Women's Health Exam Review, Exams of Nursing

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NSG 6330

Women’s Health

COMPLETED

EXAM

1. What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in women? How can UTIs be prevented and treated? A. The most common cause of UTIs in women is Escherichia coli (E. coli), a type of bacteria that normally lives in the intestines. UTIs can be prevented by drinking plenty of fluids, wiping from front to back after urinating or defecating, urinating after sexual intercourse, and avoiding irritants such as douches, perfumed products, or spermicides. UTIs can be treated with antibiotics, pain relievers, and cranberry juice or supplements.
2. What are the signs and symptoms of preeclampsia? What are the potential complications for the mother and the fetus? A. Preeclampsia is a condition that occurs in some pregnant women, usually after 20 weeks of gestation, characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine. The signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include headache, blurred vision, swelling of the face, hands, or feet, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and decreased urine output. Preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for the mother and the fetus, such as eclampsia (seizures), HELLP syndrome (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets), placental abruption, fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, or stillbirth.
3. What are the risk factors and screening methods for cervical cancer? What are the treatment options for different stages of cervical cancer? A. The risk factors for cervical cancer include human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, smoking, immunosuppression, multiple sexual partners, early sexual activity, oral contraceptive use, and family history. The screening methods for cervical cancer include Pap smear and HPV test. The treatment options for different stages of cervical cancer depend on the size and extent of the tumor, the presence or absence of lymph node involvement or distant metastasis, and the patient's preferences and overall health. The treatment options may include surgery (such as hysterectomy, trachelectomy, or pelvic exenteration), radiation therapy (external or internal), chemotherapy, targeted therapy, or immunotherapy.
4. What are the types and causes of menstrual disorders? How are they diagnosed and managed? A. Menstrual disorders are abnormal conditions that affect the menstrual cycle. They include amenorrhea (absence of menstruation), dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation), menorrhagia (heavy or prolonged bleeding), metrorrhagia (irregular or frequent bleeding), oligomenorrhea (infrequent or light bleeding), and premenstrual syndrome (PMS) or premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)

(physical and emotional symptoms before menstruation). The causes of menstrual disorders vary depending on the type and may include hormonal imbalances, ovarian cysts, uterine fibroids, endometriosis, polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), pregnancy, breastfeeding, menopause, stress, medications, infections, or cancers. The diagnosis of menstrual disorders may involve a medical history, a physical examination, a pelvic examination, blood tests, urine tests, ultrasound, hysteroscopy, endometrial biopsy, or laparoscopy. The management of menstrual disorders may involve lifestyle changes (such as diet, exercise, stress management), medications (such as hormonal contraceptives, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDs], antidepressants), supplements (such as iron, vitamin B6, calcium, magnesium), herbal remedies (such as chasteberry, evening primrose oil, black cohosh), or surgery (such as dilation and curettage [D&C], endometrial ablation, myomectomy, hysterectomy).

5. What are the benefits and risks of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal women? What are the alternatives to HRT? A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves taking estrogen alone or in combination with progestin to relieve the symptoms of menopause such as hot flashes, night sweats, vaginal dryness, mood swings, and osteoporosis. The benefits of HRT include improved quality of life, reduced risk of fractures, and possible protection against colorectal cancer and dementia. The risks of HRT include increased risk of breast cancer, endometrial cancer, ovarian cancer, stroke, blood clots, and gallbladder disease. The alternatives to HRT include non-hormonal medications (such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors [SSRIs], serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors [SNRIs], clonidine, gabapentin), vaginal moisturizers and lubricants, phytoestrogens (such as soy,

flaxseed, red clover), acupuncture, yoga, meditation, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), and biofeedback.

