm in the position found and transport at once. C) realign the arm to its normal anatomic position and splint it. D) apply gentle traction in order to reestablish distal circulation. - correct answer ✅d When treating an orthopedic injury in which distal circulation is compromised, you should apply gentle traction in an effort to restore distal circulation. Bear in mind, however, that this practice does NOT apply to injuries involving joints. Once distal circulation is restored, splint the injury appropriately and transport. If you are unable to restore distal circulation, contact medical control; depending on your transport time, he or she may request you to make another effort to restore distal circulation. Fractures, with or without distal circulation, should be splinted in the most comfortable position for the patient; attempting to realign a fractured extremity to its normal anatomic position would cause the patient unnecessary pain. NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated How does a unified incident command system differ from a single incident command system? A) In a unified incident command system, a single incident commander is identified and will function as such, regardless of the type of incident. B) In a unified incident command system, a single person is in charge of the entire incident, even if multiple agencies respond to the scene. C) In a unified incident command system, plans are made in advance by all agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making. D) In a unified incident command system, one agency with several incident commanders has the majority of responsibility for incident management. - correct answer ✅c Regardless of the type of incident command system (ICS) used, a single incident commander (IC) must be in charge. In a unified incident command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making. The response plan should designate the lead and support agencies for several types of mass-casualty incidents (MCIs). For example, the Haz- Mat team will take the lead in a chemical leak and the medical team will take the lead in a multi-vehicle crash. Large MCIs often require a unified incident command system. A single incident command system is one in which one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond to the scene. It is generally used with incidents in which one agency has the NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated majority of responsibility for incident management. Ideally, it is used for short-duration, limited incidents that require the services of a single agency. A patient who overdosed on methamphetamine would be expected to have all of the following clinical signs, EXCEPT: A) agitation. B) bradycardia. C) hypertension. D) dilated pupils. - correct answer ✅b Methamphetamine, an upper, stimulates the central nervous system, causing it to release excessive amounts of adrenaline (epinephrine). Epinephrine increases heart rate and blood pressure; therefore, the patient would experience tachycardia and hypertension. Other signs of methamphetamine overdose, which also indicate an adrenaline surge, include pupillary dilation, agitation, and hyperthermia. Bradycardia would be expected in patients who have overdosed on drugs that suppress--not stimulate--the central nervous system (eg, narcotics, benzodiazepines, barbiturates). Which of the following would be the MOST significant finding in a 2- month-old infant who is dehydrated? NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated respiration is negatively affected. If oxygen cannot be drawn into the lungs, it cannot be delivered to the cells; therefore, cellular respiration is negatively affected, which results in inadequate perfusion. A 29-year-old pregnant female complains of a severe headache, blurred vision, and swelling of her hands and feet. Which of the following additional assessment findings would the EMT MOST likely encounter? A) Hypertension B) Hyperglycemia C) Abdominal pain D) Vaginal bleeding - correct answer ✅a The patient's signs and symptoms are consistent with preeclampsia, a condition that could ultimately lead to seizures (eclampsia). Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include hypertension, headache, visual disturbances, and edema. Hyperglycemia during pregnancy is a possible sign of gestational diabetes, not preeclampsia. Abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding should make you suspicious for another underlying problem (ie, threatened abortion) as they are not commonly observed in patients with preeclampsia. Which of the following questions would be MOST appropriate to ask when assessing a patient with chest pain? NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated A) What does the pain feel like? B) Does the pain radiate to your arm? C) Would you describe the pain as sharp? D) Is the pain worse when you take a deep breath? - correct answer ✅a When questioning any patient about any type of pain, you should avoid asking leading questions that can simply be answered yes or no. To obtain the most reliable assessment, open-ended questions should be asked to allow the patient to describe the quality of the pain in his or her own words. Assessment of a 40-year-old patient reveals respiratory distress, tachycardia, audible expiratory wheezing, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The EMT should suspect: A) fluid in the lower airways. B) diffuse bronchoconstriction. C) swelling in the laryngeal area. D) infection