NRNP 6675 Final Exam (Week 11)100% Correct Answers – LATEST Update 2024, Exams of Nursing

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NRNP 6675 Final Exam (Week 11)100% Correct Answers

– LATEST Update 2024

Question: 1 Concerns when treating geriatric patients with psychotherapeutic drugs include all of the following EXCEPT : A. Elderly persons may be more susceptible to adverse effects of psychotherapeutic drugs. B. Elderly persons may metabolize psychotherapeutic drugs more slowly. C. Elderly persons may metabolize psychotherapeutic drugs more rapidly. D. Elderly persons may excrete psychotherapeutic drugs more slowly. Question 2 The treatment of others equitably and distribution of benefits/burdens fairly is known as which of the following_?_ A. Fidelity B. Justice C. Beneficence D. Non-maleficence

Which of the following may govern the profession of the PMHNP? - Answer- Statutory laws

govern the practice of a profession. the U.S Constitution, certifications, and city ordinances do not

address professional practices.

Which of the following factors are facilitating the growth of the PMHNP? - Answer- Decreased

stigmatization regarding mental health enhances the growth of the profession. Increased

competition, overlapping scope of practice, and mandated collaborative practice relationships

restrict the growth of the profession.

Question 3 Persons who subordinate their own needs to those of others, get other to assume responsibility for major areas of the lives, lack self-confidence, and may experience intense discomfort when alone for more than a brief period of time are demonstrating characteristics consistent with which of the following personality disorders_?_ A. Avoidant personality disorder B. Passive personality disorder C. Dependent personality disorder D. Antisocial personality disorder Question 4 According to Sullivan, which of the following are consistent with a mentor/mentee relationship? A. Mentors are assigned B. Mentor relationships are shorter term C. Goals for the mentoring relationship are set mutually.

D. A and B only Question 5 A form of child abuse in which a parent or caretaker repeatedly fabricates or actually inflicts injury or illness in a child for whom medical intervention is then sought, often in an emergency setting, is known as which of the following? A. Korsakoff's syndrome B. Snyder's syndrome C. Munchausen syndrome D. Munchausen syndrome by proxy

which of the following is not a core competency of APRN'S? - Answer- Delegated Practice is not a

core competency of the APRN. The nurse practitioner may delegate individual tasks but not the

practice. The APRN must demonstrate competency in technology and information literacy health

delivery systems ethical principles and decision-making.

Which of the following is characteristic of the leadership competency for APRN's? - Answer-

Participating in a community focused program that promotes mental health exemplifies a leadership

competency. Evaluating the appropriate use of seclusion and restraints, developing an age-

appropriate treatment plan, and modifying the treatment plan based on clients' needs are clinical

competencies.

All of the following are characteristics of the independent practice competency except: - Answer-

Taking opportunities to influence health policy and reduce stigma of mental health services

exemplifies health policy competency. Considering differential diagnoses, conducting

psychotherapy and implementing plans to minimize comorbidity are examples of practicing with

full practice authority at the top of the professional license.

A state's Nurse Practice Act specifies all of the following except: - Answer- The state Nurse

Practice Act does not provide oversight of services and benefits provided to the patient. It does

define who may use the title and the work of the nurse practitioner as well as restrict the practice of

the professional.

Why is it necessary for insurance companies to credential PMHNP'S? - Answer- The purpose of

credentialing is to ensure public safety and a minimum level of professional competence: this helps

reduce vicarious liability on insurance companies. Insurance companies do not define the scope of

practice: they have nothing to do with professional organizations who grant certification. State

governing bodies define the role of the nurse practitioner.

Question 6 The need for nurse practitioners to practice to the full extent of their education and training is necessary for which of the following reasons? Select all that apply. A. The growth in number and proportion of older Americans B. The projected primary care physician shortage by 2025 C. Increased number of individuals who have access to healthcare D. The economic push for cost-effective healthcare Question 7 The ARNP assessing lifestyle as a social determinant of health would ask about which of the following? A. Diet B. Education C. Health literacy D. Inherited diseases Question 8 In educating the patient beginning to take Lithium, the ARNP explains which of the following related to diet and fluid intake? A. Caffeine and alcohol act as hydration agents and can raise your lithium concentrations. B. Drink at least a gallon or more of water per day and limit your salt intake. C. If you go on a diet, your doctor may need to increase frequency of blood tests. D. All of the above Question 9 The goal of psychotropic treatment is to eliminate all manifestations of a disorder to below the syndromal threshold, which is defined as which of the following? A. Response B. Remission C. Resistance D. Sensitization Question 10 The NP can impact health policy and healthcare by doing which of the following? A. Become an active member of local, state, and/or national NP organizations. B. Become familiar with the resources available on NP organization websites. C. Volunteer to serve on legislative committees within professional NP organizations. D. All the above