6. What are the common types and causes of breast disorders? How are they diagnosed and treated? A. Breast disorders are abnormal conditions that affect the breast tissue. They include benign breast conditions (such as fibrocystic changes, fibroadenomas, intraductal papillomas, breast cysts, breast abscesses, mastitis, galactorrhea, gynecomastia), breast cancer (such as ductal carcinoma in situ [DCIS], invasive ductal carcinoma [IDC], invasive lobular carcinoma [ILC], inflammatory breast cancer [IBC], Paget's disease of the nipple, triple-negative breast cancer, HER2-positive breast cancer, hormone receptor-positive breast cancer), and breast reconstruction (such as implants, tissue expanders, flaps, nipple reconstruction). The causes of breast disorders vary depending on the type and may include hormonal changes, genetic mutations, family history, age, obesity, alcohol consumption, smoking, radiation exposure, or infections. The diagnosis of breast disorders may involve a medical history, a physical examination, a breast examination, mammography, ultrasound, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), biopsy, or genetic testing. The treatment of breast disorders may involve medications (such as antibiotics, analgesics, anti-inflammatory drugs, hormonal therapy, chemotherapy, targeted therapy), surgery (such as lumpectomy, mastectomy, sentinel lymph node biopsy, axillary lymph node dissection), radiation therapy, or complementary and alternative therapies (such as massage, aromatherapy, music therapy).
7. What are the indications and contraindications for oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)? What are the advantages and disadvantages of OCPs? A. Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are a type of hormonal contraception that contain synthetic estrogen and progestin that prevent ovulation and alter the cervical mucus and endometrium to prevent pregnancy. The indications for OCPs include contraception, menstrual regulation, dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia, endometriosis, polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), acne, hirsutism, premenstrual syndrome (PMS), and prevention of ovarian and endometrial cancers. The contraindications for OCPs include pregnancy, breastfeeding,

history of thromboembolic disorders, stroke, myocardial infarction, coronary artery disease, uncontrolled hypertension, migraine with aura, diabetes with vascular complications, liver disease, gallbladder disease, breast cancer, endometrial cancer, or smoking over 35 years of age. The advantages of OCPs include high efficacy, reversibility, convenience, regularity of cycles, reduced blood loss and cramps, improved acne and hirsutism, reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial cancers and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). The disadvantages of OCPs include side effects (such as nausea, vomiting, weight gain, breast tenderness, spotting), drug interactions (such as antibiotics, anticonvulsants), increased risk of thromboembolic disorders stroke myocardial infarction hypertension liver tumors gallstones cervical cancer and no protection against sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

8. What are the clinical features and diagnostic criteria for polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)? What are the complications and management options for PCOS? A. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a hormonal disorder that affects women of reproductive age. It is characterized by hyperandrogenism (excess male hormones), chronic anovulation (lack of ovulation), and polycystic ovaries (multiple small cysts in the ovaries). The clinical features of PCOS include irregular or absent periods, infertility, hirsutism (excess hair growth), acne, alopecia (hair loss), obesity, insulin resistance, acanthosis nigricans (darkened skin patches), and mood disorders. The diagnostic criteria for PCOS are based on the Rotterdam consensus and require at least two of the following: hyperandrogenism (clinical or biochemical), oligo- or anovulation, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. The complications of PCOS include metabolic syndrome (a cluster of risk factors for cardiovascular disease

Question 9 (2.5 points) Which one of the following is not among the ways clinicians can provide a welcoming, safe environment for Lesbian, Gay, Bixsexual, or Transgender (LGBT) patients? Question 10 (2.5 points) Which one of the following is the definition of the term "gender identity"? Question 11 (2.5 points) Which one of the following statements about sexually transmitted infections (STIs) is false? Question 12 (2.5 points) Among the midlife health issues of women, the number one cause of mortality in the United States is: Question 13 (2.5 points) Lifestyle approaches to manage menopause related vasomotor symptoms include: Question 13 options: Question 14 (2.5 points) The standard for managing moderate to severe menopausal symptoms is: Question 14 options: C) Ignore the sexual status or gender identity of all patients. B) A self-label, regardless of biologic or natal sex A) Lesbians are at very low risk for development of STIs and vaginal infections. B) cardiovascular disease B) (^) avoiding spicy foods, hot drinks, caffeine, and alcohol

Question 15 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner is managing an adolescent with a 4 cm functional ovarian cyst that was confirmed on a recent ultrasound. What plan of care should be anticipated for this patient? Question 16 (2.5 points) Non-pharmacologic therapy for chronic pelvic pain includes the following: Select all that apply. Question 17 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that all of the following organisms are responsible for infection of the Bartholin's gland except : Question 18 (2.5 points) Treatment of a large, symptomatic Bartholin's cyst includes all of the following except : Question 19 (2.5 points) A 44 year-old African American female presents with complaints of menorrhagia x 15 months. Pelvic ultrasound confirms the presence of a large intramural leiomyomata. The nurse practitioner should discuss all of the following options with the patient except : Question 20 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner is treating a patient with Elimite for scabies. The proper instructions to the patient should include: D) prescription systemic hormone products, such as estrogen and progestogen C) Repeat ultrasound in 2 months B) Physical therapy C) Aerobic and nonaerobic exercise Klebsiella (Correct ?) Staphylococcus aureus Topical corticosteroids Estrogen therapy

