NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology EXAM 3 LATEST 2024.2025 @QUESTION AND ANSWER GRADED A+, Exams of Nursing

Download NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology EXAM 3 LATEST 2024.2025 @QUESTION AND ANSWER GRADED A+ and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology EXAM 3 LATEST 2024.2025 @QUESTION AND ANSWER GRADED A+ WITH RATIONALE what is the fifth vital sign? pain what is pain threshold? level of stimulus needed to create painful sensation what is pain tolerance? amount of pain one can endure without interfering with normal functioning. somatic pain skin pain muscle pain tissue pain visceral pain organ pain NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY what are reasons for under treatment of pain? lack of pain assessment health professional attitude towards drug seeking inaccurate information about addiction under dosing patient's cultural beliefs what does unrelieved pain lead to? HTN *** Increased HR Increased RR pneumonia *** Urinary retention ileus confusion weakness NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY what is aspirin? a salicylate NSAID the oldest nonopioid drug what syndrome does aspirin play a role in? Reye syndrome main SE of ASA? decreased platelet aggregation adverse reactions/SE of ASA gastric irritation (if its a COx-1 inhibitor) tinnitus (CN VIII) *** vertigo bronchospasm *** NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY urticaria who is ASA contraindicated in? children < 19 * children < 19 should not take any salicylates * when does Reye's syndrome usually occur? when a person is recovering from a viral illness (chicken pox, influenza) and uses salicylates what does reye's syndrome cause? severe increase of pressure in brain is acetaminophen an NSAID? no action of acetaminophen? NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY inhibits prostaglandin synthesis uses of acetaminophen relieves pain, discomfort, and fever what is the maximum dose of acetaminophen per day? 4 g/ day = 4000 mg/day True or false: Acetaminophen is an anti-inflammatory False SE of acetaminophen Rash GI distress Toxic effects/overdose of acetaminophen hepatotoxicity NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY which nonopioid analgesic is good for patients who don't handle narcotics well? Tramadol (Ultram) why is Ketorolac (Toradol) given IV/IM? because there is a high risk of bleeding if given orally what part of the nervous system do nonopioid analgesics work on? the PNS --> not likely to cause drowsiness what part of the nervous system do opioid analgesics work on? the CNS --> likely to cause drowsiness what is a common skin SE of narcotics? itching! This is safe as long as they dont have a rash with it. Rash is bad NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY what is the antidote to an opioid overdose? narcan what is a Norco 5/325? Norco 5 + 1 acetaminophen dose where do opioid analgesics work on? they work on the respiratory and cough centers in the medulla of the brainstem causing decreased respirations and decreased cough * this is why a lot of your cough syrups are RX because they contain Codeine * when should you administer pain medications if the patient is using an inspirometer? 30 min before to encourage the use without discomfort SE of opioids N/V (especially if ambulatory) Generalized itching without a rash NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY constipation ortho HypoTN sedation Respiratory depression urinary retention NI for administration of opioids monitor vital signs, sedation, UO, pain level, BS, GI upset use safety measures : side rails up, call light in reach, ambulate with assist stool softeners monitor mental status (especially in the oldies!!!) why do opioid order change often? NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY hepatic or Renal if using (demerol) in older adults, what should be frequently assessed? decrease in blood pressure what is hydromorphone (dilaudid)? a semisynthetic opioid similar to morphine how many more times potent is dilaudid than morphine? six times more potent why is dilaudid often chosen over morphine aside from the fact that it is more potent? it causes less hypnotic effects and less GI distress SE of (dilaudid) hypoTN NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY sedation urinary retention tachycardia pupillary constriction in the use of (dilaudid), what does pupillary constriction indicate? toxicity!! what is the average safe dose range of morphine? IV 2.5-10 mg what is the average safe dose range of dilaudid? IV 0.2 - 1 mg ** dosing should never exceed 1 mg *** why are patients with head injuries contraindicated for taking opioids? because they caused decreased respirations thus causing an accumulation of CO2 NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY increased CO2 causes vasodilation of the cerebral vessels thus causing an increased ICP what may opioids cause in patients with shock? hypotension if using opioids in patient with asthma or renal failure, what should you be cautious for? opioits decrease respiratory drive while increasing respiratory resistance, thus making it harder for an asthmatic to breathe what is the brand name of hydrocodone and acetaminophen? (vicodin) (Norco) what is the brand name of acetaminophen and codeine? (Tylenol #3) is hydrocodone and acetaminophen (vicoden, norco) natural or synthetic? synthetic NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY local anasthetics common examples of adjuvant therapies with opioids? gabapentin (neurontin) amitriptyline (Elavil) Lidocaine patch what is the purpose of using an opioid agonist-antagonist? developed to help decrease opioid abuse what are the 2 opioid agonist-antagonist? pentazocine (Talwin) Butorphanol tartrate (stadol) ` should you use (talwin) or (stadol) if patient has a history of drug abuse? no NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY when is (talwin) commonly used? used in labor and delivery can cause severe withdrawal Sx may cause dependence What is (stadol) commonly used for? labor and delivery may cause dependence what is (buprenex)? opioid agonist - antagonist what is a SE of (nubain)? opioid agonist-antagonist may cause vivid dreams and hallucinations NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY are opioid agonist-antagonists given for cancer pain? no, because cancer pain requires very high doses A postoperative patient has a history of opioid abuse, which analgesic med is best? (buprenex) (stadol) (narcan) (talwin) (buprenex) = opioid agonist-antagonist which 2 medications are the antidote for a morphine overdose? (narcan) (ReVia) both are opioid antagonists what is (ReVia) commonly used for? reversal of morphine overdose NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY chocolate red wine pathophysiology of migraine headaches? caused by inflammation and dilation of blood vessels and and inbalance of serotonin characteristics of cluster headaches severe unilateral nonthrobbing pain usually located around the eye occur in a series of cluster attacks (one or more attacks every day for several weeks) no aura no N/V NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY men are more commonly affected than women what 3 categories of meds are used as prevention for migraine and cluster headaches? beta blockers anticonvulsants tricyclic antidepressants which 2 beta blockers are used for prevention of headaches? Propranolol (Inderal) Atenolol (tenormin) which 2 anticonvulsants are used for prevention of headaches? (depakote) (Neurontin) NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY which 2 tricyclic antidepressants are used for prevention of headaches? (elavil) (tofranil) which non-opioid analgesics are used for managment of headaches? ASA w/ caffeine acetaminophen NSAIDS which opioid analgesics are used for management of headaches? (demerol) (stadol nasal spray) which ergot alkaloid is used for management of headaches? (Migranal) NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY *quiet dark room *ice which of the following is important to assess for before the administration of morphine? Severe renal disease hypothermia allergy to PCN HTN severe renal disease what is psychosis? losing contact with reality and is manifested in a variety of mental disorders symptoms of psychosis *catatonia* delusions hallucinations aggressive behavior difficulty processing info NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY catatonia = motor immobility associated with psychosis when does schizophrenia usually onset? in adolescence or early adulthood what are positive symptoms of schizophrenia/psychosis? exaggeration of normal function -agitation -delusions -paranoia -hallucinations -incoherent speech what are negative symptoms of schizophrenia/psychosis? NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY depression of normal function -poor self care -poverty of speech -social withdrawal -flat affect ** negative symptoms tend to be more chronic and persistent why do patients who take high potency antipsychotic drugs often also take long term medications used for parkinson's symptoms? antipsychotic drugs cause EPS (extrapyramidal syndrome) which causes a pseudoparkinsonism -tremors -masklike facies -rigidity -shuffling gait -akathisia -dystonia results from dopamine being blocked NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY 2. Benzo (Ativan) If a patient taking antipsychotics experiences tardive dyskinesia, what should occur? STOP the med and switch to a different one what medications can be used to treat the tardive dyskinesia of EPS? Vit E * Benzos Ca+ channel blockers Beta Blockers Clozapine Tetrabenazine MOA of antipsychotics? block the action of dopamine ---> can result in EPS NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY what are the two major categories of neuroleptic agents? Typical (traditional) Atypical what do Typical (traditional) neuroleptic agents help manage? only the positive symptoms of schizophrenia/psychosis what do the atypical agents help manage? Both the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia/psychosis what are the two categories of Typical (traditional) antipsychotics? 1. Phenothiazines 2. Non-phenothiazines MOA of phenothiazines? block NE causing a sedative and hypotensive effect NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY MOA of nonphenothiazines blocks dopamine what are the 3 categories of phenothiazines (typical/traditional antipsychotic agent)? 1. Aliphatic 2. Piperazine 3. Piperidines 1. What medication is an aliphatic? What main SE are associated? Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) strong sedation hypoTN moderate EPS 2. What medication is a Piperazine? what main SE are associated? NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY absorption rate is faster in liquid form avoids the hiding of pills how long does it usually take to gain the full therapeutic effect of phenothiazines? 3-6 weeks how do phenothiazines alter the urine? causes a harmless pinkish to red-brown urine color Is Haloperidol (Haldol) a phenothiazine or nonphenothiazine? Nonphenothiazine MOA of haloperidol (Haldol) blocks dopamine receptors Uses of haloperidol (haldol) trx of schizophrenia NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY Trx of Tourette's syndrome Trx of acute and chronic psychosis and dementia contraindications for the use of haloperidol (Haldol) narrow angled glaucoma sedation severe: liver, kidney, or CV disease Blood dyscrasias SE of Haloperidol (Haldol)? sedation headache seizures EPS dry mouth blurred vision NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY photosensitivity tachycardia ortho HypoTN urinary retention dysrhythmias *antichollinergic effects * what happens if (haldol) is taken with ETOH or other CNS depressants? increased sedative effect what happens if (haldol) is taken with antichollinergics? increased toxicity what happens if (haldol) is taken with phenobarbital, carbamazepine, or caffeine? decreased drug effects of the (haldol) what is neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)? rare, potentially fatal NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY what is the upside of using atypical antipsychotics? they have decreased intensity of SE? EPS is less likely why dont we use atypical antipsychotics all the time? because they have so so so many side effects --> just less likely to have EPS SE of atypical antipsychotics weight gain *** DM II *** constipation fatigue insomnia increased appetite *** NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY headache List of 7 atypical antipsychotics? 1. CLozapine (clozaril) 2. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) 3. Quetiapine (seroquel) 4. Risperidone (risperdal) 5. Ziprasidone (Geodon) 6. Paliperidone (invega) 7. Aripiprazole (abilify) True or false: Clozapine (Clozaril) is a 1st line agent for severe schizophrenia? False!! NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY Adverse effects of clozapine (Clozaril) agranulocytosis seizures --> * monitor WBC counts * what is the upside of using Olanzapine (zyprexa) as an atypical antipsychotic? it does not cause EPS or agranulocytosis SE/Adverse of Olanzapine (zyprexa) headache dizziness agitation insomnia somnolence True or false: Risperidone (risperdal) causes agranulocytosis false! does not! NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY NMS EPS Suicidal ideation for any non-diabetic, what is there an increased chance of getting if taking any atypical antipsychotic? DM II NI for any antipsychotic monitor VS monitor patient for "cheecking" the med give oral drugs with food or milk Give IM via z-track and large gauge needle dont massage injection site rotate injection sites NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY dont allow drug to remain in plastic syringe or it breaks down admin w/in 15 min of preparation monitor safety w/ dizziness and ortho hypoTN monitor for EPS, NMS, and WBC's may turn urine pink to red-brown takes 3-6 weeks to work smoking cessation dont take w/ ETOH or other CNS depressants dont suddenly DC what is the most common adverse reaction seen in patients treated with (risperdal)? ortho HypoTN NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY what is primary anxiety? not caused by a medical condition or drug use managed with short term anxiolytics what is secondary anxiety? related to a selected drug use, or medical/psychiatric condition meds not usually given for this what drug category is the biggest anti-anxiety drug class? benzos which benzodiazepines are commonly used for anxiety? (Librium) Diazepam (valium) Lorazepam (Ativan) NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY SE of (ativan) drowsy dizzy confusion blurred vision weakness restlessness sleep disturbance hallucinations GI distress what happens if (ativan) is taken with ETOH or other CNS depressants? increases the CNS depression what happens if (ativan) is taken with cimetidine (tagamet) = antacid? increase the (ativan) plasma levels what happens if (ativan) is taken with phenytoin (seizure med)? increases the phenytoin levels NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY what happens if (ativan) is taken with levadopa (parkinsons med)? decreases the levadopa effect does smoking increase or decrease the anti-anxiety effects of (ativan)? decreases the effects what happens if Kava Kava is taken with (ativan)? can potentiate the sedation NI for any patient taking benzos monitor for a hypotensive effect monitor for symptoms of infection r/t leukopenia safety with ortho hypoTN therapeutic levels may not be reached for 1-2 weeks NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY no driving or operating machinery should not be used for > 3-4 months as this can develop a tolerance monitor for "cheeking" take with meals or shortly after to decrease GI discomfort what happens if benzos are taken with antacids or caffeine? this can delay absorption and decrease the effectiveness what is the difference between taking an anti-depressant for anxiety and taking an anxiolytic for anxiety? antidepressants have an anti-anxiety component and these are used more for long term use where as strait up anxiolytics are for short term use in lower doses when do w/drawal Sx of benzos usually occur? 