NSG 100 Final Exam Questions 2025 | Comprehensive Study Guide, Key Nursing Concepts, Exams of Nursing

Download NSG 100 Final Exam Questions 2025 | Comprehensive Study Guide, Key Nursing Concepts and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NSG 100 Final Exam Questions from

Premier Institutions With Detailed

Explanations and Answers Curated by

Global Experts Designed for Success in

Every Exam

12. The nurse is caring for an adolescent with an appendectomy who is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which intervention will be most appropriate? a. Close the door to decrease noise from unit activities. b. Adjust temperature in the patient's room to 21° C (70° F). c. Ensure that the night-light in the patient's room is working. d. Encourage the discontinuation of a soda and chocolate nightly snack. - - correct ans- - Answer: d. Encourage the discontinuation of a soda and chocolate nightly snack. Rationale: Discontinuing the soda and chocolate nightly snack will be most beneficial for this patient since it has two factors that will cause difficulty falling asleep. Coffee, tea, colas, and chocolate act as stimulants, causing a person to stay awake or to awaken throughout the night. Personal preference influences the temperature of the room, as well as the lighting of the room. Noise can be a factor in the unit and can awaken the patient, but caffeine can make it difficult to fall asleep.
13. A patient has obstructive sleep apnea. Which assessment is the priority?

a. Gastrointestinal function b. Neurological function c. Respiratory status d. Circulatory status - - correct ans- - Answer: c. Respiratory status Rationale: In obstructive sleep apnea, the upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked, diminishing nasal airflow or stopping it. The person still attempts to breathe because the chest and abdominal movement continue, which results in loud snoring and snorting sounds. According to the ABCs of prioritizing care, airway and respiratory status takes priority over gastrointestinal, circulatory, and neurologic functioning.

14. The patient has just been diagnosed with narcolepsy. The nurse teaches the patient about management of the condition. Which information from the patient will cause the nurse to intervene? a. Takes antidepressant medications b. Naps shorter than 20 minutes c. Sits in hot, stuffy rooms d. Chews gum - - correct ans- - Answer: c. Sits in hot, stuffy rooms

b. Cataplexy scale c. Polysomnogram d. RAS scale - - correct ans- - Answer: a. Visual analog scale Rationale: The visual analog scale is utilized for assessing sleep quality. Cataplexy, or sudden muscle weakness during intense emotions such as anger, sadness, or laughter, occurs at any time during the day; there is no cataplexy scale for sleep assessment. A polysomnogram involves the use of EEG, EMG, and EOG to monitor stages of sleep and wakefulness during nighttime sleep; this is used in a sleep laboratory study. Researchers believe that the ascending reticular activating system (RAS) located in the upper brainstem contains special cells that maintain alertness and wakefulness; however, there is no assessment tool called the RAS scale.

17. The nurse is beginning a sleep assessment on a patient. Which question will be most appropriate for the nurse to ask initially? a. "What is going on?" b. "How are you sleeping?" c. "Are you taking any medications?" d. "What did you have for dinner last night?" - - correct ans- - Answer: b. "How are you sleeping?"

Rationale: Sleep is a subjective experience. Only the patient is able to report whether or not it is sufficient and restful. Asking patients how they are sleeping is an introductory question. After this beginning question is asked, problems with sleep such as the nature of the problem, signs and symptoms, onset and duration of the issue, severity, predisposing factors, and the effect on the patient can be assessed. What is going on is too broad and open ended for information about sleep to be obtained specifically. Medications and food intake can be part of the detailed assessment of sleep issues.