Question 11 A term used to describe individuals and families who are found to live in overcrowded homes, relocate frequently, and struggle to pay rent and monthly expenses is which of the following? A. Homelessness B. Housing instability C. Transiency D. A and B Question 12 Which of the following is consistent with current literature regarding the epidemiology of dependent personality disorder? A. Dependent personality is more common in men than in women. B. Dependent personality disorder is more common in young children than in older ones. C. Persons with chronic physical illness in childhood may be most susceptible to this disorder. D. B and C only

which of the following allows the PMHNP to practice in a state? - Answer- Certification allows a

professional to practice their profession in a state. Certification designates successful completion of

a course of study. Credentialing is a process that verifies minimum levels of professional

competency to ensure public safety. Graduation is ceremony offered by an education institution in

accordance with established criteria of completion.

All of the following are considered personal health identifiers except: - Answer- Personal health

identifiers include name, address, and phone number. Patient diagnosis is not considered a personal

health identifier.

Unless the patient provides consent for releasing information, the health information Portability and

Accountability Act (HIPAA) Prohibits the disclosure of personal health identifiers to all of the

following except: - Answer- The patient must consent to the release of personal health identifiers to

next of kin, clergy and an attorney. Patient consent is not required to release personal health

identifiers to a patient's health insurance company.

Question 13 Patients who injure themselves by self-mutilation (i.e., cutting their skin) but who usually do not wish to die are said to have which of the following? A. Suicide intent B. Suicidal ideations C. Parasuicidal behavior D. Aborted suicide attempt

Question 14 The NP preceptor should have which of the following? A. Knowledge of the NP role B. The ability to be a role model for the preceptee C. Solid clinical skill set in the specialty for which the NP student is being precepted D. All the above Question 15 The treatment of choice for patients with histrionic personality disorder include which of the following_?_ A. Psychoanalytic oriented individual psychotherapy B. Psychoanalytic oriented group psychotherapy C. Exposure therapy D. A or B Question 16 The antipsychotics which are most likely to cause neuroleptic-induced parkinsonism are which have which of the following effects? A. High potency drugs with low levels of anticholinergic activity. B. Low potency drugs with low levels of anticholinergic activity. C. High potency drugs with high levels of anticholinergic activity. D. Low potency drugs with high levels of anticholinergic activity.

All of the following statements are true regarding scope of practice except: - Answer- The cope of

practice defines the nurse practitioner role and actions, identifies minimal competencies held by all

nurse practitioners, and varies broadly from state to state. It does not provide a way to judge the

nature of care provided.

All of the following statements are true regarding standards of practice except: - Answer- Standards

of practice reflect the professional agreement that focuses on the minimum levels of acceptable

performance, a means of judging the nature of care provided, and can be used legally to describe

the standard of care that must be met by a provider. it does not identify competencies held by all

nurse practitioners as that is provided in the scope of practice.

Question 17 Treatment aimed at reducing intimate partner violence and domestic violence includes which of the following? A. Enhancing self-efficacy of the victim. B. Reducing recidivism of the abuser. C. Hormonal therapy for the perpetrator of abuse D. A and B only Question 18 A patient presents with a formal, tense manner. He reluctantly reports a longstanding (since early adulthood) pervasive suspiciousness of others, preoccupied with trustworthiness of friends, unjustified concerns about others deceiving him, angry about perceived insults and slights, reluctant to confide in the ARNP. The ARNP suspects the patient likely has which of the following personality disorders? A. Schizoid personality disorder B. Paranoid personality disorder C. Borderline personality disorder D. Antisocial personality disorder Question 19 Which of the following is consistent with current perspectives on nurse practitioner competencies? A. The National Organization of Nurse Practitioner Faculties has developed a list of core competencies that all students should have upon graduation from a master's program. B. Nursing specialty organizations DO NOT publish competencies for NPs who provide care in specialty areas. C. Employers DO NOT establish their own set of competencies. D. There are national standards for judging/evaluating nurse practitioner competencies. Question 20 Which of the following core competencies are quality competencies? A. Uses best available evidence to continually improve quality of practice. B. Integrates ethical policies in decision making. C. Evaluates the relationships among access cost quality safety and their influence on health care. D. A and C Question 21 Which of the following are criteria for a particular suicide to be considered inevitable? A. Strong genetic history of suicide in one or more family members. B. A strong genetic loading of mental illness in the family. C. The patient must have received the highest standard of treatment and that treatment failed. D. All of the above.