2-10 days after DC and may last several weeks --> * dont DC abruptly * NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY bacterial which population has a higher susceptibility to get TB? HIV/AIDS patients IV drug users immunocompromised ETOH addicted debilitated artificial pneumothorax old remedy to cure TB collapse the lung by inserting air or nitrogen into the pleural space which bacteria is associated with TB? acid-fast bacillus NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY how is TB transmitted? person to person via droplets if it is in the lungs can also be in the liver, and other organs how is TB diagnosed? Mantoux skin test TB blood test CXR sputum sample True or false: a positive Mantoux skin test confirms that you have TB false. just indicates an exposure to TB confirmed with CXR NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY who might positive mantoux skin tests likely show up in often? health care workers who have had the TB vaccine what is the window of time to read a TB test? 48-72 hours after administration what should be measured on a mantoux skin test? the induration (palpable, raised area) do not measure the erythema (redness) latent TB infection No S/Sx dont feel sick infected but do not have the disease --> (-) sputum culture *** (+) reaction to skin or blood test *** NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY rifabutin rifapentine pyrazinamide ethambutol streptomycin * more effective than second line with less toxic effects * what should a patient on INH and rifampin drug therapy avoid? exposure to direct sunlight when should isoniazid (INH) be administered? 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals what is given to decrease the peripheral neuropathy associated with Isoniazid (INH)? Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) how does Rifampin alter the urine? causes it to turn to a red-orange color NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY True or false: patients taking INH and Rifampin therapy should have periodic eye examinations True. These meds may cause visual disturbances MOA of isoniazid (INH) inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis uses of Isoniazid (INH) prophylaxis of TB and treatment of active TB SE/Adverse of isoniazid (INH) constipation/GI distress blurred vision (CN 2) *** photosensitivity *** tinnitus (CN 8) *** peripheral neuropathy *** seizures blood dyscrasias hyperglycemia *** NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY hypocalcemia hypophosphatemia how long is phase 1 of the treatment regimen of TB? 2 months and then they will switch to phase 2 with a different regimen for another 4-7 months what increases the effect of INH? ETOH rifampin cycloserine phenytoin phenytoin (seizure med) increases the effect of INH, however, how does INH affect phenytoin? decreases the effect of phenytoin what decreases the absorption of INH? antacids NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY bacterial vaginosis UTI why should a patient taking (flagyl) avoid ANY ETOH? can produce a disulfram reaction -facial flushing -severe headache -tachycardia -palpitations -hypoTN -dyspnea -sweating -slurred speech -abd cramps -N/V how does (flagyl) alter the urine? harmless brown discoloration NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY can (Flagyl) be taken during pregnancy? should be avoided in the first trimester SE of (flagyl) headache confusion weakness insomnia dizziness paresthesia EKG changes which system of the body is (flagyl) commonly prescribed for? the GI tract superficial mycosis (fungal infection) mucous membranes hair nails NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY moist skin areas mild oral yeast or thrush vaginal candidiasis tinea pedis (athletes foot) tinea capitus (on the scalp) systemic mycosis (fungal infections) severe lungs CNS abdomen opportunistic infections occur in immunocompromised patients taking ATB, corticosteroids, chemo, etc... NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY tachycardia pseudomembranous colitis *** siezures parathesias thrombophlebitis *** electrolyte balances --> messes up fluid *** what can high doses of Amphotericin B cause? nephrotoxicity electrolyte imbalance ototoxicity NI for Amphotericin B Give IV slowly vital signs Q 30 min increase fluids NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY monitor UO and weight monitor electrolytes and renal function prevent febrile reaction and anaphylaxis --> give antihistamines, antipyretics, and corticosteroids what are the two methods of administration of Nystatin (mycostatin)? topical PO NI for Nystatin needs to make contact with the infected areas --> for PO administration have patient swish, gargle, and swallow when are azoles used for fungal treatment? can be used to treat both systemic and superficial infections given PO, IV, topical, or vaginal suppository NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY what azole medication can be used to treat seborrheic dermatitis? ketoconazole shampoo if taking ETOH with Ketoconazole (Nizoral), what does this put the patient at risk for? hepatotoxicity which azole can be used as a one time PO dose to