NREMT PARAMEDIC LATEST EXAM 2025 COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS AND DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS, Exams of Nursing

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NREMT PARAMEDIC LATEST EXAM

2025 COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS AND

DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS

(VERIFIED ANSWERS) | ALREADY

GRADED A+

You are preparing to perform fluid replacement on an adult trauma patient who lost a significant amount of his circulating blood volume when you note the presence of a drastic systolic blood pressure decline from 100 mmHg to 86 mmHg systolic after the patient's bleeding is controlled. The patient has no obvious new bleeding, but his abdomen is distended and is painful on palpation. There are no obvious masses, bruises, or deformity, and he has active bowel sounds over the epigastric region. Which of the following intravenous fluids would be most appropriate in this situation if the medical command physician recommends a fluid challenge? A. 0.9% normal saline B. 0.45% sodium chloride C. 0.45% normal saline with 5% dextrose D. Lactated Ringer's solution Correct Answer D.

What type of communication system operational mode is required for an EMS agency to be able to communicate simultaneously in both directions while also performing telemetry transmission? A. Multiplex mode B. Duplex mode C. Simplex mode D. Complex mode Correct Answer A. You suspect your adult trauma patient has a potential complete spinal cord transection. If so, which of the following would you expect to find? A. Total loss of pain and sensation below the waist bilaterally with some loss of movement below the waist B. Bradycardia associated with loss in vascular tone C. Total absence of pain, sensation, and movement (paralysis) below the point of the transection (injury) D. Right-sided paralysis with decreased sensation on the opposite side of the body Correct Answer C. You are on-scene with a patient who you suspect may be experiencing a myocardial infarction. He is conscious and alert, anxious, and has dilated pupils. He complains of

If an adult patient is experiencing the signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction with perfusing arrhythmias, which of the following pre-hospital interventions will help to reduce the patient's cardiac preload and afterload? A. The intravenous administration of 2-4 mg of morphine per a medical-control physician's order B. The administration of various medications and dosages to control the specific dysrhythmias such as procainamide, atropine, verapamil, and others C. The administration of sublingual nitroglycerin therapy D. The administration of high-flow oxygen therapy ( liters per minute) via a non-rebreather mask Correct Answer C. Your adult patient was entrapped by dirt up to his mid- abdominal area for a few hours while rescue crews worked to free him. Once on the cardiac monitor, why would tall, tented T waves become evident quickly? A. Hyperkalemia caused by the sudden influx of potassium B. Myocardial ischemia caused by decreased available oxygen for the myocardium C. Hypokalemia associated with the sudden release of the compressive force

D. Cardiac tamponade associated with increased intrathoracic pressure and blood pressure Correct Answer A. The alpha, beta-1, and beta-2 receptors are important in the maintenance of heart rate and respiratory function. What can we expect to occur if a patient's beta-1 receptors are stimulated? A. Decrease in the diameter of the bronchioles to help retain carbon dioxide when needed B. Increased heart rate and strength of contraction C. Increase in the diameter of the bronchioles to let more air in and out during ventilation D. Decrease in the heart rate and the size of the bronchioles Correct Answer B. You are called to stage at a mass casualty incident involving exposure to possible chemical agents during the event. Knowing you will likely transport one or more patients from the scene that have been grossly decontaminated in the decontamination section, what measures can you take to minimize the possible contamination of your unit during the patient care/transport encounter?

D. The P waves are present but bear no relationship to the QRS complexes Correct Answer B. You are called to assist a 50-year-old cardiac history patient complaining of chest pain. On arrival, the patient rates his pain at an eight on the pain scale. His skin is cool, clammy, and diaphoretic with a SpO2 of 88 percent on room air. His respirations are at 33 per minute and shallow but clear. His heart rate is 40 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 90 systolic. Which of the following interventions would be inappropriate at this point? A. Intravenous access B. High-flow oxygen therapy C. Twelve-lead electrocardiogram analysis with continuous Lead II monitoring D. Nitroglycerin therapy Correct Answer D. You are called to assist a 20-year-old male for a severe headache. On-scene, you learn the patient was involved in an accident that caused a potential closed head injury. However, at the time of the accident, the patient refused EMS care, stating he felt fine. Today, he is experiencing headache, confusion, and visual disturbances.

Which of the following injuries is most likely to cause this type presentation? A. Coup-contra-coup injury B. Diffuse axonal injury C. Subdural hematoma D. Epidural hematoma Correct Answer C. An adult trauma patient suffered a fall from greater than 15 feet. When predicting the injuries associated with this type injury, the paramedic should evaluate the distance fallen, the position of the body on impact, and which of the following? A. The type of landing surface involved B. The ambient temperature at the time of the fall C. The patient's neurological status D. The body parts that were struck with the most force Correct Answer A. Negligence is divided into three categories. Which of the following is not one of the categories? A. Malfeasance

What can the paramedic expect to find when evaluating the pupillary response of a patient suspected of suffering from herniation? A. Bilateral pupil dilation B. A unilaterally, unequal and non-reactive pupil C. Bilaterally, unequal and non-responsive pupils D. Sluggish response, but equal pupils Correct Answer B. In a trauma situation, it is acceptable to administer either normal saline or lactated Ringer's to your patient for volume replacement. What is the primary benefit of choosing lactated Ringer's? A. It will stay in the vascular system longer, promoting blood pressure B. It has the ability to carry red blood cells C. It helps decrease acidosis in a hypovolemic patient D. It helps increase acidosis in the hypovolemic patient Correct Answer C. You are performing orotracheal intubation on an average- sized, apneic adult. At what depth marking should the airway be properly positioned 2 to 3 cm above the carina?