of the lower airway. - correct answer ✅b NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated Wheezing is a whistling sound that indicates constriction of the bronchioles in the lungs. It is commonly heard on exhalation, but may also occur during inhalation and exhalation. Wheezing occurs with asthma or bronchiolitis. Fluid in the lower airways produces breath sounds such as rales (crackles) or rhonchi. Laryngeal swelling would produce stridor, a high-pitched sound heard during inhalation. Infection of the lower airway, such as pneumonia, would be expected to present with a fever, productive cough, and diminished breath sounds over an isolated lung field. Which of the following patients is the BEST candidate for an oropharyngeal airway? A) Any patient whom you suspect of being acutely hypoxemic B) A semiconscious patient who ingested a large quantity of aspirin C) An unresponsive patient with uncontrolled oropharyngeal bleeding D) An unresponsive trauma patient with blood draining from the nose - correct answer ✅d The oropharyngeal airway is used to keep the tongue off of the posterior pharynx and is indicated for unresponsive patients without a gag reflex. If an unresponsive patient has severe, uncontrolled oropharyngeal bleeding, your priority is to suction his or her airway to prevent aspiration and transport rapidly. Semiconscious patients NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated A 3-year-old girl is unresponsive and has slow, shallow breathing. Her heart rate is 65 beats/min and her skin is cyanotic. Her caregiver advises that the child ingested an unknown quantity of her narcotic painkillers. What should you do? A) Administer naloxone via the intranasal route B) Ventilate with a bag-mask device at 16 breaths/min C) Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100 to 120/min D) Administer high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask - correct answer ✅b The child's breathing is clearly inadequate and she is significantly hypoxemic. Initial treatment for an opioid overdose, regardless of the patient's age, is to optimize ventilation and oxygenation. Opioid-related deaths are the result of respiratory failure; the most immediate and effective way to prevent this is to ventilate the patient. For the child, provide 12 to 20 breaths/min. The child is also significantly bradycardic, which is likely the result of a combination of the opioid and hypoxemia. After restoring ventilation and oxygenation, administer naloxone (Narcan) via the intranasal route, if allowed by local protocol, in a dose that is appropriate for the pediatric patient. If her heart rate falls below 60 beats/min despite adequate ventilation and oxygenation, begin chest compressions. NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated Which of the following sets of vital signs is the MOST consistent with hemorrhagic shock? A) BP, 80/40 mm Hg; pulse, 70 beats/min; respirations, 24 breaths/min B) BP, 190/100 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min; respirations, 8 breaths/min C) BP, 88/50 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min D) BP, 160/70 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min; respirations, 12 breaths/min - correct answer ✅c Of the vital sign values listed, hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea are the most consistent with hemorrhagic shock. In fact, the presence of hypotension indicates decompensated shock. Hypotension and a normal (or slow) heart rate is consistent with neurogenic shock. Hypertension, bradycardia, and abnormal breathing (Cushing's triad) are consistent with increased intracranial pressure from a head injury. Hypertension, tachycardia, and normal breathing may be observed in a patient with a hypertensive emergency; they are not consistent with hemorrhagic shock. A high normal respiratory rate for an infant between 1 month and 1 year of age is: A) 30 breaths/min. B) 40 breaths/min. NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated C) 60 breaths/min. D) 70 breaths/min. - correct answer ✅c Normal respiratory rates for infants between 1 month and 1 year of age range between 30 to 60 breaths/min. Normal respiratory rates for a toddler between 1 and 3 years of age range between 24 to 40 breaths/min. Normal respiratory rates for preschool-age children between 4 and 5 years of age range between 22 and 34 breaths/min. Normal respiratory rates for school-age children between 6 and 12 years of age range between 18 and 30 breaths/min. These respiratory rate ranges are cited in the 2012 Pediatric Advanced Life Support Guidelines from the American Heart Association. A 65-year-old man has generalized weakness and chest pressure. He has a bottle of prescribed nitroglycerin, but states that he has not taken any of his medication. The EMT should: A) apply the AED and prepare the patient for immediate transport. B) administer up to 325 mg of aspirin if the patient is not allergic to it. C) assist the patient with his nitroglycerin with medical control approval. D) perform a secondary assessment and obtain baseline vital signs. - correct answer ✅b NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated 14%) of the child's TBSA (18% in adults) because the child's lower extremities are proportionately smaller than an adult's. Which of the following injuries is MOST indicative of child abuse? A) Small laceration to the chin B) Burned hand with splash marks C) Bruising to the upper back D) Multiple bruises to the shins - correct answer ✅c