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NSG 100 Final Exam: Wound Care and Pressure Ulcers, Exams of Nursing

A series of multiple-choice questions and answers related to wound care and pressure ulcers, covering topics such as wound assessment, healing processes, and management strategies. It is designed to help students prepare for their nsg 100 final exam, focusing on key concepts and clinical applications.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 12/04/2024

john-wachira
john-wachira 🇺🇸

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  1. The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube in a patient who is semiconscious. To determine the length of the tube needed to be inserted, how should the nurse measure the tube? a. From the tip of the nose to the earlobe b. From the tip of the earlobe to the xiphoid process c. From the tip of the earlobe to the nose to the xiphoid process d. From the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process - - correct ans- - Answer: d. From the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process. Rationale: Measure distance from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process of the sternum. This approximates the distance from the nose to the stomach in 98% of patients. For duodenal or jejunal placement, an additional 20 to 30 cm is required.
  2. A patient has developed a pressure ulcer. Which laboratory data will be important for the nurse to check? a. Vitamin E

b. Potassium c. Albumin d. Sodium - - correct ans- - Answer: c. Albumin Rationale: Normal wound healing requires proper nutrition. Serum proteins are biochemical indicators of malnutrition, and serum albumin is probably the most frequently measured of these parameters. The best measurement of nutritional status is prealbumin because it reflects not only what the patient has ingested but also what the body has absorbed, digested, and metabolized. Zinc and copper are the minerals important for wound healing, not potassium and sodium. Vitamins A and C are important for wound healing, not vitamin E.

  1. A nurse is caring for a patient with a wound. Which assessment data will be most important for the nurse to gather with regard to wound healing? a. Muscular strength assessment b. Pulse oximetry assessment c. Sensation assessment d. Sleep assessment - - correct ans- - Answer: b. Pulse oximetry assessment Rationale: Oxygen fuels the cellular functions essential to the healing process; the ability to perfuse tissues with adequate amounts of oxygenated blood is critical in wound healing. Pulse oximetry measures the oxygen saturation of blood. Assessment of muscular strength

and sensation, although useful for fitness and mobility testing, does not provide any data with regard to wound healing. Sleep, although important for rest and for integration of learning and restoration of cognitive function, does not provide any data with regard to wound healing.

  1. The nurse is caring for a patient with a healing Stage III pressure ulcer. Upon entering the room, the nurse notices an odor and observes a purulent discharge, along with increased redness at the wound site. What is the next best step for the nurse? a. Complete the head-to-toe assessment, including current treatment, vital signs, and laboratory results. b. Notify the health care provider by utilizing Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation (SBAR). c. Consult the wound care nurse about the change in status and the potential for infection. d. Check with the charge nurse about the change in status and the potential for infection. - - correct ans- - Answer: a. Complete the head-to-toe assessment, including current treatment, vital signs, and laboratory results. Rationale: The patient is showing signs and symptoms associated with infection in the wound. The nurse should complete the assessment: gather all data such as current treatment modalities, medications, vital signs including temperature, and laboratory results such as the most recent complete blood count or white cell count. The nurse can then notify the primary care provider and receive treatment orders for the patient. It is important to notify the charge nurse and consult the wound nurse on the patient's status and on any new orders.
  1. The nurse is collaborating with the dietitian about a patient with a Stage III pressure ulcer. Which nutrient will the nurse most likely increase after collaboration with the dietitian? a. Fat b. Protein c. Vitamin E d. Carbohydrate - - correct ans- - Answer: b. Protein Rationale: Protein needs are especially increased in supporting the activity of wound healing. The physiological processes of wound healing depend on the availability of protein, vitamins (especially A and C), and the trace minerals of zinc and copper. Wound healing does not require increased amounts of fats or carbohydrates. Vitamin E will not be increased for wound healing.
  2. The nurse is completing an assessment on a patient who has a Stage IV pressure ulcer. The wound is odorous, and a drain is currently in place. Which statement by the patient indicates issues with self-concept? a. "I am so weak and tired. I want to feel better." b. "I am thinking I will be ready to go home early next week." c. "I am ready for my bath and linen change right now since this is awful." d.

"I am hoping there will be something good for dinner tonight." - - correct ans- - Answer: c. "I am ready for my bath and linen change right now since this is awful." Rationale: Body image changes can influence self-concept. The wound is odorous, and a drain is in place. The patient who is asking for a bath and change in linens and states that this is awful gives you a clue that he or she may be concerned about the smell in the room. Factors that affect the patient's perception of the wound include the presence of scars, drains, odor from drainage, and temporary or permanent prosthetic devices. The patient's stating that he or she wants to feel better, talking about going home, and caring about what is for dinner could be interpreted as positive statements that indicate progress along the health journey.