All of the following circumstances would allow the release of medical information without the

patients consent except: - Answer- Medical information may be released to parties needing to know

to prevent harm to self or others, arranging for payment from health insurance company, and in

response to court subpoenas or summonses. the patient must consent to release medical information

to the next of kin helping to make health care decisions.

A PMHNP is asked to determine if the patient has the capacity for informed consent. All of the

following elements are necessary for making this determination except: - Answer- The following

elements must be considered when asked to determine capacity for informed consent: the patients

understanding of the purpose of the proposed treatment, the risks and discomforts, benefits and

alternatives to the intended procedure. the therapeutic alliance with the surgeon is not essential for a

capacity decision.

Which of the following ethical principles deals with promoting the well being of a paitent? -

Answer- The principle of beneficence is that of doing good for the patient. Justice is the principle

of equity. Nonmaleficense is the principle of first doing no harm. Autonomy is the principle of

respecting the individual's right to self-determination.

Which of the following ethical principles would conflict if the treatment team wanted to implement

a therapeutic deception for the good of the patient? - Answer- Veracity is the ethical principle of

truthfulness and nondeception neither by omission or commission. Beneficence is the principle of

doing good. Nonmaleficense is the principle of first doing no harm. justice is the principle of

equity.

A patient who is refusing psychiatric treatment has their case adjudicated. The judge orders

treatment over objection for the good of the patient. Which ethical principal trump? - Answer-

Autonomy is the principle of respecting the individual's right to self-determination. Beneficence is

the principle of doing good. Nonmaleficence is the principle of first doing no harm. Justice is the

principle of equity.

Question 22 The misuse of the charge's funds for personal gain is known as which of the following? A. Neglect B. Physical abuse C. Financial abuse/exploitation D. Emotional/psychological abuse Question 23 Which of the following professionals would be able to precept a nurse practitioner student? A. An advanced registered nurse practitioner B. A physician C. A unlicensed social worker D. A and B Question 24 According to Freud, passive and dependent personality traits are associated with which stage of development? A. Oral stage B. Anal stage C. Phallic stage D. Latency stage Question 25 Self-injurious behavior with a nonfatal outcome, accompanied by explicit or implicit evidence that the person intended to die, is most specifically known as which of the following? A. Suicide B. Suicide intent C. Suicide attempt D. Aborted suicide attempt

development of the less experienced individual. Advocacy entails promoting. a particular cause of

policy. Policy making is the process of developing laws and regulations. Case management is a

collaborative process of assessment, planning, facilitation, care coordination, and evaluation of

resources needed to meet the patients' needs in a cost-effective manner.

All of the following are true regarding living wills except: - Answer- A living will is not legally

binding in all 50 states, but does designate agents to act on behalf of the patient in the event of

incapcity, is prepared while the patient has capacity and is considered an aspect of relapse planning

for compliance with chronic psychiatric disorders.

Question 26 The incidence of suicide is highest for which of the following populations? A. Older Latino men B. Older Caucasian men C. Older Caucasian women D. Older African American men Question 27 "Assumes complex and advanced leadership roles to initiate and guide change" is a NP core competency for which NP competency area? A. Policy competencies B. Quality competencies C. Leadership competencies D. Practice inquiry competencies Question 28 At a minimum, a psychiatric evaluation in an emergency should include which of the following? Select all that apply. A. Is the patient psychotic? B. Is the patient suicidal or homicidal? C. Is the problem organic, functional, or a combination? D. Is it safe for the patient to be in the emergency room? Question 29 Which stage of the cycle of domestic violence is characterized by the abuser subconsciously implementing defense mechanisms and cognitive distortions to alleviate the ego dystonic implication of the abuse? A. Sweetheart phase B. Honeymoon phase C. Tension building phase D. Defensive phase Question 30 An ARNP takes a position in which the ARNP is guaranteed a set salary but can make additional salary if he or she generates practice income over some set amount. This is known as what type of pay structure?

