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NREMT Paramedic Prep - 200 Questions with Correct Answers, Exams of Advanced Education

A collection of multiple-choice questions and answers designed to prepare individuals for the nremt paramedic exam. It covers a wide range of topics relevant to paramedic practice, including cardiac emergencies, trauma management, neurological emergencies, and shock. The questions are presented in a format similar to the actual exam, allowing test-takers to familiarize themselves with the question style and content.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 02/08/2025

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NREMT Paramedic Prep - 200 Questions

with correct Answers

You are called to assist an adult with chest pain. The patient has a cardiac history of two-posterior myocardial infarctions. He is conscious and alert, stating he is having a hard time breathing, and the chest pain worsens when he attempts to lay flat on his back. His skin is pale and hot, while auscultation of his lung sounds reveals mild crackles. He reports the pain worsens on deep inspiration and movement. Based on the patient's history, and signs and symptoms, which of the following should you suspect? A. Unstable angina pectoris B. Pericarditis C. Myocardial infarction D. Cardiomyopathy - Correct Answers - B. You are the first ambulance to arrive on the scene of a single-car accident. As you approach the scene, you see four patients, two have been ejected from their vehicle, and two are still in the vehicle. What should be your next course of action? A. Call medical control, and advise them of the situation B. Request additional resources, such as fire rescue, and additional ambulances to respond to the scene C. Begin immediate triage and treatment of the two patients ejected first while awaiting fire department response D. Notify the local trauma center so they can prepare for the patients - Correct Answers - B.

A patient is experiencing a possible neurological emergency from a blunt force closed head injury. He is found to have abnormal pupillary reactions to light and has lost the ability to move his eyes from side to side to follow your finger movements. He is also unable to identify the number of fingers you are holding up. He reports he is able to see the fingers but is not able to focus enough to identify how many fingers are present. Which of the following cranial nerves should you suspect may be involved in his injury? A. Cranial nerves I, V, and VI B. Cranial nerves V and VII C. Cranial nerves IX and X D. Cranial nerves II, III, and IV - Correct Answers - D. Simply put, shock is a state of hypoperfusion due to several different causes. Which one of the following types of shock would be considered distributive shock? A. Hypovolemic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Anaphylactic shock D. Toxic shock syndrome - Correct Answers - C. Your adult trauma patient is experiencing severe pain from a femur fracture. He is conscious, alert and oriented, with a heart rate of 120 per minute; his respirations are 28 per minute, and his blood pressure is 78/30. He is begging you to administer something for pain. He states he is allergic to Vicodin and aspirin. Why would medical command most likely decline the request for morphine sulfate in this case? A. The patient is asking for narcotics inappropriately

A.

Lead V B. Lead I C. aVR D. aVL - Correct Answers - C Which of the following is responsible for initiating the sympathetic response to shock during a traumatic event? A. Increased oxygen level and increased PCO B. Increased peripheral vascular resistance and alkalosis C. Decreased perfusion and increased acidosis D. Peripheral vasodilation and increased capillary permeability - Correct Answers - C. During which wave, complex, interval, or segment of an electrocardiogram tracing does the absolute refractory period take place in a normally functioning heart? A. S-T segment B. P-R interval C. P wave D. Q-T interval - Correct Answers - D. You are preparing to perform synchronized electrical cardioversion with a biphasic defibrillator on your unstable adult patient who is experiencing supraventricular tachycardia at 160 beats per minute on the monitor. Which of the following initial energy settings would be recommended if he was exhibiting a narrow complex, regular

supraventricular tachycardia, in which his palpable carotid pulse matches the rhythm on the monitor? A. Synchronized cardioversion at 50-100 joules B. Defibrillation at 100 joules C. Synchronized cardioversion at 360 joules D. Defibrillation at 360 joules - Correct Answers - A. Other than a stroke, what is a common cause of one-sided facial droop and paralysis in an adult patient who exhibits no other neurological findings? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) B. Multiple sclerosis C. Huntington's disease D. Bell's palsy - Correct Answers - D. You are on-scene with a patient who was struck by a car on her bicycle. She is conscious and alert but has a possible closed right mid-shaft femur fracture. The patient advises you that she is sixteen but does not need parental consent to be treated. Which of the following situations would make this statement true? A. She can be treated under implied consent because her injury may become life- threatening B. She is not an American citizen, visiting on a student visa C. She is an emancipated minor granted by the court D.