  1. A patient presents to the emergency department with a laceration of the right forearm caused by a fall. After determining that the patient is stable, what is the next best step for the nurse to take? a. Inspect the wound for foreign bodies. b. Inspect the wound for bleeding. c. Determine the size of the wound. d. Determine the need for a tetanus antitoxin injection. - - correct ans- - Answer: b. Inspect the wound for bleeding. Rationale: After determining that a patient's condition is stable, inspect the wound for bleeding. An abrasion will have limited bleeding, a laceration can bleed more profusely, and a puncture wound bleeds in relation to the size and depth of the wound. Address any bleeding issues. Inspect the wound for foreign bodies; traumatic wounds are dirty and may need to be addressed. Determine the size of the wound. A large open wound may expose

bone or tissue and be protected, or the wound may need suturing. When the wound is caused by a dirty penetrating object, determine the need for a tetanus vaccination.

  1. The nurse is caring for a patient on the medical-surgical unit with a wound that has a drain and a dressing that needs changing. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Provide analgesic medications as ordered. b. Avoid accidentally removing the drain. c. Don sterile gloves. d. Gather supplies. - - correct ans- - Answer: a. Provide analgesic medications as ordered. Rationale: Because removal of dressings is painful, if often helps to give an analgesic at least 30 minutes before exposing a wound and changing the dressing. The next sequence of events includes gathering supplies for the dressing change, donning gloves, and avoiding the accidental removal of the drain during the procedure.
  2. The nurse is caring for a patient who has a wound drain with a collection device. The nurse notices that the collection device has a sudden decrease in drainage. Which action will the nurse take next? a. Call the health care provider; a blockage is present in the tubing. b. Chart the results on the intake and output flow sheet. c. Do nothing, as long as the evacuator is compressed.

d. Remove the drain; a drain is no longer needed. - - correct ans- - Answer: a. Call the health care provider; a blockage is present in the tubing. Rationale: Because a drainage system needs to be patent, look for drainage flow through the tubing, as well as around the tubing. A sudden decrease in drainage through the tubing may indicate a blocked drain, and you will need to notify the health care provider. The health care provider, not the nurse, determines the need for drain removal and removes drains. Charting the results on the intake and output flow sheet does not take care of the problem. The evacuator may be compressed even when a blockage is present.

  1. The nurse is caring for a patient who has a Stage IV pressure ulcer with grafted surgical sites. Which specialty bed will the nurse use for this patient? a. Low-air-loss b. Air-fluidized c. Lateral rotation d. Standard mattress - - correct ans- - Answer: b. Air-fluidized Rationale: For a patient with newly flapped or grafted surgical sites, the air-fluidized bed will be the best choice; this uses air and fluid support to provide pressure redistribution via a fluid-like medium created by forcing air through beads as characterized by immersion and envelopment. A low-air-loss bed is utilized for prevention or treatment of skin breakdown by preventing buildup of moisture and skin breakdown through the use of airflow. A standard mattress is utilized for an individual who does not have actual or potential altered or impaired skin integrity. Lateral rotation is used for treatment and prevention of pulmonary, venous stasis and urinary complications associated with mobility.
  1. The nurse is caring for a patient with a pressure ulcer on the left hip. The ulcer is black. Which next step will the nurse anticipate? a. Monitor the wound. b. Document the wound. c. Debride the wound. d. Manage drainage from wound. - - correct ans- - Answer: c. Debride the wound. Rationale: Debridement is the removal of nonviable necrotic (black) tissue. Removal of necrotic tissue is necessary to rid the ulcer of a source of infection, to enable visualization of the wound bed, and to provide a clean base for healing. A wound will not move through the phases of healing if the wound is infected. Documentation occurs after completion of skill. When treating a pressure ulcer, it is important to monitor and reassess the wound at least every 8 hours. Management of drainage will help keep the wound clean, but that is not the next step.
  2. The nurse is caring for a patient with a healing Stage III pressure ulcer. The wound is clean and granulating. Which health care provider's order will the nurse question? a. Use a low-air-loss therapy unit. b. Irrigate with Dakin's solution. c. Apply a hydrogel dressing.

d. Consult a dietitian. - - correct ans- - Answer: b. Irrigate with Dakin's solution. Rationale: Clean pressure ulcers with noncytotoxic cleansers such as normal saline, which will not kill fibroblasts and healing tissue. Cytotoxic cleansers such as Dakin's solution, acetic acid, povidone-iodine, and hydrogen peroxide can hinder the healing process and should not be utilized on clean granulating wounds. Consulting a dietitian for the nutritional needs of the patient, utilizing a low-air-loss therapy unit to decrease pressure, and applying hydrogel dressings to provide a moist environment for healing are all orders that would be appropriate.