A. Fee for service B. Average percentage of net receipts C. Base salary plus percentage D. Hourly rate with bonus Question 31 A patient with history of schizophrenia, currently prescribed Haldol, presents to the emergency department with hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, autonomic instability, and elevated phosphokinase. The ARNP recognizes these symptoms are consistent with which of the following psychiatric emergencies? A. Nutmeg intoxication B. Bromide intoxication C. Extrapyramidal symptoms D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Question 32 Patients with extreme sensitivity to rejection who are socially withdrawn because they consider themselves socially inept, although are not asocial, and show a great desire for companionship are demonstrating symptoms most consistent with which of the following personality disorders? A. Narcissistic personality disorder B. Avoidant personality disorder C. Borderline personality disorder D. Schizoid personality disorder Question 33 Non-pharmacological treatment for abuse includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Cognitive behavioral therapy B. Build a community of support C. Assist patient to devise safe escape plan D. Involve the abuser in the treatment planning Question 34 Obsessive-compulsive, dependent, and avoidant personality traits are associated with which of the following personality clusters A. Cluster A B. Cluster B C. Cluster C D. Cluster D

Actions judged based on their inherent value regardless of their consequences is based on which

ethical decision making approach? - Answer- Deontolgical theory considers the inherent value

regardless of consequences. The teleological approach allows the ends to justify the means. Virtue

ethics is an approach to ethical decision making that considers the moral character of the individual

rather than the action. Justice is the principle of equity.

An action that is judged good or bad based on the consequence demonstrates which ethnical

decision-making approach? - Answer- The teleologial approach allows the ends to justify the

means. Deontological theory considers the inherent value regardless of the consequences. Virtue

ethics is an approach is an approach to ethical decision-making that considers the moral character

of the individual rather than the action. Justice is the principle of equity.

All of the following are necessary criteria for commitment for involuntary evaluation and treatment

except: - Answer- Involuntary commitment is intended to protect the patient and society; therefore,

the patient's financial resources are not considered as criteria for treatment.

A PMHNP is working with a nonprofit organization to implement a public health campaign aimed

at reducing the stigma of mental illness. Which role of the PMHNP best describes this activity? -

Answer- Advocacy entails promoting a particular cause or policy. Mentoring is a relationship with

a more experienced individual for the purpose of guiding the professional development of a less

experienced individual. Policymaking is the process of developing laws and regulations. Case

management is a collaborative process of assessment, planning, facilitation, care coordination, and

evaluation of resources needed to meet the patient's needs in a cost-effective manner.

The PMHNP is working with an insurance organization to provide oversight and authorization of

series and benefits to patients. Which role of the PMHNP best describes this activity? - Answer-

Case management is a collaborative process of assessment, planning, facilitation, care coordination,

and evaluation of resources needed to meet the patient's needs cost-effectively. mentoring is a

relationship with a more experienced individual for the purpose of guiding the professional

development of the less experienced individual. Advocacy entails promoting a particular cause or

policy. Policymaking is the process of developing laws and regulations.

which of the following roles of the PMHNP requires mutual respect and an interactive learning

process to facilitate role development competencies and skill Acquistion? - Answer- Mentoring is a

relationship with a more experienced individual for the purpose of guiding professional

Question 35 Which of the following is the therapeutic blood level range for lithium? A. 0.2-1.0 mEq/L B. 0.3-0.8 mEq/L C. 0.3-1.2 mEq/L D. 0.5-1.5 mEq/L Question 36 The obligation to not inflict harm or balancing unavoidable harm with benefits of good achieved is known as which of the following? A. Fidelity B. Beneficence C. Non-maleficence D. Respect for autonomy Question 37 Which of the following is not consistent with guidelines for a mentor? A. Reassure the mentee that the mentor is available at any time of need. B. Review basic concepts to ensure the mentee has the fundamentals prior to starting the mentoring process. C. Be prepared to fill the meeting time with specific issues and objectives. D. Be specific and kind when giving constructive feedback that may not be what the mentee might want to hear. Question 38 An ARNP takes a position in which a specific amount is paid according to a set job description. This type of pay structure is known as which of the following? A. Straight salary B. Average percentage of net receipts C. Base salary plus percentage D. Hourly rate Question 39 Acknowledging a person's right to make choices, to hold views, and to take actions based on personal value is known as which of the following? A. Justice B. Fidelity C. Beneficence D. Respect for autonomy Question 40 Narcissistic, borderline, antisocial, and histrionic subtypes are associated with which of the following Personality disorders?