Apply to all areas of the body from the neck down, wash off after 8 to 14 hours, then repeat treatment in o week Question 21 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that the proper management of an asymptomatic woman with a small fibroid should include: Question 22 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner is teaching a patient about pediculosis. Which of the following statements by the nurse practitioner is correct? Question 23 (2.5 points) All of the following medications may be used for neuropathic pain management of vulvodynia, except: Methotrexate Question 24 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that which of the following lab tests is appropriate for the patient who presents with symptoms of dysesthetic vulvodynia? Wet mount Question 25 (2.5 points) Which of the following is a common antibiotic for treatment of an infected Bartholin's cyst? Question 26 (2.5 points) The patient presents with complaints of a painful, swollen lump in her vaginal area. She reports difficulty sitting and walking due to the pain. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis for this patient? Question 27 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that which of the following are differential diagnoses in an adult female patient with acute pelvic pain. Select all that apply: Reassess in 6 to 12 months. “The condition is treated with Permethrin cream.” RPR Bactrim Bartholin's cyst A) Ectopic pregnancy

Question 28 (2.5 points) When women experience mild premenstrual symptoms, such as mild breast tenderness, abdominal bloating, and mild weight gain from water retention, this is known as: Question 28 options: Question 29 (2.5 points) A patient with intraductal papilloma will commonly present with a chief complaint of: Bloody nipple discharge Question 30 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that the necessary screening techniques in a patient suspicious of ovarian cancer should include the following: Select all that apply. Bimanual pelvic exam Question 31 (2.5 points) Early symptoms experienced by a woman with ovarian cancer include all of the following except : Question 32 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner is evaluating a patient's risk of ovarian cancer. All of the following factors are associated with an increased risk for ovarian cancer except : Question 33 (2.5 points) Patient education for condylomata acuminata should include all the following except: Question 34 (2.5 points) B) Appendicitis C) Ovarian cyst with rupture Premenstrual syndrome A palpable mass CA- 125 Transvaginal ultrasound Unexplained weight gain Oral Contraceptive Use Treatment and elimination of visible warts is a sign of cure, and transmission will not occur

Tina is evaluated and diagnosed with Molluscum Contagiosum. The nurse practitioner understands that clinical presentation of this disease is characterized by: Painless fleshy clusters of growths that resemble grapes or cauliflower (Correct ?) Question 35 (2.5 points) Sara is 72 years old and has been a widow for 12 years. She presents for her yearly well woman exam. Sara has not been sexually active since age 60. She has had regular pap screenings in her life and has had no abnormal pap tests. Sara asks if she needs a Pap test. Your response would be: Question 36 (2.5 points) Misty presents with a painful “sores” in her perineal area, dysuria and dyspareunia. On exam she has 2 shallow ulcerated lesions on the right labia majora and one on the left. She also presents with enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. Based on these findings you suspect she has: Question 37 (2.5 points) Which of the following is not true for HIV infection evaluation? Question 38 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that the risk factors for developing vaginal candidiasis include which of the following Question 39 (2.5 points) Cindy presents to your clinic for STI testing after realizing her current boyfriend has been seeing other women. She states she was told that one of the women has hepatitis B. Your patient education regarding hepatitis B includes all the following except : Question 40 (2.5 points) Stacy has made an appointment at your clinic for c/o dysuria. During the HPI she explains, “My bottom hurts when I pee, and I have bumps there”. She has never had this before and is worried. She denies fever, although she feels “a little like I have the flu” explaining she has a headache and feels achy and tired. She denies exposure to a STI noting she and her partner have been monogamous for 6 years. On exam you Fleshy, papular skin colored lesions with indented centers that contain white curdlike material. No, you do not need a Pap test, but I do recommend we do a pelvic exam to assess for abnormalities. Chancroid If a patient is fearful they have been exposed to HIV, but denies all risk factors, it is not recommended to test for HI A diet high in refined sugar Hepatitis B is transmitted enterically (correct ?) Hepatitis B has an incubation period of 6 weeks to 6 months