18. The nurse adds a nursing diagnosis of ineffective breathing pattern to a patient's care plan. Which sleep condition caused the nurse to assign this nursing diagnosis? a. Insomnia b. Narcolepsy c. Sleep deprivation d. Obstructive sleep apnea - - correct ans- - Answer: d. Obstructive sleep apnea Rationale: Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) occurs when the muscles or structures of the oral cavity or throat relax during sleep. The upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked, diminishing airflow or stopping it for as long as 30 seconds. The person still attempts to breathe because chest and abdominal movements continue, resulting in snoring or snorting sounds. With narcolepsy, the person feels an overwhelming wave of sleepiness and falls asleep. Insomnia is characterized by chronic difficulty falling asleep. Sleep deprivation is a condition caused by dyssomnia. OSA is the only one of these conditions that results in blockage of the airway and impacts the ability to breathe.
19. The nurse is caring for a postpartum patient. The patient's labor has lasted over 28 hours within the hospital; the patient has not slept and is disoriented to date and time. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse document in the patient's care plan?

d. Sleep deprivation - - correct ans- - Answer: c. Insomnia Rationale: Insomnia is experienced when the patient has chronic difficulty falling asleep, frequent awakenings from sleep, and/or short sleep or nonrestorative sleep. It is the most common sleep-related complaint and includes symptoms such as irritability, excessive daytime sleepiness, not being able to fall asleep, and fatigue. Anxiety is a vague, uneasy feeling of discomfort or dread accompanied by an autonomic response. Fatigue is an overwhelming sustained sense of exhaustion with decreased capacity for physical and mental work at a usual level. Sleep deprivation is a condition caused by dyssomnia and includes symptoms caused by illness, emotional distress, or medications.

21. The nurse is preparing an older-adult patient's evening medications. Which treatment will the nurse recognize as relatively safe for difficulty sleeping in older adults? a. Ramelteon (Rozerem) b. Benzodiazepine c. Antihistamine d. Kava - - correct ans- - Answer: a. Ramelteon (Rozerem) Rationale: Ramelteon (Rozerem), a melatonin receptor agonist, is well tolerated and appears to be effective in improving sleep by improving the circadian rhythm and shortening time to sleep onset. It is safe for long- and short-term use particularly in older adults. The use of benzodiazepines in older adults is potentially dangerous because of the tendency of the drugs to remain active in the body for a longer time. As a result, they also cause respiratory depression, next-day sedation, amnesia, rebound insomnia, and impaired motor functioning and coordination, which leads to increased risk of falls. Caution older adults about using over-the-counter antihistamines because their long

duration of action can cause confusion, constipation, and urinary retention. Kava promotes sleep in patients with anxiety; it should be used cautiously because of its potential toxic effects on the liver.

22. The nurse is caring for a patient on the medical-surgical unit who is experiencing an exacerbation of asthma. Which intervention will be most appropriate to help this patient sleep? a. Place bed in semi-Fowler's position. b. Offer iron-rich foods for meals. c. Provide a snack before bedtime. d. Encourage the patient to read. - - correct ans- - Answer: a. Place bed in semi-Fowler's position. Rationale: Placing the patient in a semi-Fowler's position eases the work of breathing. Respiratory disease often interferes with sleep. Patients with chronic lung disease such as emphysema or asthma are short of breath and frequently cannot sleep without two or three pillows to raise their heads. Iron-rich food may help a patient with restless legs syndrome. Providing a snack and encouraging the patient to read may be good interventions for patients, but the most appropriate would be raising the head of the bed.
23. A young mother has been hospitalized for an irregular heartbeat (dysrhythmia). The night nurse makes rounds and finds the patient awake. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Inform the patient that it is late and time to go to sleep. b.

Rationale: With regard to problems with sleep, the patient is the source for evaluating outcomes. The patient is the only one who knows whether sleep problems have improved and what has been successful. Interventions are not the best indicator; achievement of goals according to the patient is the best. Observations do provide needed data, but in the case of insomnia, the patient is the source for evaluating the restfulness of sleep.