A. Cluster A B. Cluster B C. Cluster C D. Cluster D Question 41 Using the LIAASE: A General Cultural Competence Tool, the ARNP would do which of the following? A. Agree to disagree on differences in values. B. Solicit other options or points of view. C. Acknowledge and validate powerful emotions when expressed. D. All of the above. Question 42 Being knowledgeable about one's own thoughts, feelings, and sensations as well as the ability to reflect on how these can affect one's interactions with others is known as which of the following? A. Cultural Awareness B. Cultural Competence C. Cultural Humility D. Cultural Sensitivity Question 43 The ARNP recognizes which of the following as long-term effects of sex trafficking on victims? A. Severe depression B. Spiritual questions C. Trauma bonding D. All of the above Question 44 Which of the following is used for treating alcohol-dependent individuals seeking to continue to remain alcohol free after they have stopped drinking? A. Tacrine B. Amantadine C. Galantamine D. Acamprosate

A specific behavior related to a persons culture and not leading to a psychiatric disorder is

classified as: - Answer- Culture bound syndrome is specific behavior common to a person's culture

and is considered a variation of normal and not a psychiatric diagnosis. delusions ae deeply held

beliefs despite evidence to the contrary. A brief psychotic episode is an acute onset thought

disorder marked by disorganization and at least one of the following symptoms: delusions,

hallucinations, bizarre behavior and posture, and disorganized speech. Adjustment disorder is a

mood disorder marked by emotional or behavioral symptoms that develop in response to an

identifiable stressor within 3 months of onset of the stress and lasting no more than 6 months.

The learned beliefs and behaviors common among all members of a group defines: - Answer-

Culture is a learned belief and behaviors common among members of a group. Complex delusions

are deeply held beliefs despite evidence to the contrary with an elaborate web of interconnected

delusions are deeply held beliefs despite evidence to the contrary with an elaborate web of

interconnected delusions. Folie a deux is a shared delusion between two people. Folie a famille is a

delusion help among cohabitating family members.

All of the following factors put households headed by a single female at risk for a homelessness

except: - Answer- Education increases the likelihood of gainful employment. Underemployment,

inadequate benefits, and inaccessible housing all increase the risk of homelessness.

Which mental illness accounts for the highest rate of mental illness? - Answer- The incidence of

major depressive disorder in the United States is 12.8%, obstinate defiant disorder is 10.2%, bipolar

2.6% and schizophrenia 1%.

During a psychiatric evaluation the client reveals to the PMHNP a transgender identity. The client

indicates a preference for personal pronouns like he and him. What is the bilogical sex of the

client? - Answer- The biological sex of the client is female, but the gender identity is male. lesbian

and asexual are descriptors of sexual orientation.

A new graduate PMHP is considering a job at a psychiatric ED. The medical director informs the

prospective hire that they are expected to evaluate and treat children, adolescents, adults and

geriatric patients. What document should be consulted to determine if the PMHNP can legally treat

psychiatric patients across the life span? - Answer- A state Nurse Practice Act describes what is

permissible and impermissible for a PMHNP to do. The hospital by laws governs the local

organization and can be more restrictive, but not more lenient than state laws. The scope of practice

identifies competencies unique to the subspecialty. The PMHNP is an independently licensed

individual who bears liability for errors of omission and commission regardless of the collaborative

agreement. The collaborative agreement cannot supersede state law.

Question 45 All of the following are risk factors for sexual assault EXCEPT A. Religion B. Serious mental illness C. Substance use disorder D. Family history of sexual abuse Question 46 A personality disorder characterized by emotional constriction, orderliness, perseverance, stubbornness, indecisiveness, and a pervasive pattern of perfectionism and inflexibility is known as which of the following? A. Depressive personality disorder B. Borderline personality disorder C. Dependent personality disorder D. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder Question 47 A patient with a history of alcohol use presents to the emergency department with oculomotor disturbances, cerebellar ataxia, and confusion. The ARNP recognizes these symptoms as consistent with which of the following psychiatric emergencies? A. Akathisia B. Korsakoff's syndrome C. Wernicke's encephalopathy D. Idiosyncratic alcohol intoxication Question 48 A patient on lithium with a history of alcohol use disorder presents with dry mouth, ataxia, dizziness, abdominal pain, and slurred speech. The ARNP should do which of the following? A. The ARNP recognizes this is likely a relapse on alcohol so sends the patient home to sleep it off. B. The ARNP recognizes these are symptoms of mild to moderate lithium toxicity, decreases the lithium by half, and encourages the patient to drink more fluids. C. The ARNP recognizes these are symptoms of mild to moderate lithium toxicity, discontinues the lithium immediately, orders lithium level, serum electrolytes, and renal function tests. D. The ARNP recognizes these are symptoms of moderate to severe lithium toxicity, discontinues the lithium and tells the patient hemodialysis will most probably be needed. Question 49 "Walking on eggshells" and appeasement and avoidance behaviors by the victim is characteristic of which phase of the cycle of domestic violence? A. Honeymoon phase B. Abusive incident phase C. Tension-building phase D. Refractory phase

