NUR 2063 NUR2063 Exam 1 Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam 1 Questions & Answers Review L, Exams of Nursing

Download NUR 2063 NUR2063 Exam 1 Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam 1 Questions & Answers Review L and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! DO NOT COPY NUR 2063 NUR2063 Exam 1 Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam 1 Questions & Answers Review LATEST 2022-2023 RASMUSSEN NR 2063 Exam 1 Review 1. Which of the following assessment findings indicates an alteration in homeostatic control mechanisms? - Fever 2. Injury that occurs when blood flow is diminished to tissue is called injury. - ischemic 3. The cancer growth continuum is divided into which of the following stages? - Initiation, promotion, progression 4. The activities of the cell are directed by which cell structure? - Cytoplasm 5. Enzymes that use oxidation to convert food materials into energy are found in sausage- shaped structures called: - mitochondria 6. A patient presents with hyponatremia. What is the priority assessment for the patient? - Mental status changes 7. What is the priority assessment for a patient with a potassium imbalance? - EKG 8. A patient presents with hypomagnesemia, what would the nurse anticipate the calcium levels would be? - low 9. A patient presents with hypercalcemia. What would the nurse anticipate the phosphorous levels would be? - low 10. The nurse is teaching a patient who has recently given birth about immunity that has been passed to the baby in utero. Which statement by the patient indicates that additional teaching is needed? - "I had chickenpox and am immune to it, so my baby will not need to have the chickenpox vaccine." 11. In preparing a community teaching program, which information presented by the nurse addresses a type of secondary cancer prevention? - Annual measurement of prostate-specific antigen levels 12. A 2-day post-op heart transplant patient begins to have fever and signs and symptoms of heart failure. The patient is more than likely experiencing which of the following? - Type IV delayed hypersensitivity 13. Which of the following is a complication of chronic stress? - Increased susceptibility to illness 14. Within minutes after receiving an injection of penicillin, the patient complains of shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse notifies the patient's healthcare provider because this patient is most likely experiencing which type of hypersensitivity? - Type I 15. During which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) have the body's coping methods been completely utilized? - Exhaustion 16. Which of the following is a chemical triggered by the sympathetic nervous system made from the adrenal medulla that is responsible for many of the physiological symptoms of the "fight or flight" response? - Epinephrine 17. What disease state results from an inability to differentiate self from non-self? 34. Which of the following is associated with specific immunity? - immunoglobulins 35. Injecting a vaccine of a dead or weakened pathogen imparts which type of immunity? - Artificial active immunity 36. Normal potassium levels - 3.5-5.5mEq/L 37. What is the purpose of the stress response? - restore balance 38. Holds 1/3 of the body's water - extracellular fluid 39. 135-145 mEq/L - sodium serum range 40. Alarm stage of GAS - increased heart rate 41. Which space does fluid enter to cause edema? - interstitial compartment 42. Treats hives, pruritis and swelling - histamine and prostaglandin 43. Macrophage is a type of white blood cell which is a phagocyte. - True 44. Allergies are associated with elevated - eosinophils 45. What causes edema? - Increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure 46. Oncogene is associated with the initiation of cancer - True 47. Gout is caused by the following: - elevated uric acid 48. Glucocorticoids reduce inflammation by - decreasing the permeability in capillaries 49. Wound edges that are approximated signify the wound is infected - False 50. Which of these exemplifies habituation? - loud noise no longer causes fight/flight response 51. Ecchymosis means - large bruise 52. Purpura means - medium bruise 53. Tumors "new growth" not all are life threatening; benign or malignant- Describes - neoplasm 54. May be Primary Bone Cancer or Metastatic - Clinical manifestation of Chondrosarcoma 55. Shingles is a disorder of herpes zoster and has which of the following clinical manifestations? - Psoriasis Eruption of vesicles along sensory neuron dermatomes 56. Distribution of fluid between interstitial and intracellular compartments occurs by - osmosis 57. A patient describes nausea. What is this? - Symptom 58. A simple lab test which can measure the level of inflammation in an individual is - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 59. The process by where we use hormones in the body to regulate equilibrium, when the body changes - Homeostasis 60. Negative feedback - uses hormone to reach homeostasis 61. Positive feedback - increases hormones to create a reaction to occur 79. Extracellular fluid has higher concentration of which electrolytes/substances - Sodium, Chloride 80. The energy currency of a cell and role the mitochondrion plays in this currency - ATP - Aerobic metabolism 81. Three electrolytes that are stored in and impact bone and the relationship they have to each other - Calcium, Magnesium, Phosphorus (↑Calcium = ↑Magnesium), (↑Calcium = ↓Phosphorus) 82. What happens during the alarm phase of Hans Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome? - Epinephrine