notice a cluster of painful vesicles adjacent to the vaginal introitus. The most likely diagnosis is: Question 41 (2.5 points) You see an 18-year-old woman with a history of Chlamydia infection and a total of five lifetime partners. Based on the latest evidence-based guidelines, you recommend: STI testing only Question 42 (2.5 points) Karen was recently diagnosed with primary syphilis. The nurse practitioner understands that the first-line treatment option for primary syphilis include: Question 43 (2.5 points) While educating Karen about the different stages of syphilis, which of the following is not representative of the presentation of secondary syphilis? Question 44 (2.5 points) Karen was recently diagnosed with primary syphilis by her primary care provider, she is very upset and inquires how long after sexual contact do syphilis symptoms typically occur. What is the correct response by the primary care provider? Question 45 (2.5 points) Which of the following terms describe the mechanism of action of Imiquimod (Aldara) in the management of genital warts? Question 46 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that HPV types and are most often associated with cervical and anogenital cancer. Question 47 (2.5 points) Jenna was evaluated and diagnosed with condyloma acuminatum. Treatment options for Jenna will include all of the following except : Question 47 options: Question 48 (2.5 points) Genital Herpes Penicillin chancre 3 weeks immune modifier 16 and 18 A) Topical acyclovir

Which of the following is a treatment option for a 30-year-old woman with PID and a history of severe hive-form reaction when taking a penicillin or cephalosporin? Question 49 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that a complication of gonoccocal and chlamydial genitourinary infection in women include which of the following: Question 50 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that women with PID typically present with all of the following except : Question 51 (2.5 points) Elizabeth was evaluated and diagnosed with a primary outbreak of genital herpes in the clinic today. The treatment plan for Elizabeth will include a prescription for: Question 52 (2.5 points) Elizabeth was recently diagnosed with genital herpes after having unprotected intercourse with a new partner. The nurse practitioner explains to Christine that the incubation period for HSV Type 2 is approximately: Question 53 (2.5 points) Kristin returns to the clinic for follow-up on STI results. The nurse practitioner informs her the Chlamydia test was positive. Which of the following agents will the nurse practitioner prescribe for treatment? Question 54 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner student is studying the CDC guidelines for treating sexually transmitted infections. Which of the following agents is recommended for Gonorrhea treatment? Question 55 (2.5 points) A 30-year-old woman presents without symptoms but states that her male partner has dysuria without penile discharge. Examination of the woman reveals a friable cervix with yellow discharge from the cervical os. This description is most consistent with an infection caused by: Select all that apply. D) Clindamycin with azithromycin A) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) B) Leukopenia C) Valacyclovir A) 4 to 7 days up to 4 weeks C) Azithromycin A) Ceftriaxone

Question 56 (2.5 points) Karen was diagnosed with trichomoniasis by her primary care provider and treated with: Question 57 (2.5 points) A 24 - year-old woman presents with a 1-week history of thin, greenish yellow vaginal discharge with perivaginal irritation. Physical examination findings include vaginal erythema with petechial hemorrhages on the cervix, numerous white blood cells, and motile organisms on microscopic examination. These findings most likely represent: Question 58 (2.5 points) For patients needing topical treatment for vulvovaginitis caused by Candida albicans, the nurse practitioner will prescribe: Question 59 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that women with bacterial vaginosis typically present with: Question 60 (2.5 points) The U.S. Preventative Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends of folic acid supplement daily at least one month before conception for all women with average risk for neural tube defects. Question 61 (2.5 points) The American College of Obstetrician & Gynecologists recommend that all pregnant women be offered aneuploidy screening before 20 weeks gestation. This test identifies A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Trichomonas vaginalis A) Metronidazole 500 mg po BID x 7 days (If single-dose metronidazole treatment fails and reinfection is excluded, metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for 7 days should be prescribed.) this is the correct answer if first treatment doesn’t work B) trichomoniasis B) clotrimazole cream D) malodorous discharge B) .4 to .8 mg

