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NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A), Exams of Nursing

NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A)NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam (3 Versions 2022-

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NRNP 6568 Midterm & Final Exam 3

Versions 2022-2023 Verified Q & A

NRNP 6568 Week 1 - 6 Quiz Compilations

Question 1

1 out of 1 points Telemedicine is defined as Selected Answer: When care is provided remotely and the provider and patient are not physically present with each other Answers:

Question 2 When care is provided remotely and the^ provider and patient are not

physically present with each other When care is provided remotely and the provider and patient are physically present with each other Remote care that is challenging and only used for psychiatric patients Remote care provided to patients by providers and does not require HIPPA compliant video conferencing 1 out of 1 points What are the main benefits to the NP of NP practice ownership? Selected Answer: All of the above

Decides on the length of patient visits and how the practice is Answers: (^) the run Chooses employees and controls qualities May titrate workload to income A and B only All of the above

Question 3

1 out of 1 points Different states have different titles for NPs. All of the following are recognized titles for Nurse Practitioners EXCEPT: How is the NP titled in your state? Also list the titles for NPs in two neighboring states. Selected Answer: Answers:

Question 4

Registered Nurse Practitioner Provider Advanced Practice Registered Nurse Advanced Registered Nurse Practitioner Certified Nurse Practitioner Registered Nurse Practitioner Provider 1 out of 1 points A 55 year old male was admitted to hospital. The patient's mother wants to know what is happening with her son’s health. The provider begins to share medical information with mom. There is no signed HIPPA waiver in patients chart. This is not a HIPPA violation considering this is the patient’s mother, Selected Answer: Fals e

Answers: True

Question 5

Fals e 1 out of 1 points It is vital for an NP to obtain a family history because Selected Answer: B and C correct Teaches you to have biases about your Answers: care Indicate need for Genetic testing Guide the decision for Diagnostic testing B and C correct All of the above

Question 6

1 out of 1 points PhRMA will allow pharmaceutical companies to buy meals for clinicians if: Selected Answer: Occasional basis during lunchtime Answers: Occasional basis during lunchtime Every other week during lunchtime As often as desires at any time of day Dinner time only

Question 7

1 out of 1 points When giving patients written information, what is the suggested reading level for that health information?

Selected Answer: 5 th^ grade Answers: 10 th gra de 7 th^ grad e 1 st^ grad e 5 th^ grade

Question 8

1 out of 1 points Release of information (ROI) to third parties requires authorization by the patient or his or her legal representative. True or False? Selected Answer: True Answers: True Fals e

Question 9

0 out of 1 points In 1997, Medicare reimbursement to NPs regardless of their geographic area of practice was authorized by Congress. Selected Answer: True Answers: True Fals e

Question 10

1 out of 1 points If an NP is at a social gathering and someone casually asks his/her medical opinion, that NP could be liable if something goes wrong. True or false? Selected Answer:

True Answers: True Fals e

Question 1

1 out of 1 points If an NP is sued, it is important that the NP not call the insurance company immediately so as to prevent the rates from increasing. True or false? Selected Answer: Fals e Answers: True Fals e

Question 2

1 out of 1 points Standard of care is the use of unreasonable, extraordinary care, skill, and diligence as an NP in the type of patient practice in similar cases. Selected Answer: Fals e Answers: True Fals e

Question 3

1 out of 1 points How can an NP prevent lawsuits? Selected Answer:

All of the above 1 out of 1 points An occurrence policy covers any incident that occurred while the NP was insured. A claims made policy covers an NP only when the insurance policy is active, no matter when the incident occurred. Selected Answer: True Answers: True Fals 4

Question 5

1 out of 1 points 5 court can revoke an NP’s license. True or False? 1 out of 1 points If a patient is dismissed from a practice, it is important that certain rules are followed. A patient should be sent a dismissal letter by First Class mail with return receipt requested. What elements need to be included in the letter? Answers: Establish a positive patient-provider relationship Follow the standard of care and utilize the practice guidelines in developing a treatment plan When in doubt, rule out the worse diagnoses early on A and B only

Question 4

All of the above Selected Answer: Answers: Response Feedback:

Question 6

Fals e True Fals e A board of nursing can suspend or revoke an NP’s license.