To detect child abuse, you must be familiar with injury locations and patterns consistent with an accident versus those that were intentionally inflicted. It is common for children to trip, fall, and strike their chin or forehead on a solid object; therefore, chin lacerations and hematomas to the forehead are common injuries. Small children frequently hit their legs on coffee tables, resulting in bruises to the shins. If a child accidentally sticks his or her hand in hot water, the hand is quickly pulled back by reflex, resulting in a splash pattern of burns. Injuries found in anatomically unlikely areas, such as the torso (back or front), upper arms and legs, or genitalia, should raise your index of suspicion. Burns that are not accompanied by splash marks should also make you suspicious. For example, if a child's hand or foot is NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated intentionally held in hot water, you will see a clear line of demarcation (stocking-glove effect) without evidence of splash burns. Following an injury, a 5-year-old child moans and makes incomprehensible sounds. According to the modified Glasgow Coma Scale for children, what score should be assigned for verbal response? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 - correct answer ✅a The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is modified for children (older than 1 year of age) to accommodate their age-related behavior. Under the verbal component of the GCS, a score of 5 is assigned if the child engages in oriented conversation; a score of 4 is assigned if the child is confused, but still converses; a score of 3 is assigned if the child cries in response to pain; a score of 2 is assigned if the child uses inappropriate words; and a score of 1 is assigned if the child moans, is using is incomprehensible words or making incomprehensible sounds, or if there is no response at all. When assessing a conscious patient who overdosed on a drug, you should FIRST determine: NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated A) the patient's weight in kilograms. B) the type of medication ingested. C) when the medication was ingested. D) if there is a history of prior overdose. - correct answer ✅b When assessing a patient who has overdosed on a drug, you should first determine what was ingested, which will provide you with immediate information about whether the substance is toxic. You should then find out when the medication was ingested. This information will provide medical control (or poison control) with the information needed to direct the most appropriate treatment. The patient's weight also should be estimated in kilograms in the event that an antidote is required. Information regarding prior drug overdoses would normally be obtained during the SAMPLE history; it is not the most critical information during acute resuscitation. Your assessment of a mother in labor reveals that a fetal limb is protruding from the vagina. What should you do? A) Position the mother in a semi-Fowler's position and administer oxygen B) Position the mother with her hips elevated and administering high- flow oxygen NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated to clear secretions from his oropharynx if indicated. Assess the patient's breathing and then begin appropriate treatment (ie, bag-mask ventilation, passive supplemental oxygen). A 4-year-old child has had several generalized tonic clonic seizures over the past 20 minutes, but never woke up in between the seizures. The child's skin is hot and flushed. What should you suspect? A) febrile seizure B) A focal motor seizure C) An absence seizure D) Status epilepticus - correct answer ✅d Status epilepticus is defined as a prolonged (greater than 20 minutes) seizure or multiple seizures without a return of consciousness in between seizures. A febrile seizure is caused by an abrupt rise in body temperature, usually due to a non-life-threatening infection (eg, middle ear infection). Most febrile seizures last less than 5 minutes, have resolved by the time EMS arrives at the scene, and are not followed by a postictal period. The child in this scenario, although febrile (hot, flushed skin), did not experience a seizure caused by fever alone; you should suspect other causes of fever and seizures, such as meningitis. Absence seizures are characterized by a blank stare and an absence of tonic-clonic motor activity. Like febrile seizures, absence seizures are NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated usually of short duration and are not followed by a postictal period. A focal motor seizure is isolated to one part of the body, such as an extremity, but can progress to a generalized tonic clonic seizure. The function of the uterus is to: A) dilate and expel the baby from the cervix. B) house the fetus as it grows for 40 weeks. C) provide oxygen and other nutrients to the fetus. D) provide a cushion and protect the fetus from infection. - correct answer ✅b The uterus is a muscular organ where the fetus grows for 39 to 40 weeks. It is responsible for contracting during labor, which in conjunction with dilation of the cervix (the opening of the uterus), expels the baby from the uterus into the birth canal. The placenta is the organ of exchange that delivers oxygen and other nutrients from the mother to the fetus and returns metabolic waste products from the fetus to the mother. The amniotic sac, also called the bag of waters, provides a cushion for the developing fetus and helps