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NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025, Exams of Nursing

NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025/NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025/NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025

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Download NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 Question 1 All of the following are clinical manifestations of hemophilia except which? A. Spontaneous hematuria B. Excessive blood clot formation C. Prolonged mucosal bleeding D. Easy bruising Question 2 A nurse is caring for a ;client who is bleeding. Platelets within the bloodstream begin to aggregate and prevent further blood loss. Which of the following best describes this process? A. Homeostasis B. Hemokinetics C. Hemostasis D. Homeokinetics Question 3 Iron-deficiency anemia can include all the following clinical manifestations except which+ A. Geographic tongue B. Irritability C. Delayed healing D. Memory loss Question 4 Which of the following conditions is characterized by malignant granulocytes that carry a unique chromosomal abnormally? A. Chronic myeloid leukamia B. Hodgkin's lymphoma C. Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma D. Melanoma Question 5 Which type of cancer reveals the presence of reed sternberg cells? A. Multiple myeloma B. Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma C. Leukamia D. Hodgkin's lymphoma Question 6 Clinical manifestations of all types of anemia could include all of the following except? NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 A. Pallor B. Weakness C. Chest pain D. Tachycardia Question 7 Pancytopenia is described as which of the following? A. Lack of erythrocytes, hemoglobin and hematocrit B. Lack of erythrocytes, platelets and basophilia C. Lack of erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets D. Lack of leukocytes, erythrocytes and neutrophils Question 8 A client is experiencing sickle-cell crisis. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to observe? A. Fluid retention and weight gain B. Fever and diarrhoea C. Dyspnea and bone pain D. Fatigue and bradycardia Question 9 Clinical manifestations of bleeding include all of the following except? A. Chest pain B. Neurologic changes C. Petechiae D. Bruising Question 10 Incorrect Which of the following clinical manifestations are present in anaphylactic shock? A. Tachycardia and hypertension B. Airway dilation and hypertension C. Tachypnea and airway dilation D. Airway obstruction and hypotension Question 11 Incorrect Identify which clinical manifestation is a common finding for all forms of heart failure. A. Pulmonary edema B. Reduced cardiac output C. Peripheral edema D. Jugular venous distension Question 12 Which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 Question 24 Which of the following symptoms is associated with acute bronchitis A. Atelectasis B. Accumulation of blood in the pleural space C. Increased mucus production D. Dilated airways Question 25 Which of the following terms best describe painful menstruation? A. Premenstrual syndrome B. Amenorrhea C. Polymenorrhea D. Dysmenorrhea Question 26 Which of the following causes inflammation of the vagina with copious foul smelling yellow vaginal discharge? A. Trichomoniasis B. Gonorrhea C. Candidiasis D. Syphilis Question 27 Fluid distribution between the interstitial and intracellular compartments occurs by which of the following? A. Capillary osmotic pressure B. Osmosis C. Capillary hydrostatic pressure D. Filtration across permeable capillaries Question 28 Incorrect Hypernatremia and increased serum osmolality are associated with a deficit of which of the following? A. Protein B. Potassium C. Sodium bicarbonate D. Water Question 29 Which of the following is a cause of edema? A. Polyuria B. Dehydration C. Decreased plasma proteins D. Hypotension NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 Question 30 A client diagnosed with heart failure displays bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities. Which of the following is used to describe this finding? A. Subjective data B. Symptom C. Contraindication D. Sign Question 31 Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation A. Simultaneous clotting and bleeding B. Simultaneous stroke and heart attack C. Simultaneous clotting and insulin release D. Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting Question 32 Incorrect All of the following may be risk factors associated with Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma except which? A. History of solid organ transplant B. Exposure to environmental irritants C. Use of household cleaning products D. Autoimmune disorders Question 33 Incorrect In pernicious anemia, intrinsic factor is not being secreted by which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa? A. Chief B. Visceral C. Langerhans D. Parietal Question 34 Which of the following is a life-threatening condition that can occur when tissue factor is exposed to blood? A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation C. Von willebrand disease D. Pernicious anemia Question 35 Which disease process is also known as the kissing disease? A. Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Coxsackie C. Pityriasis rosea D. Infectious mononucleosis NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 Question 36 What physiological reaction happens to the body with fight or flight response? A. Decreased blood pressure B. Decreased heart rate C. Decreased respirations D. Dilated pupils Question 37 Incorrect Which type of white blood cells play a role in the cell-mediated immunity and production of immunoglobulin? A. Lymphocytes B. Macrophages C. Neutrophils D. Monocytes Question 38 Which type of immunity is provided by vaccination? A. Artificially acquired passive immunity B. Naturally acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired active immunity Question 39 Which of the following indicates the early stage of acute renal failure? A. Very low glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and increased serum urea B. Polyuria with urine of fixed and low specific gravity C. Hypotension and increased urine output D. Development of decompensated acidosis Question 40 The nurse monitors for which complication in the client with large renal calculi A. Chronic hypertension B. Polyuria C. Dysuria D. Hydronephrosis Question 41 The client with advanced dementia would exhibit which of the following symptoms A. Manic episodes B. Hypertension C. Severe headaches D. The inability to problem-solve Question 42 NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 B. Blisters C. Redness and swelling D. Pus CORRECT ANS: A,C,D Question 52 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the role of histamine and seasonal allergies A. Histamine constricts vessels causing capillaries to become more permeable and leaky B. Histamine is primarily stored in phagocyte cells in the skin which are released in response to antibodies C. Histamine is inhibited by antigens, leading to the signs and symptoms of allergies D. Histamine dilates the vessels in the nose, causing the nose to become congested Question 53 Incorrect Which of the following are clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure (select all that apply) A. Crackles auscultated in the lungs B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea C. Cough with frothy sputum D. Peripheral edema E. Jugular venous distension CORRECT ANS: A,C,D,E Question 54 Incorrect Which of the following statements are true regarding syphilis (select all that apply) A. It can cause damage to the central nervous system and cause blindness, paresis and mental deterioration B. Syphilis is only communicable during the secondary stage C. It is caused by anaerobic spirochete D. It is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus E. In severe cases, it can cause problems with the cardiovascular system and aortic necrosis CORRECT ANS: A, B, C, E Question 55 Incorrect Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when assessing a client with diabetic acidosis (select all that apply) A. Jugular vein distension B. Lethargy NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 C. Low blood sugar D. Increased energy E. Deep, fast respirations CORRECT ANS: B, E Question 56 Which is the following can lead to impaired neurological function in clients with increased intracranial pressure. (select all that apply) A. Decreased perfusion of the brain tissue B. The ability of the tissues to autoregulate the pressure C. Compression of the brain D. Inflammation of the brain tissues E. Increased tissue oxygenation Question 57 Which of the following would cause a client to experience gout? A. Overproduction of uric acid B. Decreased presence of serotonin receptors C. Increased ammonia levels in the blood D. Decreased calcium intake Question 58 A teenage athlete experiences a sudden impact to his shoulder during a football game causing it to move out of its position. Which of the following musculoskeletal disorders did this client most likely experience? A. Sprain B. Strain C. Bone fracture D. Shoulder dislocation Question 59 The nurse is reviewing a client’s lab results. The nurse knows the client with a pH of 7.3 and a pCO2 of 55mmHg has which acid-base imbalance A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic acidosis Question 60 What effect does hemoglobin amount have on oxygenation status? A. Hemoglobin has no effect on oxygenation status B. Increased hemoglobin reduces the client’s respiratory rate C. Low hemoglobin causes increased oxygen carrying capacity D. Decreased hemoglobin causes reduced oxygen carrying capacity. NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 Question 61 Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms in the lung parenchyma allows pneumonia to develop? A. Inflammation B. Effusion C. Tracheal deviation D. Atelectasis Question 62 The pathophysiology of which disease involves the inflammation of the trachea and bronchi often associated with severe infection? A. Asthma B. Bronchitis C. Emphysema D. bronchiectasis Question 63 Which of the following pH imbalance would be seen in a client with hypercapnia? A. Decreased respirations B. Decreased carbonic acid in the blood C. Increased blood pH D. Respiratory acidosis Questions 64 Which of the following differentiates asthma from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? A. Asthma is an obstructive disease whereas COPD is an acute disorder. B. Smoking makes asthma worse whereas smoking has no effect on COPD C. Airflow obstruction caused by asthma is irreversible whereas airflow obstruction in COPD is reversible D. Asthma is characterized by decrease in oxygen saturation whereas COPD is characterized by an increase in oxygen saturation. Question 65 Which of the following leads to the appearance of barrel chest in clients with emphysema A. Peripheral edema B. Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm, C. Bacterial infections in the lungs D. Air trapping in the alveoli Question 66 Incorrect Which of the following is a complication compartment syndrome? A. Pain and tissue damage B. Increased limb functions NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 Chronic inflammation can lead to which of the following disorders in which the pericardium becomes thick and fibrous and adheres to the heart? A. Cardiomyopathy B. Constrictive pericarditis C. Myocardial infarction D. Myocarditis Question 79 Incorrect Which type of cardiomyopathy causes a thickened hyperkinetic ventricular heart muscle A. Hypertrophic B. Restrictive C. Obstructive D. Dilated Question 80 Incorrect What causes atherosclerosis plaques to form in the body? A. Interruption of blood flow to the brain B. Poor dietary modification C. Injury to the endothelium D. Administration of statin medications Question 81 A client is experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). What causes cardiac tissue death in a MI? A. Elevated serum electrolyte levels B. A broken valve has caused bleeding and loss of blood C. Oxygen and other vital nutrients are not being delivered to the tissue D. The client hasn't exercised in three days Question 82 Massive and severe myocardial infarction could potentially lead to which type of shock? A. Hypodermic shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Distributive shock D. Neurogenic shock Question 83 Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis (MS)? A. Demyelination of the neurons B. Clotting and bleeding disorders C. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells D. Decreased production of dopamine NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 Question 84 Which of the following describes the cause of cerebral palsy? A. Transient brain damage that resolves in adulthood from physical therapy B. Brain damage that manifests as an adult after normal childhood activities C. Brain damage that is reversible with cognitive therapy with the infant client D. Irreversible brain damage that can occur before,during and after birth or infantry Question 85 Which of the following is found in clients with Parkinson’s disease? A. Increased levels of serotonin in the brain B. Increased liver enzymes C. Autoimmune destruction of acetylcholine receptors D. Decreased levels of dopamine in the brain Question 86 Which of the following describes the etiology of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) A. Excessive exercise, such as running B. A ruptured artery in the heart C. A blow to the head from a hard object D. Lack of blood flow to part of the brain Question 87 The condition that involves progressive destruction of motor neurons resulting in muscle atrophy is identified by which of the following disorders? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) B. Huntington’s chorea C. Guillain-Barre syndrome D. Parkinson's disease Question 88 Which of the following describes temporary episodes of impaired neurologic functioning caused by inadequate blood flow to a portion of the brain? A. Ischemic stroke B. Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) C. Spinal shock D. Hemorrhagic stroke Question 89 Incorrect Which of the following is true regarding contact dermatitis? A. It is a chronic inflammatory condition often accompanied by asthma NUR 2063 Essentials Of Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025 B. It is an acute inflammatory reaction triggered by direct exposure to an irritant C. It consists of a raised erythematous skin lesions D. It is a highly contagious bacterial skin infection CORRECT ANS: C Question 90 Which of the following would result in a prerenal kidney injury? A. Contrast dye/media B. Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) C. Hemorrhage D. Nephrolithiasis Question 91 Which of the following is true regarding polycystic kidney disease? A. The kidneys are displaced and the uterus are twisted B. It affects only one of the kidneys C. The prognosis is good because the disorder resolves on its own D. It results in gradual degeneration of the kidneys Question 92 Upon examination of a male infant, it is determined that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis. The nurse would document this condition…..? A. Hypospadias B. Cryptorchidism C. Epispadias D. Hydroureter Question 93 incorrect The client is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing a urinary obstruction. Which symptoms would the individual most likely experience? A. Anuria B. Pyuria C. Flank pain D. Glucosuria Question 94 A client presents in the emergency department with a distru abdomen, a yellowish tone to his skin and sclera, and confusion. The nurse suspects which condition? A. Liver disease