Question 50 Which of the following is inconsistent with current literature about victims of sexual abuse? A. All victims of sexual abuse are aware that they are in an abusive relationship. B. Victims of sexual abuse may willingly participate in sexual acts with an idolized authority figure. C. The pre-existing relationship and familiarity with the abuser may impede the victim's ability to make rational decisions. D. The victim may make excuses for the abuser's behavior. Question 51 Self-care strategies for the ARNP in preparing for the certification exam include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Study in a distraction free environment. B. Six to eight hours of sleep is recommended. C. Drink lot of caffeine and eat high-concentrated sugars. D. Plan to study for short periods of time over a longer time period. Question 52 Which stage of the cycle of domestic violence is characterized by overt aggressive behavior towards the victim? A. Tension building phase B. Abusive incident C. Honeymoon phase D. Planning phase Question 53 A term that defines a person who has distress with clinical symptomatology because their gender identity is not consistent with gender assigned at birth is which of the following? A. Cisgender B. Gender fluid C. Pangender D. Gender dysphoria Question 54 A patient with an inability to conform to the social norms that ordinarily govern many aspects of a person's behavior is consistent with which of the following personality disorders? A. Avoidant personality disorder B. Antisocial personality disorder C. Borderline personality disorder D. Narcissistic personality disorder

The process of synthesizing, disseminating, and using rearch-generated knowledge to make a

change in practice is known as: - Answer- Research utilization is the process of synthesizing and

disseminating research generated knowledge to make a change in care. Evidence based practice is a

problem solving approach that uses the best evidence in making decisions about patient care that

takes into account client needs, values and clinical expertise, but may not generalizable beyond the

immediate problem. Research is the systematic empirical inquiry of relationships among variables.

Quality improvement is a systematic approach to the analysis of current practice, efficiency,

outcomes and benchmarks.

The process of integrating the best research evidence with cinical expertise and cient needs and

values is known as: - Answer- Evidence based practice is a problem-solving approach that uses the

best evidence making decisions about patient care that takes into account clients' needs, values, and

clinical expertise but may not be generalizable beyond the immediate problem.

All of the following are components of research utilization: - Answer- Research utilization,

evidence-based practice, research.

The process of integrating the best research evidence with clinical expertise and client needs and

values is known as: - Answer- Identifying the patient, populating and problem is the first step in

implementing an evidence-based practice change. Identifying stakeholders, obtaining institutional

review board approval and reviewing the literature are subsequent steps.

All of the following are methods of dissemination of findings: - Answer- Presenting at conferences,

publishing in peer reviewed journals, poster presentations. (oral defense to your committee is a peer

review)

what concept is defined by a sample that is a representative of the population, and where the results

can generalized? - Answer- External validity relates to the generalizing of findings beyond the

study to the population. Internal validity is the degree of the truthfulness about inferences regarding

casual relationships. Prevalence is a measure of all individuals affected at a particular time.

Incidences is a measure of the number of new occurrences during a particular period of time.

Question 55 The treatment of choice for patients with paranoid personality disorder includes which of the following? A. Group therapy B. Behavioral therapy C. Psychotherapy D. B and C Question 56 In about half of the cases in which suicides occur while patients are on a psychiatric unit, a lawsuit results. Which of the following is not consistent with what courts expect related to inpatient psychiatric unit suicide events? A. Courts expect suicides to occur in inpatient settings. B. Courts require zero suicide rates in inpatient setting. C. Periodic patient evaluation for suicide risk D. Evidence of formulation of a treatment plan with a high level of security Question 57 Type of employment in which either party may terminate for any reason at any time is known as which of the following? A. Locum tenens B. At will employment C. Employment by contract D. Profit sharing employment Question 58 Which of the following medical conditions can present with prominent mental status changes that mimic common psychiatric illnesses? Select all that apply. A. Diabetes Mellitus B. Thyroid disease C. AIDS D. Head trauma Question 59 According to the AANP Process of Care Standards, performing or ordering preventative and diagnostic procedures based on the patient's age and history is part of which of the following components? A. Assessment of health status B. Development of a treatment plan