  1. The nurse is completing an assessment of the patient's skin's integrity. Which assessment is the priority? a. Pressure points b. Breath sounds c. Bowel sounds d. Pulse points - - correct ans- - Answer: a. Pressure points Rationale: Observe pressure points such as bony prominences. The nurse continually assesses the skin for signs of ulcer development. Assessment for tissue pressure damage includes visual and tactile inspection of the skin. Assessment of pulses, breath sounds, and bowel sounds is part of a head-to-toe assessment and could influence the function of the body and ultimately skin integrity; however, this assessment is not a specific part or priority of a skin assessment.
  1. The nurse is completing a skin risk assessment using the Braden Scale. The patient has slight sensory impairment, has skin that is rarely moist, walks occasionally, and has slightly limited mobility, along with excellent intake of meals and no apparent problem with friction and shear. Which score will the nurse document for this patient? a. 15 b. 17 c. 20 d. 23 - - correct ans- - Answer: c. 20 Rationale: With use of the Braden Scale, the total score is a 20. The patient receives 3 for slight sensory perception impairment, 4 for skin being rarely moist, 3 for walks occasionally, 3 for slightly limited mobility, 4 for intake of meals, and 4 for no problem with friction and shear.
  2. The nurse is caring for a surgical patient. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to complete to decrease the risk of pressure ulcers and encourage the patient's willingness and ability to increase mobility? a. Explain the risks of immobility to the patient. b. Turn the patient every 3 hours while in bed. c. Encourage the patient to sit up in the chair. d.

Provide analgesic medication as ordered. - - correct ans- - Answer: d. Provide analgesic medication as ordered. Rationale: Maintaining adequate pain control (providing analgesic medications) and patient comfort increases the patient's willingness and ability to increase mobility, which in turn reduces pressure ulcer risks. Although sitting in the chair is beneficial, it does not increase mobility or provide pain control. Explaining the risk of immobility is important for the patient because it may impact the patient's willingness but not his or her ability. Turning the patient is important for decreasing pressure ulcers but needs to be done every 2 hours and, again, does not influence the patient's ability to increase mobility.

  1. The nurse is caring for a patient with a Stage IV pressure ulcer. Which nursing diagnosis does the nurse add to the care plan? a. Readiness for enhanced nutrition b. Impaired physical mobility c. Impaired skin integrity d. Chronic pain - - correct ans- - Answer: c. Impaired skin integrity. Rationale: After the assessment is completed and the information that the patient has a Stage IV pressure ulcer is gathered, a diagnosis of Impaired skin integrity is selected. Readiness for enhanced nutrition would be selected for an individual with an adequate diet that could be improved. Impaired physical mobility and Chronic pain do not support the current data in the question.
  2. The nurse collects the following assessment data: right heel with reddened area that does not blanch. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse assign to this patient?

a. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements b. Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion c. Risk for infection d. Acute pain - - correct ans- - Answer: b. Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion. Rationale: The area on the heel has experienced a decreased supply of blood and oxygen (tissue perfusion), which has resulted in tissue damage. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis with this information is Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion. Risk for infection, Acute pain, and Imbalanced nutrition do not support the data in the question.

  1. The nurse is caring for a patient who is immobile. The nurse wants to decrease the formation of pressure ulcers. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Offer favorite fluids. b. Turn the patient every 2 hours. c. Determine the patient's risk factors. d. Encourage increased quantities of carbohydrates and fats. - - correct ans- - Answer: c. Determine the patient's risk factors. Rationale: The first step in prevention is to assess the patient's risk factors for pressure ulcer development. When a patient is immobile, the major risk to the skin is the formation

of pressure ulcers. Nursing interventions focus on prevention. Offering favorite fluids, turning, and increasing carbohydrates and fats are not the first steps. Determining risk factors is first so interventions can be implemented to reduce or eliminate those risk factors.