A. 9 to 13 centimeters B. 29 to 32 centimeters C. 19 to 23 centimeters D. 32 to 36 centimeters Correct Answer C. Opioid antagonists reverse the symptoms of an opioid overdose. Which of the following medications would be effective in reversing the adverse effects of a benzodiazepine overdose? A. Naltrexone B. Alprazolam C. Flumazenil D. Naloxone Correct Answer C. You are working in a pre-hospital setting and are called for a 40-year-old male who was the victim of a stabbing. The patient has a blood pressure of 87/50 and a heart rate of

130. There is a large amount of blood on the scene. After applying direct pressure to the wound on the patient's arm and stopping the bleeding, of the following what would be the best intervention to mitigate the patient's blood pressure?

Family members state he recently had a tooth pulled and was prescribed Vicodin. Which of the following is most likely to cause the patient's presentation? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Ketoacidosis D. Narcotic overdose Correct Answer C. After assisting a full-term pregnant patient in the delivery of her newborn, the newborn remains bradycardic with a heart rate of 50 beats per minute and exhibits cyanosis around his mouth, nose, fingers, and toes. He is not responding well and appears lethargic following the five- minute APGAR assessment. What would be the best initial intervention at this point to increase his heart rate? A. Deliver adequate artificial ventilation after ensuring a definitive airway B. Administer epinephrine 1:10,000 at 0.1 mg/mL intravenously C. Administer a vasopressor agent intravenously per medical command recommendations

D. "Fast and hard" chest compressions at more than 120 compressions per minute Correct Answer A. You are working an adult cardiac arrest patient who is not responding to electrical therapy. According to ACLS guidelines, what is the appropriate concentration and dosage of epinephrine in a cardiac arrest patient? A. 1mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes with a concentration of 1:10, B. 0.1mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes with a concentration of 1:1, C. 1mg IV/IO every 1-3 minutes with a concentration of 1:10, D. 0.1mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes with a concentration of 1:10,000 Correct Answer A. While conducting an EKG on your post-myocardial infarction patient, you note the presence of consistently wide QRS complexes greater than 120 ms in duration. What does this most likely indicate? A. An intraventricular conduction delay or right/left bundle branch block B. A complete heart block indicating no relationship between the atria and ventricles

C. To prevent pleural friction rub that is associated with pleurisy and pain D. To increase the size of the air sacs of the lungs to improve oxygenation Correct Answer B. You suspect your unconscious adult trauma patient may have increased intracranial pressure from a closed head injury. Due to the compression forces of increased intracranial pressure, at what level of brain injury would be expected if the patient is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes respirations and is presenting with increasing blood pressure readings and a decreasing, reactive pulse rate? A. Cortex and upper brainstem B. Midbrain region C. Medulla oblongata D. Lower portion of the brainstem Correct Answer A. You are called to assist a pregnant female in the 24th week gestation period according to her due date. The pale 26 - year-old patient is found supine in bed, complaining of dizziness/weakness with extreme nausea. The patient denies vaginal bleeding, amniotic fluid leakage, or abdominal pain. There are no signs of imminent birth or active labor. She reports receiving normal prenatal care with no associated problems found during the pregnancy. Her heart rate is 126-130 beats per minute; her blood

pressure is 80 mmHg systolic while her skin is cool and pale. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the patient's presentation? A. Uterine rupture B. Spontaneous abortion C. Supine hypotension D. Placenta previa Correct Answer C. You are dispatched to the scene of a one-vehicle motor collision. Upon your arrival at the scene, you note that the vehicle struck a tree on the driver side. The driver is the only patient, and she is still sitting in the driver seat of the vehicle. The vehicle is stable and has moderate damage noted to the driver side, which prevents the driver side door from opening. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to extricate the patient from the vehicle? A. Break the driver side window and attempt to remove the patient through the window B. Open the rear driver side door and extricate the patient through the backseat

C. 2.5 mg of albuterol in 3-mL solution, nebulized and delivered with ventilation D. 1.25 mg of levalbuterol in 3-mL solution, nebulized and delivered with ventilation Correct Answer C. You are called to assist an adult with chest pain. The patient has a cardiac history of two-posterior myocardial infarctions. He is conscious and alert, stating he is having a hard time breathing, and the chest pain worsens when he attempts to lay flat on his back. His skin is pale and hot, while auscultation of his lung sounds reveals mild crackles. He reports the pain worsens on deep inspiration and movement. Based on the patient's history, and signs and symptoms, which of the following should you suspect? A. Unstable angina pectoris B. Pericarditis C. Myocardial infarction D. Cardiomyopathy Correct Answer B.

You are the first ambulance to arrive on the scene of a single-car accident. As you approach the scene, you see four patients, two have been ejected from their vehicle, and two are still in the vehicle. What should be your next course of action? A. Call medical control, and advise them of the situation B. Request additional resources, such as fire rescue, and additional ambulances to respond to the scene C. Begin immediate triage and treatment of the two patients ejected first while awaiting fire department response D. Notify the local trauma center so they can prepare for the patients Correct Answer B. A patient is experiencing a possible neurological emergency from a blunt force closed head injury. He is found to have abnormal pupillary reactions to light and has lost the ability to move his eyes from side to side to follow your finger movements. He is also unable to identify the number of fingers you are holding up. He reports he is able to see the fingers but is not able to focus enough to identify how many fingers are present.