25. A patient has sleep deprivation. Which statement by the patient will indicate to the nurse that outcomes are being met? a. "I wake up only once a night to go to the bathroom." b. "I feel rested when I wake up in the morning." c. "I go to sleep within 30 minutes of lying down." d. "I only take a 20-minute nap during the day." - - correct ans- - Answer: b. "I feel rested when I wake up in the morning." Rationale: Being able to sleep and feeling rested would indicate that outcomes are being met for sleep deprivation. Limiting a nap to 20 minutes is an intervention to promote sleep. Going to sleep within 30 minutes indicates a goal for insomnia. Waking up only once may indicate nocturia is improving but does not relate to sleep deprivation.
26. An older-adult patient is visiting the clinic after a fall during the night. The nurse obtains information on what medications the patient takes. Which medication most likely contributed to the patient's fall? a. Melatonin

b. L-tryptophan c. Benzodiazepine d. Iron supplement - - correct ans- - Answer: c. Benzodiazepine Rationale: The most likely cause is a benzodiazepine. If older patients who were recently continent, ambulatory, and alert become incontinent or confused and/or demonstrate impaired mobility, the use of benzodiazepines needs to be considered as a possible cause. This can contribute to a fall in an older adult. Short-term use of melatonin has been found to be safe, with mild side effects of nausea, headache, and dizziness being infrequent. Iron supplements may be given to patients with restless legs syndrome. Some substances such as L-tryptophan, a natural protein found in foods such as milk, cheese, and meats, promote sleep; while it does promote sleep, it is not the most likely to cause mobility problems.

27. The nurse is caring for a patient who has not been able to sleep well while in the hospital, leading to a disrupted sleep-wake cycle. Which assessment findings will the nurse monitor for in this patient? (Select all that apply.) a. Changes in physiological function such as temperature b. Decreased appetite and weight loss c. Anxiety, irritability, and restlessness d. Shortness of breath and chest pain e.

stage 4, the body releases growth hormone for renewal and repair of specialized cells such as the brain. During NREM sleep, biological functions slow. REM sleep is necessary for brain tissue restoration and cognitive restoration and is associated with a change in cerebral blood flow and increased cortical activity.

29. The patient and the nurse discuss the need for sleep. After the discussion, the patient is able to state factors that hinder sleep. Which statements indicate the patient has a good understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Drinking coffee at 7 PM could interrupt my sleep." b. "Staying up late for a party can interrupt sleep patterns." c. "Exercising 2 hours before bedtime can decrease relaxation." d. "Changing the time of day that I eat dinner can disrupt sleep." e. "Worrying about work can disrupt my sleep." f. "Taking an antacid can decrease sleep." - - correct ans- - Answer: A, B, D, E Rationale: Caffeine, alcohol, and nicotine consumed late in the evening produce insomnia. Worry over personal problems or situations frequently disrupts sleep. Alterations in routines, including changing mealtimes and staying up late at night for social activities, can disrupt sleep. Exercising 2 hours before bedtime actually increases a sense of fatigue and promotes relaxation. Taking an antacid does not decrease sleep.

30. A community health nurse is providing an educational session at the senior center on how to promote sleep. Which practices should the nurse recommend? (Select all that apply.) a. Take a nap in the afternoon. b. Sleep where you sleep best. c. Use sedatives as a last resort. d. Watch television right before sleep. e. Decrease fluids 2 to 4 hours before sleep. f. Get up if unable to fall asleep in 15 to 30 minutes. - - correct ans- - Answer: B, C, E, F Rationale: The nurse should instruct the patient to sleep where he or she sleeps best, to use sedatives as a last resort, to decrease fluid intake to cut down on bathroom trips, and, if unable to sleep in 15 to 30 minutes, to get up out of bed. Naps should be eliminated if they are not part of the individual's routine schedule, and if naps are taken, they should be limited to 20 minutes or less a day. Television can stimulate and disrupt sleep patterns.
31. Obstructive sleep apnea - - correct ans- - Use continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
32. Insomnia - - correct ans- - Administer benzodiazipine-like drugs
33. Cataplexy - - correct ans- - Administer antidepressants

1. Eardrum
2. Perilymph
3. Oval window
4. Bony ossicles
5. Eighth cranial nerve a. 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 b. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 c. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 d. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 - - correct ans- - Answer: d. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 Rationale: Vibration of the eardrum transmits through the bony ossicles. Vibrations at the oval window transmit in perilymph within the inner ear to stimulate hair cells that send impulses along the eighth cranial nerve to the brain.
6. A nurse is caring for a patient with presbycusis. Which assessment finding indicates an adaptation to the sensory deficit? a. The patient frequently cleans out eyes with saline washes. b. The patient applies different spices during mealtime to food. c. The patient turns one ear toward the nurse during conversation. d.