  1. The medical-surgical acute care patient has received a nursing diagnosis of Impaired skin integrity. Which health care team member will the nurse consult? a. Respiratory therapist b. Registered dietitian c. Case manager d. Chaplain - - correct ans- - Answer: b. Registered dietitian. Rationale: Refer patients with pressure ulcers to the dietitian for early intervention for nutritional problems. Adequate calories, protein, vitamins, and minerals promote wound healing for the impaired skin integrity. The nurse is the coordinator of care, and collaborating with the dietitian would result in planning the best meals for the patient. The respiratory therapist can be consulted when a patient has issues with the respiratory system. Case management can be consulted when the patient has a discharge need. A chaplain can be consulted when the patient has a spiritual need.
  2. The nurse is caring for a patient with a Stage II pressure ulcer and has assigned a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection. The patient is unconscious and bedridden. The nurse is completing the plan of care and is writing goals for the patient. Which is the best goal for this patient? a. The patient will state what to look for with regard to an infection.

b. The patient's family will demonstrate specific care of the wound site. c. The patient's family members will wash their hands when visiting the patient. d. The patient will remain free of odorous or purulent drainage from the wound. - - correct ans-

  • Answer: d. The patient will remain free of odorous or purulent drainage from the wound. Rationale: Because the patient has an open wound and the skin is no longer intact to protect the tissue, the patient is at increased risk for infection. The nurse will be assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection, including an increase in temperature, an increase in white count, and odorous and purulent drainage from the wound. The patient is unconscious and is unable to communicate the signs and symptoms of infection. It is important for the patient's family to be able to demonstrate how to care for the wound and wash their hands, but these statements are not goals or outcomes for this nursing diagnosis.
  1. The nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which task can the nurse delegate to the nursing assistive personnel? a. Assessing a surgical patient for risk of pressure ulcers b. Applying an elastic bandage to a medical-surgical patient c. Treating a pressure ulcer on the buttocks of a medical patient d. Implementing negative-pressure wound therapy on a stable patient - - correct ans- - Answer: b. Applying an elastic bandage to a medical-surgical patient.

Rationale: Applying an elastic bandage to a medical-surgical patient can be delegated to the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Assessing pressure ulcer risk, treating a pressure ulcer, and implementing negative-pressure wound therapy cannot be delegated to an NAP.

  1. The nurse is performing a moist-to-dry dressing. The nurse has prepared the supplies, solution, and removed the old dressing. In which order will the nurse implement the steps, starting with the first one?
  2. Apply sterile gloves.
  3. Cover and secure topper dressing.
  4. Assess wound and surrounding skin.
  5. Moisten gauze with prescribed solution.
  6. Gently wring out excess solution and unfold.
  7. Loosely pack until all wound surfaces are in contact with gauze. a. 4, 3, 1, 5, 6, 2 b. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2 c. 4, 1, 3, 5, 6, 2 d. 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 2 - - correct ans- - Answer: b. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2 Rationale: The steps for a moist-to-dry dressing are as follows: (1) Apply sterile gloves; (2) assess appearance of surrounding skin; (3) moisten gauze with prescribed solution. (4) Gently wring out excess solution and unfold; apply gauze as single layer directly onto wound surface. (5) If wound is deep, gently pack dressing into wound base by hand until all wound surfaces are in contact with gauze; (6) cover with sterile dry gauze and secure topper dressing.
  1. The nurse is caring for a patient who has suffered a stroke and has residual mobility problems. The patient is at risk for skin impairment. Which initial actions should the nurse take to decrease this risk? a. Use gentle cleansers, and thoroughly dry the skin. b. Use therapeutic bed and mattress. c. Use absorbent pads and garments. d. Use products that hold moisture to the skin. - - correct ans- - Answer: a. Use gentle cleansers, and thoroughly dry the skin. Rationale: Use cleansers with nonionic surfactants that are gentle to the skin. After you clean the skin, make sure that it is completely dry. Absorbent pads and garments are controversial and should be considered only when other alternatives have been exhausted. Depending on the needs of the patient, a specialty bed may be needed, but again, this does not provide the initial defense for skin breakdown. Use only products that wick moisture away from the patient's skin.
  2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is at risk for skin impairment. The patient is able to sit up in a chair. The nurse includes this intervention in the plan of care. How long should the nurse schedule the patient to sit in the chair? a. At least 3 hours b. Less than 2 hours c. No longer than 30 minutes

d. As long as the patient remains comfortable - - correct ans- - Answer: b. Less than 2 hours. Rationale: When patients are able to sit up in a chair, make sure to limit the amount of time to 2 hours or less. The chair sitting time should be individualized. In the sitting position, pressure on the ischial tuberosities is greater than in a supine position. Utilize foam, gel, or an air cushion to distribute weight. Sitting for longer than 2 hours can increase the chance of ischemia.