treat vaginal yeast infections? Fluconazole (diflucan) which azole can be given IV to treat fungal meningitis? fluconazole (diflucan) the medication Itraconazole (sporanox) is an azole given PO to treat what? fungal nail infections w/ persistent treatment or systemic infections like histoplasmosis NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY adverse effects of polymyxin B nephrotoxicity neurotoxicity Bacitracin is a peptide antibiotic used to treat what? meningitis skin and ocular infections Given via: topical, eye drops and ointment, and IM Adverse effects of Bacitracin GI distress renal damage True or false: Peptide antibiotics are well absorbed by the GI tract false! they are not NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY what 3 drugs is an OTC peptide/aminoglycoside made up of? Polymixin B sulfate Bacitracin Zinc Neomycin Sulfate (aminoglycoside) general signs and symptoms of a viral infection headache fever cough N/V/D fatigue muscular pain rash what are the 5 forms of the herpes virus? 1. Herpes simplex 1 = cold sore NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY 2. Herpes simplex 2 = genital herpes 3. Varicella zoster (HSV - 3) = chicken pox and shingles 4. Epstein barr (HSV - 4) = mono 5. Cytomegalovirus (HSV - 5) = pneumonia or blindness in immunocompromised patients Sx of Hep B anorexia vomiting diarrhea jaundice malaise myalgia what season is influenza very prevalent in? fall through spring what are the three forms of influenza NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY used for prophylaxis of influenza A what is rimantadine HCL (Flumadine) used for? prophylaxis and treatment of influenza A fever side effects then (symmetrel) reduce the dose if patient has kidney or liver impairment what is cidofovir (vistide) used for? CMV retinitis (especially in AIDS patients) may cause kidney damage what is Foscarnet (foscavir) used for? CMV retinitis HSV - 1 and 2 Monitor kidney function NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY what is Telbivudine (Tyzeka) used for? treat HBV what are neuraminidase inhibitors used for? to treat influenza A and B what 2 drugs fall under the neuraminidase inhibitor category? (tamiflu) (Relenza) NI for neuraminidase inhibitors must be given within 48 hours of symptom onset *only shortens the length of the illness and decreases the symptoms --> prevents replication but doesn't treat it * what 2 meds fall under the topical Non-HIV antiviral category? Penciclovir (Denavir) NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY Trifluridine (Viroptic) what is (denavir) used for? to treat the HSV virus what is (Viroptic) used for? herpes eye infections MOA of gamma globulin (Immune globulin) protects the cells from the virus Given IM or IV $3000/dose what do purine nucleosides treat? Trx of herpes **begin treatment as early as possible NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY True or false: acyclovir can be taken with food? true what happens if acyclovir is taken with probenicid (gout drug)? it increases the effects of acyclovir what happens if acyclovir is taken with aminoglycosides or amphotericin B? increases the risk of nephrotoxicity NI for acyclovir assess patients systemic baseline status monitor renal function safety with orthoHypoTN assess for superinfection maintain adequate fluid intake NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY oral hygeine several times per day why must oral hygiene be performed several times per day with acyclovir? because there is a risk of gingival hyperplasia with any antiviral NI to avoid an upset stomach while taking chloroquine (antimalarial)? take with food what is malaria? what is the incubation? protozoan parasite disease 10-35 days what are the 2 phases of malaria? Tissue phase: No Sx NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY Erythrocytic phase: Fever, chills, sweating, flu-like Sx Dx of malaria assess travel history + Rapid malaria blood test + microscopy to verify Dx how does chloroquine prevent malaria? prevents protein synthesis in the parasite long half life --> take once weekly how should chloroquine be taken for prophylaxis of malaria? Once/week for 2 weeks prior to the trip once/week while in the country once/week for 4 weeks after returning NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY insects direct penetration of skin what should be asked if suspecting a helminth infection? History of food intake other family members affected history of bowel patterns anal itching affected pets sandboxes Dx of helminths? stool sample what are the 4 anthelmintic drugs? Bithionol (Bitin) Ivermectin (Stromectol) Praziquantel (Biltricide) Pyrantel pamoate (Pin-X) NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY what is Bithionol used to treat? flukes what is a single dose of ivermectin (stromectol) used to treat? treats multiple parasites scabies what is Praziquantel (biltricide) used to treat? Tapeworms and flukes what is Pyrantel pamoate (Pin-X) used to treat? roundworms hookworms pinworms single dose NSG 533 - Advanced Pharmacology WILKES UNIVERSITY how long are anthelmintics usually given for? 1-3 days SE of anthelmintics GI upset Dizziness *** drowsiness HA weakness NI for anthelmintics give AFTER meals to prevent GI distress (reason for noncompliance) *** showers vs baths wash bedding daily proper food preparation handwashing