women whose fetuses are at increased risk for which of the following? Select all that apply. Question 62 (2.5 points) An important part of patient education for the patient with bacterial vaginosis who is receiving a prescription for oral Metronidazole is: Question 63 (2.5 points) For the patient with chronic bacterial vaginosis, the nurse practitioner will prescribe: Question 64 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner's exam findings on a patient with vaginal Candidiasis is positive for all of the following except: Question 65 (2.5 points) A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was February 14, 2017. Using Nageles Rule, what is the client's expected date of birth (EDB)? Question 66 (2.5 points) Which documentation on a woman's chart on postpartum day 14 indicates a normal involution process? Question 67 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands that the hormone, , remains elevated in breastfeeding women in the postpartum period. Question 68 (2.5 points) B) Trisomy 13 C) Trisomy 18 D) Trisomy 21 Avoid alcohol for 48 hours after completing medication. D) Metronidazole gel .75% vaginally 1 - 2 times a week for 4 to 6 months C) vaginal ph of 7 C) November 21, 2017 C) Fundus below the symphysis pubis and nonpalpable C) Prolactin

The nurse practitioner is recommending daily Calcium supplementation of to her female patients that are older than 50 years of age. C) 1200 mg Question 69 (2.5 points) Osteoporosis is diagnosed when the patient's bone density is more than standard deviation(s) below the average bone mass for women younger than 35 years old. Question 70 (2.5 points) Based on the latest ACOG guidelines, the nurse practitioner understands that the recommended time to initiate screening for cervical cancer in women is: Question 71 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner understands the following lifestyle approaches may be used to prevent osteoporosis after menopause: Select all that apply. Question 72 (2.5 points) What is the primary role of a nurse practitioner in the research process? Question 73 (2.5 points) Whether you order diagnostic testing or refer the patient to an HIV-specific facility, laboratory confirmation is rendered. The test confirming HIV infection is . Question 74 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner is examining a twenty-nine-year-old female with a three day history of dysuria and urinary frequency. On examination, the patient is positive for suprapubic tenderness and negative for costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness. This most likely represents which of the following? C) 2. C) at age 21 years Limit alcohol intake Performance of regular weight-bearing activities Adequate calcium &vitamin D intake B) Collecting data for other researchers A) Western blot assay B) Cystitis

Question 75 (2.5 points) A patient has been diagnosed with trichomoniasis. Which of the following single dose medications would be the best option? Question 76 (2.5 points) When educating patients about the use of combination oral contraceptive medications, they should be advised that pregnancy is prevented primarily by. Question 77 (2.5 points) A twenty-four-year-old female presents to the office with a complaint of a “yucky” vaginal discharge. On exam, a milky vaginal discharge is noted. A wet mount preparation reveals a positive whiff test and 75% clue cells. There were no trichomonads or WBCs visualized. Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis in this patient? Question 78 (2.5 points) A fifty-five-year-old postmenopausal female patient presents with pain in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast for over one month now. The best course of action would be to. Question 79 (2.5 points) A thirty-nine-year-old female has just completed a course of Amoxicillin for the treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis. Her LMP was two weeks ago and reports that it was normal for her. On physical examination, there is some erythema of the external genitalia with a small amount of white discharge. The microscopic wet prep examination reveals few clue cells but an abundance of budding hyphae. There are no WBCs present. Considering the differential diagnoses and results of the microscopic examination, which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment? Question 80 (2.5 points) A forty-nine-year-old female patient presents with a chief complaint of dark, watery brown vaginal discharge. Part of the differential diagnosis includes that of cervical cancer. Which of the following best describes what might be visualized on physical examination in patients with cervical cancer? D) Metronidazole 2 g C) ovulation suppression A) Bacterial vaginosis D) perform a breast examination and order a mammogram C) Fluconazole 150 mg tablet as a onetime dose A) Ulcerated firm cervix