  1. The nurse is caring for a patient who is immobile and is at risk for skin impairment. The plan of care includes turning the patient. Which is the best method for repositioning the patient? a. Place the patient in a 30-degree supine position. b. Utilize a transfer device to lift the patient. c. Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees. d. Slide the patient into the new position. - - correct ans- - Answer: b. Utilize a transfer device to lift the patient. Rationale: When repositioning the patient, obtain assistance and utilize a transfer device to lift rather than drag the patient. Sliding the patient into the new position will increase friction. The patient should be placed in a 30-degree lateral position, not a supine position. The head of the bed should be elevated less than 30 degrees to prevent pressure ulcer development from shearing forces.
  1. A nurse is assigned most of the patients with pressure ulcers. The nurse leaves the pressure ulcer open to air and does not apply a dressing. To which patient did the nurse provide care? a. A patient with a clean Stage I b. A patient with a clean Stage II c. A patient with a clean Stage III d. A patient with a clean Stage IV - - correct ans- - Answer: a. A patient with a clean Stage I. Rationale: Stage I intact pressure ulcers that resolve slowly without epidermal loss over 7 to 14 days do not require a dressing. A composite film, hydrocolloid, or hydrogel can be utilized on a clean Stage II. A hydrocolloid, hydrogel covered with foam, calcium alginate, and gauze can be utilized with a clean Stage III. Hydrogel covered with foam, calcium alginate, and gauze can be utilized with a clean Stage IV. An unstageable wound covered with eschar should utilize a dressing of adherent film or gauze with an ordered solution of enzymes.
  2. The nurse is caring for a patient with a wound. The patient appears anxious as the nurse is preparing to change the dressing. Which action should the nurse take? a. Turn on the television. b. Explain the procedure. c. Tell the patient "Close your eyes." d.

Ask the family to leave the room. - - correct ans- - Answer: b. Explain the procedure. Rationale: Explaining the procedure educates the patient regarding the dressing change and involves him in the care, thereby allowing the patient some control in decreasing anxiety. Telling the patient to close the eyes and turning on the television are distractions that do not usually decrease a patient's anxiety. If the family is a support system, asking support systems to leave the room can actually increase a patient's anxiety.

  1. The nurse is cleansing a wound site. As the nurse administers the procedure, which intervention should be included? a. Allow the solution to flow from the most contaminated to the least contaminated. b. Scrub vigorously when applying noncytotoxic solution to the skin. c. Cleanse in a direction from the least contaminated area. d. Utilize clean gauze and clean gloves to cleanse a site. - - correct ans- - Answer: c. Cleanse in a direction from the least contaminated area. Rationale: Cleanse in a direction from the least contaminated area, such as from the wound or incision, to the surrounding skin. While cleansing surgical or traumatic wounds by applying noncytotoxic solution with sterile gauze or by irrigations is correct, vigorous scrubbing is inappropriate and can cause damage to the skin. Use gentle friction when applying solutions to the skin, and allow irrigation to flow from the least to the most contaminated area.
  2. The nurse is caring for a patient after an open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. The nurse requests an abdominal binder and carefully applies the binder. Which is the best explanation for the nurse to use when teaching the patient the reason for the binder?

a. It reduces edema at the surgical site. b. It secures the dressing in place. c. It immobilizes the abdomen. d. It supports the abdomen. - - correct ans- - Answer: d. It supports the abdomen. Rationale: The patient has a large abdominal incision. This incision will need support, and an abdominal binder will support this wound, especially during movement, as well as during deep breathing and coughing. A binder can be used to immobilize a body part (e.g., an elastic bandage applied around a sprained ankle). A binder can be used to prevent edema, for example, in an extremity but in this case is not used to reduce edema at a surgical site. A binder can be used to secure dressings such as elastic webbing applied around a leg after vein stripping.

  1. The nurse is caring for a postoperative medial meniscus repair of the right knee. Which action should the nurse take to assist with pain management? a. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes. b. Check pulses in the right foot. c. Keep the leg dependent. d. Apply ice. - - correct ans- - Answer: d. Apply ice.

Rationale: Ice assists in preventing edema formation, controlling bleeding, and anesthetizing the body part. Elevation (not dependent) assists in preventing edema, which in turn can cause pain. Monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes is routine postoperative care and includes a pain assessment but in itself is not an intervention that decreases pain. Checking the pulses is important to monitor the circulation of the extremity but in itself is not a pain management intervention.

  1. The patient has a risk for skin impairment and has a 15 on the Braden Scale upon admission. The nurse has implemented interventions. Upon reassessment, which Braden score will be the best sign that the risk for skin breakdown is removed? a. 12 b. 13 c. 20 d. 23 - - correct ans- - Answer: d. 23 Rationale: The best sign is a perfect score of 23. The Braden Scale is composed of six subscales: sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction and shear. The total score ranges from 6 to 23, and a lower total score indicates a higher risk for pressure ulcer development. The cutoff score for onset of pressure ulcer risk with the Braden Scale in the general adult population is 18.