is release / Decreased ability to respond to stressors Reduced resistance to stressors 83. What clinical findings would the patient in the fight or flight stage present with? - Increased vitals, pupils dilated 84. Signs of inflammation - Pain, warmth, edema, erythema, loss of function 85. Type 1 hypersensitivity mediator and its effect on the body - IgE - Hay fever, systemic anaphylaxis, asthma 86. What do histamines do? - Stimulate vasodilation to increase blood flow to dilute toxins 87. A lab test that can measure inflammation - CBC - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) & C-reactive protein 88. What is metastasis? - to spread - (Cancer spreading) 89. Cachexia - Muscle wasting 90. What are the properties of cancer cells? - Rapid growing, metastasize quickly, fatal, highly undifferentiated 91. The effects of bone marrow suppression in cancer patients - Anemia - check & replace iron, blood transfusion, erythropoietin injection Leukopenia - teach pt ways to prevent infection Thrombocytopenia - pt at risk for bleeding, unable to clot 92. What are example of benign cells - Edema polyps, moles, skin tag, cysts, fibroid tumor 93. Steps in carcinogenesis - Initiation - introduction of the agent Promotion - initiation of uncontrolled growth Progression - permanent malignant changes 94. What are T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes? - T cells recognize antigen, produced in bone marrow, mature in thymus, 2 types (regulator - helper & suppressor, & effector/killer), protect against viruses & cancer, responsible for hypersensitivity reactions & transplant rejections. B cells encounter antigen, produced & mature in bone marrow, differentiate into 2 types (memory & immunoglobulin-secreting [Ig]), antibodies produced 72hrs after initial antigen exposure, subsequent exposure to same antigen leads to quicker response 95. What are macrophages? - Fibrocystic WBC within tissues produced by monocytes; phagocytize (eat) & stimulate lymphocytes & other immune cells to respond to pathogens 96. Where are leukocytes and red blood cells formed - Bone marrow 97. Best way to prevent the spread of infection - wash hands 98. What compounds does the body release during stress? - Cortisol / Catecholamines 99. Specific type of white blood cell found with type 1 hypersensitivity - Mast cell 100. Type 1 hypersensitivity - -B-Lymphocyte -IgE -Mast cells & Basophils -Histamine, Serotonin, Leukotrienes, Prostaglandins -Hay Fever, Asthma 112. Rheumatoid arthritis clinical manifestation - Low grade fever, malaise, muscle spasms, AM muscle stiffness, bilateral joint pain, fatigue, anorexia, anemia, depression, unsteady gait 113. Conditions which result from excessive immune response - RA, SLE, Guillain-Barre syndrome 114. What is atopic dermatitis - Eczema, chronic inflammatory condition most common in infants, usually resolving in early adulthood 115. What is contact dermatitis - Inflammation of the skin caused by contact with a substance 116. What is psoriatic arthritis - Inflammatory arthritis associated with psoriasis 117. What causes gout - Overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid. Factors: overweight/obesity, disease (HTN, DM, renal disease, sickle cell anemia) 118. Osteoporosis etiology - Estrogen deficiencies, poor calcium intake, disuse 119. The best prevention for Pressure ulcers/injuries is to perform what intervention - Frequent turning Q 2hrs, get pt. OOB & into chair, keep vulnerable areas clean & dry, keep bed coverings off feet 120. Complications of compartment syndrome - Tissue becomes necrotic d/t no oxygen getting to muscles & nerves because of too much pressure from inflammation 121. The 5 P's of compartment syndrome - Pain Pallor Pulseless Paresthesia Paralysis 122. What is muscular dystrophy - genetically driven progressive muscle weakness & degeneration; muscle is replaced by fat and fibrous connective tissue 123. What is Fibromyalgia - Widespread muscular pains & fatigue 124. 1st degree burn - Only the epidermis (red, painful, and edema) 125. 2nd degree burn - epidermis and part of dermis (blistered) 126. 3rd degree burn - Full thickness damage through skin into nerves and muscles 127. Simple fracture - Single break with bone ends keeping alignment 128. Transverse Fracture - Straight across the bone shaft 129. Oblique fracture - at an angle to the bone shaft 130. Spiral fracture - Twists around the bone shaft 131. Comminuted fracture - Multiple fracture lines and bones pieces 132. Greenstick fracture - Incomplete break in the bone, only slight bend 133. Compression fracture - Bone is crushed or collapses / small pieces 146. IgM - Fight blood infections and triggers production of IgG 147. IgA - Found in membranes of respiratory and gastrointestinal tract - Local immunity 148. IgE - Protects the body through its presence in mucous membranes - Allergic reactions 149. IgD - Present in blood serum and B cells; receptor for antigens 150. Complement - Inactive proteins in the circulation that when activated stimulate the release of mediators, chemotaxis, and phagocytes 151. Prostaglandins - lipid compounds that control Constriction or dilation of vascular smooth muscle, cell growth, sensitization of spinal neurons 152. Etiology - cause of the event 153. Pathogenesis - Evolution of the disease 154. Clinical manifestations - states of the disease / S/s 155. Glucose lab value - 70-99 mg/dl 156. Sodium lab value - 136-144 mEq/L 157. Potassium lab value - 3.7-5.2 mEq/L 158. Chloride lab value - 96-106 mmol/L 159. Calcium lab value - 8.5-10.9 mg/dl