C. Implementation of the treatment plan D. Care priorities Question 60 A patient on Lithium and Quetiapine presents to the emergency room with anorexia, persistent nausea and vomiting, blurred vision, choreoathetoid movements, muscle fasciculations, and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. The ARNP should do all of the following EXCEPT: A. Discontinue the Lithium. B. Obtain vital signs, and obtain a neurological evaluation with complete formal mental examination. C. Obtain lithium level, serum electrolytes, renal function tests and ECG. D. Give activated charcoal to remove unabsorbed Lithium. Question 61 A patient currently on risperidone presents to the emergency department with increased agitation, restlessness, muscle discomfort, and dysphoria. The APRN recognizes these symptoms of akathisia and recommends which of the following? Select all that may apply. A. Reduce antipsychotic dosage B. Benztropine IM C. Benadryl po or IM D. B and C only Question 62 In order to qualify for ANCC board certification testing you must have a minimum of how many supervised clinical hours in the respective specialty for which you are seeking certification? A. 300 supervised clinical hours B. 500 supervised clinical hours C. 600 supervised clinical hours D. 800 supervised clinical hours Question 63 In the judicial system one organization may publish one standard of care and an expert my testify to an alternate version of the standard of care. In this scenario who is the final arbiter of the standard of care? A. The organization where the practitioner worked at the time B. The judicial system C. The expert testifying D. The professional organization for the practitioner

what concept is defined by an independent variable causing a change in the dependent variable -

Answer- internal variable relates to the genializing of findings beyond the study to the population.

What method of analysis descibes the basic features of the data and summarizes and organizes

observations? - Answer- Descriptive statistics define, summarize and organize data. Inferential

statistics use various methods of analysis to deduce properties of probability and distribution that

may be reflective of the population. Regression analysis is a statistical method that allows one to

examine the relationship between two more variables. ANOVA is a collection of statistical models

and their associated estimation to analyze differences among group means in a sample.

What method of analysis describes the basic features of the data and summarizes and organizes

observations? - Answer- inferential statistics use various methods of analysis to deduce properties

of probability and destruction that may be reflective of the population.

which statistical test differentiats among three or more groups? - Answer- ANOVA is a collection

of statistical models and their associated estimation to analyze differences among group means in a

sample.

Which statistical test identifies if the means of two groups are statistically different from each

other? - Answer- A t-test of inferential statistic used to determine if there is a significant difference

in means between two groups assuming normal distribution.

Which statistical test identifies a relationship between two variables? - Answer- Pearson's r

correlations

The level of significance describing the probablity of a particular result occurrring by chance

aloneis represented by which of the following? - Answer- The p value describes the level of

significance describes the probablitly of a particular result occurring by change alone.

Question 64 Low health literacy has been linked with which of the following? A. Poor health outcomes B. lower rates of hospitalization C. Less frequent use of preventive services D. All of the above Question 65 A patient appears odd, with a pervasive history of magical thinking, ideas of reference, illusions and derealization. This is consistent with which of the following personality disorders? A. Schizoid personality disorder B. Paranoid personality disorder C. Schizotypal personality disorder D. Avoidant personality disorder Question 66 Which of the following medications is associated with Ebstein's anomaly when given during pregnancy? A. Haldol B. Lithium C. Valproic acid D. Chlorpromazine Question 67 Which of the following symptoms of borderline personality disorder assist in differentiating borderline personality disorder from schizophrenia? A. Chronic feelings of emptiness B. Prolonged psychotic episodes C. Demand extraordinary relationships D. A and C only Question 68 A patient presents and is unapproachable, with poor eye contact, reporting a lifelong pattern of isolation, uncomfortable with human interaction, and constricted affect. This presentation is consistent with which of the following personality disorders? A. Schizoid personality disorder B. Borderline personality disorder C. Avoidant personality disorder D. Schizotypal personality disorder

All of the following are governed by the institutional review board: - Answer- Ensuring risks to

participants are minimized, ensuring equitable selection, evaluating risks and benefits, ensuring

reporting of adverse events. (not regulating funding for study)

All of the patients have the right to all of the following: - Answer- Confidential care, Care in the

least restrictive manner, the ability to consent and withdraw consent at any time. (not have the right

to be treated to a qualified provider who may not be a physician)

Reducing the dose of Clozapine normally does what to hypersalivation?

not helpful in diminishing symptoms

epidemology characterstics?

observe in age <50

Greatest abnormalities occurs in schizophrenia are related to what structures (2)

A. Basal ganglia

B. Cerebellum

*involved in the control of movement

excessive dopamine is associated with

Schizophrenia

Propanolol (Inderal) treats

A. tremors

B. Akathisia

C. Prevents migraines

D. Decreases test anxiety

E. Anxiety

F. HTN

Risk of neutropenia is greatest when taking Clozaril during this time frame?

within first 6 months

then incidents can occur but are decreased risk

Smoking increases Clozaine clearance by?