Selected Answer: Answers: The last day the practitioner will be available to render medical care, which should be at least 30 days; indication that med refills will be provided during this period; alternative sources of medical care; how to obtain medical records The last day the practitioner will be available to render medical care, which should be at least 30 days; indication that med refills will be provided during this period; alternative sources of medical care; how to obtain medical records The last day the practitioner will be available to render medical care, which can be immediately; referral information to another provider, and how to obtain medical records Notice of immediate discharge from the practitioners care, prescriptions for 30 days of their medications, and how to obtain medical records The last day the practitioner will be available to render medical care, which should be at least 60 days; indication that med refills will not be provided during this period; referral to new provider; how to obtain medical records

Question 7

0 out of 1 pointsMedicare is a program that is administered by the federal government. Selected Answer: Fals e Answers: True Fals e

Question 8

1 out of 1 pointsThe review of systems (ROS) is documented in the Physical Exam section of the visit. Selected Answer: Fals e Answers: True Fals e

Question 9

1 out of 1 points Name four of the seven vital signs that can be included when documenting the constitutional part of the general multisystem examination Selected Answer: Sitting or standing BP, supine BP, pulse rate and regularity, respiration, temperature, height, weight

Answers: Sitting or standing BP, supine BP, pulse rate and regularity, respiration, temperature, height, weight Sitting, lounging, lifting, and moving Heart rate, walking straight line, squatting, and arm raise Blood pressure, pulse, oxygen saturation, BMI

Question 10

0 out of 1 points Patient handoff means to the transfer of care of a patient from one practitioner to another. Selected Answer: Fals e Answers: True Fals e

Question 1

1 out of 1 pointsThe NP recognizes common causes of tympanic membrane perforation include: Selected Answer: Answers:

Question 2

barotrauma, physical trauma, blast injury, pressure and inflammation of AOM sinus inflammation, external ear canal irritation, barotrauma barotrauma, physical trauma, blast injury, pressure and inflammation of AOM pressure and inflammation of AOM, tugging on the ear, physical trauma sinus infection, pharyngitis, and barotrauma 1 out of 1 points What is normal intraocular pressure?

Selected Answer: Answers:

Question 3

10 — 20 mm hg 5 - 8 mm hg 2 - 4 mm hg 10 — 20 mm hg 50 mm hg or greater 1 out of 1 points Common symptoms of a hordeolum include warm, tender, and red eyelid. Selected Answer: True Answers: True Fals e

Question 4

1 out of 1 points Rhinitis medicamentosa is a condition in which nasal decongestants are overused and the patient’s congestion has worsened. Selected Answer: True Answers: True Fals e

Question 5

1 out of 1 points The NP recognizes common symptoms for allergic rhinitis include:

Selected Answer: Answers:

Question 6

Runny nose and itchy eyes Bloody nasal discharge Runny nose and itchy eyes Purulent nasal discharge Cough and fever 1 out of 1 points Match the definitions using the following three terms: hyposmia; anosmia, parosmia. o Question Correct Match Selected Match Olfactory dysfunction (loss of smell) A. A. anosmia anosmia Smell distortion B. B. parosmia parosmia

Answers: nasal congestion, facial/dental pain, postnasal drip, fever, yellow/green nasal discharge, headache clear nasal drainage, cough, and wheezing Cough, wheezing, post nasal drip, and afebrile Headache, afebrile, sneezing, cough

Question 8

1 out of 1 points The Centor criteria have been shown to be predictive of a positive diagnosis of _______ in adult patients. Selected Answer: Group A streptococcal pharyngitis Answers: Staphylococcus

C.

hyposmia Diminished sense of smell: _________ o All Answer Choices A. anosmia B. parosmia C. hyposmia o

Question 7

NP recognizes characteristics of acute sinusitis include: Selected Answer:

C.

hyposmia 1 out of 1 points The nasal congestion, facial/dental pain, postnasal drip, fever, yellow/green nasal discharge, headache