Question 81 (2.5 points) A twenty-five-year-old female presents with vaginal irritation and discharge. On examination, the cervix is easily friable and erythematous. There is no adnexal tenderness. The wet prep (wet mount) microscopic examination reveals mobile protozoa on the normal saline slide. This most likely represents. Question 82 (2.5 points) A twenty-two-year-old female presents with an initial onset of herpes simplex on the external genitalia. During the patient education, which of the following statements is most important to include? Question 83 (2.5 points) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is released from the anterior pituitary gland and is responsible for which of the following normal physiologic response of the female menstrual cycle? Question 84 (2.5 points) A thirty-two-year-old patient comes in for a workup of infertility. During the history, the nurse practitioner suspects that the patient may be experiencing anovulatory cycles. In order to confirm ovulation, which of the following tests would be most appropriate to order? Question 85 (2.5 points) A nurse practitioner is performing a wet mount with potassium hydroxide (KOH) to assist with a diagnosis in a woman experiencing vaginal discharge. Which of the following would this confirm? Question 86 (2.5 points)A nurse practitioner is completing a speculum exam on a female patient. Which of the following findings would be considered a normal surface characteristic of the cervix? Question 87 (2.5 points) There are several phases to the menstrual cycle. What phase begins with menses cessation and ends with ovulation? A) trichomoniasis D) Symptoms of the initial outbreak of the lesions are typically worse than subsequent outbreaks. B) Stimulation of ovarian follicles B) Basal body temperature C) Candidiasis D) Irregular, granular surface with red patches

C) Proliferative phase Question 88 (2.5 points) A nurse practitioner is participating in a women’s health fair. When educating the women about risk factors for breast cancer, which of the following statements is incorrect? Question 89 (2.5 points) The first line treatment of severe menstrual cramps that have been occurring for four months in a patient with primary dysmenorrhea includes which of the following? B) Ibuprofen Question 90 (2.5 points) Which of the following choices represents a disorder of the reproductive tract that causes pain, erythema, dyspareunia, and a perineal mass? Question 91 (2.5 points) A woman is concerned that she may develop breast cancer and is discussing her concerns with the nurse practitioner. Which of the following is not an associated risk factor for this? Question 92 (2.5 points) A sixty-one-year-old thin, Caucasian female presents to your practice for a well- woman examination. She remarks that she feels like she is shrinking over the past year, despite keeping active and incorporating sources of calcium in her diet. Which of the following is not a risk factor for osteoporosis? A) Excessive exercise Question 93 (2.5 points) A thirty-five-year-old woman, presents with a six-month history of hypermenorrhea, backache, and pelvic pressure. On examination, you discover a twelve-week size uterus with irregular contour. Which of the following does this most likely represent? Question 94 (2.5 points) It is known that a woman who is menopausal has an increased risk of heart disease. Which of the following lipid changes occur with estrogen withdrawal in menopause? D) Fibrocystic breast disease B) Bartholin’s cyst A) Late menarche C) Uterine fibroid

Question 95 (2.5 points) Which of the following is true regarding education of a forty-two-year-old woman diagnosed with a uterine myoma? Question 96 (2.5 points) Sheryl, a seventeen-year-old, complains of a vaginal discharge for the past month. When she wipes after urinating, there is "white stuff" on the tissue. Sheryl denies urinary problems but has had some genital itching, but no odor. She also denies sexual activity. Her vaginal discharge is most likely a result of. Question 97 (2.5 points) Urinary tract infections are commonly seen in primary care. A twenty-five-year-old female presents with a new onset of dysuria and suprapubic pain for the last twenty- four hours. The examination reveals only mild tenderness without any peritoneal signs on the lower abdomen. A urinalysis reveals the presence of WBCs. The urine is sent for a culture and sensitivity. In addition to Escherichia coli one might typically expect to see the presence of which bacterium? C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus (I think this is correct) Question 98 (2.5 points) The pituitary gland is responsible for a variety of functions with respect to hormonal regulation and is composed of two lobes, the anterior and posterior sections. Which of the following list of hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland? Question 99 (2.5 points) The nurse practitioner is counseling a patient on the side effects associated with some birth control methods. The woman complains that she has developed acne and hirsutism while taking oral contraceptives. The nurse practitioner understands that these changes result from. Question 100 (2.5 points) You are meeting with twenty-two-year-old Emily to discuss birth control options. She has tried “the pill” in the past but failed to take it regularly. She is interested in depo because she only has to come in every three months for a shot. She also heard that one D) Decrease in HDL with an increase in LDL and triglycerides B) Myomas will decrease with the withdrawal of estrogen. A) (^) a yeast infection A) Klebsiella? A) Growth hormone (GH) and thyroid-stimulating hormone C) increased free androgens

does not get a period on depo, and she likes the thought of that. Which of the following would be a specific consideration with depo that you would need to discuss with Emily based on her desires for a birth control method? B) Depo can cause break through bleeding up to the second or third injection