Tachycardia, hypertension, one-sided paralysis, and amnesia D. Tachycardia, hypotension, diaphoresis, cool, and clammy skin - Correct Answers - A. You are on-scene with an adult patient exhibiting unusual activity and appears to be intoxicated. He is anxious and hyperactive. His heart rate and respirations are fast, but his blood pressure remains within normal range for his age. The patient denies alcohol or drug consumption but reports he has diabetes. His blood glucose level is found to be 54 milligrams per deciliter. How would hypoglycemia cause the patient to present with the above findings? A. The low blood sugar levels stimulate the sympathetic nervous system to trigger the release of epinephrine into the bloodstream to promote liver glycogenolysis B. Low blood sugar levels mimic alcohol intoxication in the brain because of elevated insulin levels in the bloodstream C. The elevated heart rate and respirations stimulate the adipose tissue to increase glucose and fatty acid uptake in an attempt to correct the blood glucose level D. The heart rate and r - Correct Answers - A. You are on scene at a motor vehicle accident, and your 20-year-old patient is entrapped. He is unconscious, unresponsive, and has a palpable carotid pulse that is weak and thready. His breathing is slow and shallow at four times a minute with equal chest wall expansion. There are no obvious deformity injuries or hemorrhage noted. Fire department on-scene has stabilized the vehicle and provided you and your partner a relatively safe environment to manage the entrapped patient. However, access is limited to the seated patient, and extrication is expected to take another twenty minutes. After having your partner maintain cervical spine stabilization, which of the following would be the best choice for securing the patient's airway? A. Insert a nasal airway and administer high-flow oxygen therapy B. Use nasotracheal intubation techniques to gain complete control of the patient's airway and assist ventilation

C.

Intub - Correct Answers - D. You are on-scene with a 60-year-old COPD patient complaining of shortness of breath. During your exam, you note the presence of clubbed fingertips. Which of the following is most likely to cause this finding? A. Congestive heart failure especially left ventricular failure B. Long-term hypoxemia C. Hypocapnia resulting from low carbon-dioxide levels D. Hemoglobin saturated with red blood cells - Correct Answers - B. When involved in transporting a patient from the hospital (regardless of the destination), which of the following disease processes, along with HIV/AIDS, must be reported to the transporting crew members to prevent the accidental transmission of the disease? A. Shingles and pneumonia B. Hepatitis and tuberculosis C. ARDS and sepsis D. Syphilis and gonorrhea - Correct Answers - B. Which of the following patients best fits the criteria for a critical burn? A. A 10-year-old patient with superficial burns over 60% of the body B. A 15-year-old patient with full-thickness burns on the left upper/lower arm, non- circumferential Which of the following patients best fits the criteria for a critical burn?

Metabolic acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis - Correct Answers - B. You are assessing an adult patient experiencing sudden-onset chest pain and dyspnea. He quickly exhibits jugular vein distension and cool, clammy skin. His trachea is midline, but there are palpable air pockets under the skin on his upper chest on the left side that feel as though they pop or vanish when you palpate them. What is this abnormal finding? A. Subcutaneous emphysema B. Atelectasis C. Pitting edema D. Ascites - Correct Answers - A. You are treating a 68-year-old cardiac history patient experiencing chest pain. If it is determined at the hospital that he experienced an acute myocardial infarction of the septal wall, which of the coronary arteries was most likely occluded? A. Circumflex artery B. Right main coronary artery C. Posterior descending artery D. Left main coronary artery - Correct Answers - D. You are on-scene with a 70-year-old female who complains of being awakened in the middle of the night by sudden onset dyspnea and sweating. She is breathing 32 times per minute with inspiratory/expiratory wheezing and rales auscultated in all fields bilaterally, with an SpO2 of 88 percent on room air. Her heart rate is 136 beats per minute, showing an irregularly irregular sinus tachycardia on the monitor. Which of the following is most likely causing the patient's current signs and symptoms?

A.

Acute renal failure B. Chronic bronchitis C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome - Correct Answers - C. Your adult female postpartum patient delivered her newborn with the assistance of her husband five minutes prior to your arrival on the scene. The infant's Apgar score is 10, and the baby seems to be fine. However, the mother continues to bleed heavily after an adequate fundal massage and encouraging the infant to breastfeed. Her current heart rate is 125 bpm; her blood pressure is 108/60, and she is breathing 22 times a minute with an SpO2 of 97. After ensuring a second infant is not present, which of the following interventions would medical command most likely recommend? A. Continue fundal massage, and pack the vagina with sterile ABD or trauma pads B. Administer lactated Ringer's solution run wide open using macro-drip tubing under pressure C. Administer a fluid bolus of 1,000 mL of normal saline, and transport the patient in the Trendelenburg position D. Administer oxytocin infusion (1 unit per 100 mL of la - Correct Answers - D. Which of the following operational modes used in EMS communication can transmit voice as well as telemetry simultaneously? A. Trunk system mode B. Multiplex mode C. Duplex mode D. Simplex mode - Correct Answers - B. You are evaluating a 58-year-old who presented with sudden onset chest pain that radiates downward to his lumbar spine region. His peripheral pulses are present but