The patient isolates self from social situations with groups of people. - - correct ans- - Answer: c. The patient turns one ear toward the nurse during conversation. Rationale: Presbycusis is impaired hearing due to the aging process. Adaptation for a sensory deficit indicates that the patient alters behavior to accommodate for the sensory deficit, such as turning the unaffected ear toward the speaker. Cleaning the eye and applying spices to food would not have an effect for a patient with presbycusis. Avoiding others because of a sensory deficit is maladaptive.

4. The nurse will be most concerned about the risk of malnutrition for a patient with which sensory deficit? a. Xerostomia b. Dysequilibrium c. Diabetic retinopathy d. Peripheral neuropathy - - correct ans- - Answer: a. Xerostomia Rationale: Xerostomia is a decrease in production of saliva; this decreases the ability and desire to eat and can lead to nutritional problems. The other options do not address taste- or nutrition-related concerns. Dysequilibrium is balance. Diabetic retinopathy affects vision. Peripheral neuropathy includes numbness and tingling of the affected areas and stumbling gait.
5. A nurse is caring for an older adult. Which sensory change will the nurse identify as normal during the assessment? a.

Rationale: Part of the normal aging process is reduced ability to see colors. The nurse should teach the patient new ways to adapt to this deficit. This patient's accident was not due to impaired cognitive function or reflexes. Glasses will not assist the patient in color discrimination.

7. A nurse is caring for a patient who recently had a stroke and is going to be discharged at the end of the week. The nurse notices that the patient is having difficulty with communication and becomes tearful at times. Which intervention will the nurse include in the patient's plan of care? a. Teach the patient about special assistive devices. b. Make the patient talk as much as possible. c. Obtain an order for antidepressant medications. d. Place a consult for a home health nurse. - - correct ans- - Answer: a. Teach the patient about assistive devices. Rationale: Because a stroke often causes partial or complete paralysis of one side of a patient's body, the patient needs special assistive devices. The nurse should include interventions that help the patient adapt to this deficit while maintaining independence. Teaching the patient to use assistive devices allows the patient to care for him- or herself. Making the patient talk can be inappropriate and demeaning. A home health nurse is not necessary as long as the patient is able to care for him- or herself. Instead of placing the patient on antidepressants, assist the patient in attempting to adapt behavior to the sensory deficit.
8. A patient has both hearing and visual sensory impairments. Which psychological nursing diagnosis will the nurse add to the care plan?

a. Risk for falls b. Self-care deficit c. Social isolation d. Impaired physical mobility - - correct ans- - Answer: c. Social isolation Rationale: In focusing on the psychological aspect of care, the nurse is most concerned about social isolation for a patient who may have difficulty communicating owing to visual and hearing impairment. Self-care deficit, impaired physical mobility, and fall risk are physiological risks for the patient.

11. The nurse is completing an assessment on an older-adult patient who is having difficulty falling asleep. Which condition will the nurse further assess for in this patient? a. Depression b. Mild fatigue c. Hypertension d. Hypothyroidism - - correct ans- - Answer: a. Depression Rationale: Older adults and other individuals who experience depressive mood problems experience delays in falling asleep, earlier appearance of REM sleep, frequent awakening, feelings of sleeping poorly, and daytime sleepiness. A person who is moderately fatigued usually achieves restful sleep, especially if the fatigue is the result of enjoyable work or