Group A streptococcal pharyngitis Group B streptococcal pharyngitis H. Influenza

Question 9

1 out of 1 points All of the following can lead to recurrent epistaxis: hemophilia, Von Willebrand disease, hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia, and thrombocytopenia Selected Answer: True Answers: True Fals e

Question 10

1 out of 1 points A 15 year old child with sore throat comes to clinic and rapid strep is positive for strep. The NP will more than likely treat patient with: Selected Answer: All of the above Answers: PCN V 500 mg bid x10 days Salt water gargles Throat lozenges All of the above

Question 1

1 out of 1 points COPD beings earlier in life while asthma symptoms don't usually appear until midlife

Selected Answer: Answers: Fals e True Fals e

Question 2

1 out of 1 points How would you interpret this EKG? Second degree heart block Mobitz Type 2 Answers: STEMI Second degree heart block Mobitz Type 2 Atrial fibrillation Ventricular tachycardia

Question 3

1 out of 1 points A PPD skin test result that is a bright-red color and is not indurated is a positive result. Selected Answer: Fals e Selected Answer:

Answers: True Fals e

Question 4

1 out of 1 points In patients with hypertension, salt should be restricted to a maximum of ______ grams per day. Selected Answer: 2. Answers: 1.

Question 5

1 out of 1 points Classify the following diuretics as either thiazide diuretics, loop diuretics, or potassium sparing diuretics. o Question Correct Match Selected Match Hydrochlorothiazide:___ _____ A. A. Spironolactone:________ ___ thiazide thiazide B. potassium sparing

B.

potassium sparing Chlorthalidone:________ _ C. C. Eplerenone: __________ thiazide thiazide D. potassium sparing

D.

potassium sparing Furosemide:

______________ E. E.

loop loop Bumetanide:___________


F. loop Torsemide:_____________ _ G. loop

F.

loop G. loop o All Answer Choices

A. thiazide B. potassium sparing C. thiazide D. potassium sparing E. loop F. loop G. loop o

Question 6

1 out of 1 points What is the leading cause of death for women in the United States? Selected Answer: Cardiovascular disease Answers: Lung disease Cardiovascular disease Breast cancer Neuromuscular disease

Question 7

1 out of 1 points How would you interpret this EKG?

Selected Answer: Atrial fibrillation Answers: STEMI First degree heart block

Question 8

Atrial fibrillation Sinus rhythm 1 out of 1 points How would you interpret this EKG? Selected Answer: Ventricular tachycardia

Answers: STEMI Third degree heart block Atrial fibrillation

Question 9

Ventricular tachycardia 1 out of 1 points All are a risk factor for COPD except: Selected Answer: airway hyporeactivity Answers: cigarette smoking airway hyporeactivity childhood respiratory infections occupational exposures

Question 10

1 out of 1 points ............................................................................................................ 1 5 ............................................................................................................................. 5 6 ............................................................................................................................. 6 Treatment of an abdominal aortic aneurysm is recommended when it has grown to greater than _______ in diameter. Selected Answer: Answers:

Question 1

1 out of 1 points An S3 heart sound can be a normal finding in all the following except: Selected Answer: 40 year old female Well trained athletes Pregnant women Children 40 year old female Answers:

Question 2

1 out of 1 points Serum creatinine is a better measure of renal function than BUN. Selected Answer: True Answers: True False

Question 3

1 out of 1 points Sara is a 38 y/o multipara who is in her 6th– 7 th month of pregnancy with her fourth child. She has a new onset of vaginal bleeding that is worsened by intercourse. On external physical exam, you note that her uterus is soft and non-tender to palpation. The most likely diagnosis for this condition is: Selected Answer: Placenta previa Answers: Placental abruption Severe preeclampsia Placenta previa

None of the above

Question 4

1 out of 1 points Melanoma is the most common type of skin cancer. Selected Answer: False Answers: True False

Question 5

0 out of 1 points A pregnant women who has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) in the second trimester has which type of diabetes? Selected Answer: Neithe r Answers:

Question 6

Type I Type 2 Neithe r 1 out of 1 points Carlos is a 64 y/o male who has previously been diagnosed as a Category A COPD patient based on Gold guidelines (2017). The Category A patient group includes which of the following? Selected Answer: (^) Minimally symptomatic (low risk of exacerbation)