B. Start an intravenous line, draw blood samples, and administer one amp of dextrose 50 percent (D50) C. Start an intravenous line, and draw blood samples before administering a glucose- containing IV fluid bolus D. Quickly establish an intravenous line, and transport the patient to the nearest hospital for blood glucose analysis prior to medication administration - Correct Answers - B. You arrive on-scene to a two-vehicle MVA. One vehicle is already being attended to by another ambulance, so you head to the other car. Your patient is a 40-year-old male, standing outside of his car. Immediately, you can see your patient slightly swaying on his feet, and his breath smells of alcohol, but he has no noticeable injuries. There is slight crumpling on the driver's side of his car, and airbags have been deployed. Your patient adamantly says that he is not injured, but upon an assessment of his mental faculties, he is unsure of what month it is or what city he is in at the time. The patient does admit that he has only had two beers and is not inebriated. What C-Spine precautions, if any, should you take? A. Patient is ambulatory, and the lack of ability to remember the city he is in or what month it is can be attributed to the shock of the crash and his being inebriated B. Patient will need full C-spine - Correct Answers - B. What can a paramedic expect to occur in a closed-head injury patient when the intracranial pressure increases and the mean arterial pressure decreases? A. The patient's cerebral blood flow decreases B. The patient has likely suffered a brainstem herniation C. A marked increase in the patient's blood glucose level D. The formation of an intracranial abscess - Correct Answers - A. When determining an estimated time of death on-scene, what is the terminology used to describe blood and fluid leaving the areas of the face, nose, and chin assisted by gravity and allowed to settle in the lowest parts of the body? A. Dependent lividity B. Cyanosis C. Rigor mortis

D. Post-partum blood pooling - Correct Answers - A. You are intubating a 26-year-old who is apneic. Once the endotracheal tube passes through the vocal cords, how much farther should the endotracheal tube be advanced before inflating the cuff and confirming proper placement? A. 0.5 to 1 inch B. Less than 1 cm C. 2 to 3 cm D. 1 to 2.5 inches - Correct Answers - A. You are cleaning the back of the truck after transporting a trauma patient to the emergency department. Which of the following contaminated items should not be placed in a plastic biohazard bag? A. Plastic IV catheter B. Nasopharyngeal or oral airway C. French suction catheter D. Blood-soaked gauze pads - Correct Answers - A. You suspect that your trauma patient may be experiencing the adverse effects of a crush injury after being entrapped under a fallen building for several hours before rescue. He is found to be wheezing with shortness of breath and hypotension with no obvious sign of chest wall/lung injury or blood loss. What is the most likely cause of these findings in a crush injury patient? A. Histamine release B. Atelectasis from the compressive forces C. Aortic dissection D. Thrombin formation - Correct Answers - A. Your adult asthma patient is experiencing a severe attack characterized by inspiratory and expiratory wheezes with potential airway compromise due to laryngospasm. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate after oxygen therapy is applied?

B. Bradycardia associated with loss in vascular tone C. Total absence of pain, sensation, and movement (paralysis) below the point of the transection (injury) D. Right-sided paralysis with decreased sensation on the opposite side of the body - Correct Answers - C. You are on-scene with a patient who you suspect may be experiencing a myocardial infarction. He is conscious and alert, anxious, and has dilated pupils. He complains of substernal chest pain and admits to recent cocaine use. How does the use of cocaine increase the risk of experiencing an acute myocardial infarction? A. It speeds the heart rate to the point of asystole B. It causes the blood in the periphery to clot and travel to the coronary arteries C. It actually numbs the heart, making coronary perfusion difficult D. It causes coronary artery constriction and increases the chance of dislodging a thrombus or plaque - Correct Answers - D. In which of the following situations would evaluating the ST segment elevation of a patient suffering from a suspected myocardial infarction not be indicated to determine if an infarction exists? A. When a pre-existing right bundle branch block is present B. When the patient is hypotensive C. In the presence of pulmonary edema D. In the presence of a left bundle branch block - Correct Answers - D. If an adult patient is experiencing the signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction with perfusing arrhythmias, which of the following pre-hospital interventions will help to reduce the patient's cardiac preload and afterload? A. The intravenous administration of 2-4 mg of morphine per a medical-control physician's order B. The administration of various medications and dosages to control the specific dysrhythmias such as procainamide, atropine, verapamil, and others C. The administration of sublingual nitroglycerin therapy