30 - 50%

Oculogyric crisis?

dystonic like reaction where this is abnormal invol movements /deviation of the eyes

How to tx an oculogryic crisis?

benadryl

Question 69 Nurse practitioner preceptors should have at least how much experience as a nurse practitioner in the relevant specialty prior to precepting? A. A minimum of 6 months of experience as a licensed NP in the specialty B. A minimum of 9 months of experience as a licensed NP in the specialty C. A minimum of 1 year of experience as a licensed NP in the specialty D. A minimum of 2 years of experience as a licensed NP in the specialty Question 70 The ARNP is working with a patient who has a heightened sense of self-importance and grandiose feelings of uniqueness. The patient also lacks empathy for others, although is very sensitive to minor criticism. The ARNP recognizes these symptoms as consistent with which of the following personality disorders? A. Schizotypal personality disorder B. Borderline personality disorder C. Narcissistic personality disorder D. Histrionic personality disorder Question 71 The emotional burnout and lack of empathy towards clients that healthcare providers experience after treating victims of trauma is known as which of the following? A. Compassion fatigue B. Primary traumatization C. Transference D. Countertransference Question 72 The ARNP recognizes which of the following as short-term effects of sex trafficking on victims? A. Depersonalization B. Post-traumatic stress disorder C. Higher risk behaviors (i.e., drug and alcohol abuse) D. A and C only

Antipsychotics rarely cause Nausea-- T or F

True , most are antiemetic options for nausea

How to decrease prolactinemia?

Reduce dosage

DC offending med

(Prolactin doses tend to normalize after 2-4 days)

If stopping the causation agent is NOT possible?

first line= add abilify. 5 - 20 mg daily

2nd line= add oral contraceptives

First line tx of serotonin syndrome?

benzos

second line= cyproheptadine

Fun fact: MNDA in combination with any SSRI

can cause serotonin syndrome

Sialorrhea?

Hypersalivation

What drug causes the most sialorrhea?

Clozapine is the most common cause (30-80%)

other causes: zyrepxa, risperidone or quetiapine

First line tx of Sialorrhea?

1= glycopyrrolate (Robinul).

--unlike other anticholinergics, glycopyrrloate does not cross the BBB, so ferwer central

anticholinergic SE

2nd= Atrovent, Oxybutrin, Cogentin, Clonidine, Atropine, Artane

involuntary contractions of muscles due to antipsychotics

Dystonia

D2 blockade

First line tx= cogentin, benadryl

second line= benzos, Amantadine, Artane

90% of what reactions in EPS?

occur within the first 5 days, although can occur hours to days after an antipsychotic is started

Hyperhidrosis?

excessive sweating

caused by antidepressants, espcially SNRIs (venlafaxine, duloxetine, and levomilnacipran) and

bupropion

tx for hyperhidrosis?

1st line=

A) Terazosin (Hytrin) alpha1 blocker

B) Clonidine

C) Cogentin

D) Glycopyyrolate (Robinul)

2nd line=

A) Oxybutrin

B) Mirtazepine

C) Cyproheptadine

D) Abilify

Question 73 According to Freud, stubborn, parsimonious, and highly conscientious traits are associated with which stage of development? A. Oral stage B. Anal stage C. Phallic stage D. Latency stage Question 74 Risk factors for school violence include which of the following? Select all that apply. A. Bullying B. Being bullied C. Isolation D. Involvement in school organizations Question 75 As a PMHNP, one of the most common areas you will counsel your patients about is the importance of sleep hygiene. Which of the following is NOT consistent with common recommendations for good sleep hygiene? A. Avoid alcohol and caffeine. B. Set a cool room temperature. C. Set TV to turn off within 1 hour of falling asleep. D. Go to bed at the same time each night. Question 76 Affirmatively acting to benefit another or others, going beyond what is required by law is known as which of the following? A. Fidelity B. Justice C. Beneficence D. Non-maleficence Question 77 The term "suicide survivor" refers to which of the following? A. Those who have lost a loved one to suicide. B. Someone who has attempted suicide but failed. C. Only those who have had a serious suicide attempt with a near death experience. D. This is an ambiguous term that should not be used.