Answers: Question

7 Minimally symptomatic (low risk of exacerbation)

More symptomatic (low risk of exacerbation) Minimally symptomatic (high risk of exacerbation) High risk

1 out of 1 points Breast cancer in women is characterized by all of the following except: Selected Answer: Mobile mass on palpation Answers: Mobile mass on palpation Mass is painless Mass is typically found in the upper outer quadrant Skin around breast is dimpled

Question 8

1 out of 1 points Andrew, a 41 y/o male resident of Oklahoma, presents to the clinic in July with the following symptoms: fever, chills, severe headache photophobia, and myalgia. He states that since his fever occurred 2 days ago, he now has this rash of petechiae on wrists, forearms, and ankles. The first line pharmacological treatment for Andrew would include: Selected Answer: Doxycycline Answers: Chlorampheni col Doxycycline Ampicillin Penicillin

Question 9

1 out of 1 points Oral contraceptives can be started anytime in the menstrual cycle. Selected Answer: True Answers: True

False

Question 10

1 out of 1 points Joan is a 39 y/o female who presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of: 3day history of fever (101 F degrees), chills, n & v, and flank pain. During the physical exam, the NP notices that Joan has CVA tenderness. In a urine check, the NP notes that she has many leukocytes, hematuria, WBC casts, and mild proteinuria. The most likely diagnosis is: Selected Answer: Acute pyelonephritis Answers: Acute pyelonephritis Nephrolithiasis Simple UTI None of the above

Question 11

1 out of 1 points The preferred test for oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) in a pregnant woman is: Selected Answer: 75 g 100 g 75 g 50 g 25 g

Answers: Question

1 out of 1 points Lactation mastitis typically occurs in which time frame:

Selected Answer: Within the first 2 months after birth At 3 months after birth At 6 months after birth Within the first 2 months after birth None of the above

Answers: Question

0 out of 1 pointsSusan is a 29 y/o female who comes to the clinic with a 3-day history of fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, and flank pain. During the visit, the NP does a urine dipstick and discover that Susan is positive for nitrites, leukocytes, and >10 WBCs. The physical exam reveals a CVA tenderness. In treating Susan, the NP could use which of the following antibiotics? Selected Answer: TMP-SMX TMP-SMX Nitrofurantoin Ampicillin All of the above A & C only

Answers: Question

1 out of 1 pointsMark is an alcoholic who is stopped for drunk driving. When the officers approach him he states that he wants to die. The officers decide that for his own protection they will Baker Act him. The Baker Act allows for involuntary detention for what period. Selected Answer: 72 hours 1 out of 1 points Pityriasis rosea is described as having a Christmas tree–like pattern. Selected Answer: True Answers: True False

Question 16

1 out of 1 points Bonnie is a 76 y/o female patient who resides in a nursing home. She is currently on a 10- day course of Clindamycin for a recurrent bacterial vaginal infection. She has started having 10 – 15 watery stools per day. The NP recognizes this as: Selected Answer: Clostridium difficile colitis

Answers: Question 17

Crohn’s disease Ulcerative colitis Answers: Until the person sobers up 48 hours

Question 15

72 hours 96 hours

Clostridium difficile colitis None of the above 0 out of 1 points Jon, a 63 y/o male, comes to the clinic with the following presentation. He reports a sudden eruption of multiple vesicular lesions on his scalp, forehead, and sides and tips of his nose. Treatment for Jon’s condition would include which of the following drugs? Selected Answer: Answers: Acyclovir Acyclovir Valacyclovir Famciclovir All of the above None of the above

Question 18

1 out of 1 points Joan is a 39 y/o female who presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of: 3day history of fever (101 F degrees), chills, n & v, and flank pain. During the physical exam, the NP notices that Joan has CVA tenderness. In a urine check, the NP notes that she has many leukocytes, hematuria, WBC casts, and mild proteinuria. Pharmacological treatment for Joan could include which of the following drugs: Selected Answer: All of the above Answers: Fluoroquinolon e