D. The administration of high-flow oxygen therapy (15 liters per minute) via a non- rebreather mask - Correct Answers - C. Your adult patient was entrapped by dirt up to his mid-abdominal area for a few hours while rescue crews worked to free him. Once on the cardiac monitor, why would tall, tented T waves become evident quickly? A. Hyperkalemia caused by the sudden influx of potassium B. Myocardial ischemia caused by decreased available oxygen for the myocardium C. Hypokalemia associated with the sudden release of the compressive force D. Cardiac tamponade associated with increased intrathoracic pressure and blood pressure - Correct Answers - A. The alpha, beta-1, and beta-2 receptors are important in the maintenance of heart rate and respiratory function. What can we expect to occur if a patient's beta-1 receptors are stimulated? A. Decrease in the diameter of the bronchioles to help retain carbon dioxide when needed B. Increased heart rate and strength of contraction C. Increase in the diameter of the bronchioles to let more air in and out during ventilation D. Decrease in the heart rate and the size of the bronchioles - Correct Answers - B. You are called to stage at a mass casualty incident involving exposure to possible chemical agents during the event. Knowing you will likely transport one or more patients from the scene that have been grossly decontaminated in the decontamination section, what measures can you take to minimize the possible contamination of your unit during the patient care/transport encounter? A. Use disposable equipment as much as possible, remove all equipment that will not likely be needed during transport, cover the patient and stretcher with plastic B. Patient should be transported in a full hazmat suit after gross decontamination to prevent infecting EMS and ER staff C. Cover the patient with sheets and blankets and administer oxygen via a non- rebreather mask to prevent spread of toxins

C. Subdural hematoma D. Epidural hematoma - Correct Answers - C. An adult trauma patient suffered a fall from greater than 15 feet. When predicting the injuries associated with this type injury, the paramedic should evaluate the distance fallen, the position of the body on impact, and which of the following? A. The type of landing surface involved B. The ambient temperature at the time of the fall C. The patient's neurological status D. The body parts that were struck with the most force - Correct Answers - A. Negligence is divided into three categories. Which of the following is not one of the categories? A. Malfeasance B. Misfeasance C. Nonfeasance D. Milfeasance - Correct Answers - D. You are assessing a patient with an altered mental status and has a diabetic history. Which of the following would most likely indicate the patient is suffering from diabetic ketoacidosis? A. Cool, moist skin, wet mucous membranes, normal pulses and blood pressure, shallow respirations, and family members report increasing hunger and then nausea in the patient before calling 9- 1 - 1 B. Red hot skin, wet mucous membranes, weak tachycardic pulses, hypotension, shallow rapid respirations, and family members report that the patient spoke of a loss of appetite for several days before calling 9- 1 - 1 C. Dry, doughy-looking skin that is cool to the touch, unresponsiveness, bradycardic pulse, normal blood pressure, slow, shallow respirations, and family members report that the patient spoke of increasing intolerance to cold for several days before calling 9- 1 - 1 D. Dry skin, dry mucous membranes, hypotension, shallow rapid re - Correct Answers - D.

What can the paramedic expect to find when evaluating the pupillary response of a patient suspected of suffering from herniation? A. Bilateral pupil dilation B. A unilaterally, unequal and non-reactive pupil C. Bilaterally, unequal and non-responsive pupils D. Sluggish response, but equal pupils - Correct Answers - B. In a trauma situation, it is acceptable to administer either normal saline or lactated Ringer's to your patient for volume replacement. What is the primary benefit of choosing lactated Ringer's? A. It will stay in the vascular system longer, promoting blood pressure B. It has the ability to carry red blood cells C. It helps decrease acidosis in a hypovolemic patient D. It helps increase acidosis in the hypovolemic patient - Correct Answers - C. You are performing orotracheal intubation on an average-sized, apneic adult. At what depth marking should the airway be properly positioned 2 to 3 cm above the carina? A. 9 to 13 centimeters B. 29 to 32 centimeters C. 19 to 23 centimeters D. 32 to 36 centimeters - Correct Answers - C. Opioid antagonists reverse the symptoms of an opioid overdose. Which of the following medications would be effective in reversing the adverse effects of a benzodiazepine overdose? A. Naltrexone B. Alprazolam C. Flumazenil D. Naloxone - Correct Answers - C.