protect it from infection. Signs and symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease include: NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated A) generalized lower abdominal pain, nausea, and fever. B) pain around the umbilicus and heavy vaginal bleeding. C) abdominal cramping and an odorless vaginal discharge. D) upper abdominal pain, diarrhea, and an absence of fever. - correct answer ✅a Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection of the upper female reproductive organs, specifically, the uterus, ovaries, and fallopian tubes. It occurs almost exclusively in sexually active women. In PID, disease-causing organisms enter the vagina during sexual activity and migrate through the cervical opening and into the uterine cavity. The infection may then progress to the fallopian tubes, producing scarring that can increase the risk for ectopic pregnancy. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized lower abdominal pain. Other signs and symptoms include an abnormal and often foul-smelling vaginal discharge, increased pain during sexual intercourse, fever, general malaise, and nausea and vomiting. Diarrhea and vaginal bleeding are not common signs of PID. A woman is 30 weeks pregnant. During your assessment, she tells you that she delivered a stillborn baby at 38 weeks and currently has no living children. How should you document her obstetric history? A) Gravida 1; para 1 NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated D) A 60-year-old man who fell from a standing position and has small abrasions on his cheek - correct answer ✅a A rapid head-to-toe assessment is indicated for any patient with abnormal findings in the primary assessment or when the mechanism of injury warrants it. Significant mechanisms of injury include falls in the adult of greater than 15 feet (or three times the patient's height); penetrating injuries to the head, neck, chest, or abdomen; and multiple long bone fractures, among others. Which of the following sets of vital signs is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure in a patient with a head injury? A) BP, 84/42 mm Hg; pulse, 60 beats/min; respirations, 32 breaths/min B) BP, 176/98 mm Hg; pulse, 50 beats/min; respirations, 10 breaths/min C) BP, 92/60 mm Hg; pulse, 120 beats/min; respirations, 24 breaths/min D) BP, 160/72 mm Hg; pulse, 100 beats/min; respirations, 12 breaths/min - correct answer ✅b The body responds to a significant traumatic brain injury by shunting more oxygenated blood to the injured brain; it does this by increasing systemic blood pressure. In response to an increase in blood pressure, the pulse rate decreases. Pressure on the brain stem often causes an NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated irregular breathing pattern that is either slow or fast. Therefore, patients with increased intracranial pressure present with hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations that are fast or slow (Cushing's triad). Vital signs representative of shock (eg, hypotension, tachycardia) are not common in patients with an isolated head injury and increased intracranial pressure. If the patient with a seemingly isolated head injury is hypotensive and tachycardic, look for other injuries; internal or external bleeding is likely occurring elsewhere. The MOST obvious way to reduce heat loss from radiation and convection is to: A) move away from a cold object. B) wear a thick wind-proof jacket. C) move to a warmer environment. D) increase metabolism by shivering. - correct answer ✅c In a cold environment, the body has two ways of staying warm: generating heat (thermogenesis) and reducing heat loss. Radiation is the transfer of heat by radiant energy. The body can lose heat by radiation, such as when a person stands in a cold room. Convection occurs when heat is transferred to circulating air, as when cool air moves across the body's surface. A person standing in windy cold weather, wearing lightweight clothing, is losing heat to the environment NREMT Cognitive Exam Assessment Test Questions And Answers Latest Update A++ Rated mostly by convection. The quickest and most obvious way to decrease heat loss from radiation and convection is to move out of the cold environment and seek shelter from wind. Shivering increases the body's metabolism and is a mechanism for generating heat, not reducing heat loss. Layers of clothing trap air and provide excellent insulation; thus, layered clothing decreases heat loss better than a single, thick jacket. Conduction is the direct transfer of heat from a part of the body to a colder object by direct contact, as when a warm hand touches cold metal or ice. The most obvious way to decrease heat loss by conduction is to remove your hand from the cold object. A high school student was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical during a lab experiment. He is in severe pain and is unable to open his eyes. You should: A) flush both eyes with sterile water for no more than 5 minutes. B) continuously flush his eyes with saline for at least 20 minutes. C) force his eyes open and assess for the presence of severe burns. D) cover both of his eyes with sterile gauze and transport at once. - correct answer ✅b Chemical burns to the eyes, usually caused by acid or alkaline solutions, require immediate emergency care. This consists of flushing the eyes with water or a sterile saline irrigation solution. Forcing the eyes open for the expressed purpose of assessing for burns is impractical and