NUR 2063 Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions And Answers 2024-2025, Exams of Nursing

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NUR 2063 Pathophysiology Final Exam Questions And

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1. Which of the following is part of the pathophysiology of emphysema that can lead to the appearance of a barrel chart? A. Peripheral edema B. Bacterial infection in the lungs C. Air trapping in the alveoli D. Muscle atrophy of the diaphragm
2. The primary problem with anemia, regardless of the cause, is the goal in treating anemia is to A. Occult bleeding reduces the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. B. Tissue hypoxia; restore tissue oxygenation. C. Tissue hyperoxia; have the patient take slow deep breaths. D. Oxygen saturation more than 100%reduce oxygen toxicity. 3. Intracellular fluid contains higher concentration of which of the following? A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate
3. Which of the following is a characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

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A. Simultaneous stroke and heart attack B. Simultaneous clotting and bleeding C. Simultaneous clotting and insulin release D. Simultaneous bleeding and vomiting

5. Which of the following steps happens first during hemostasis? A. Vascular spasm B. Platelet’s dissolve C. Coagulation D. Dissolving of the clot

6. Which of the following clinical finding would be present in clients experiencing shock (select all that apply)? A. Altered level of consciousness. B. Hypotension C. Increased mental clarity. D. Tachycardia E. Hypertension
7. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis (MS)? A. Demyelination of the neurons in the central system B. Decreased production of dopamine in the central nervous system

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C. Clotting and bleeding disorders D. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors on muscle cells

8. Which of the following is a component of the etiology of edema? A. Decreased plasma proteins B. Hypotension C. Dehydration D. Polyuria
9. Sing and symptoms of myocardial infarction include which of the following? A. Persistent chest pain which may radiate to the arm, neck, or jaw. B. Brief sternal chest pain on inspiration C. Rapid respiration with left-sided weakness and numbness D. Left upper quadrant abdominal pain which radiates to the back and shoulder.
10. Which of the following can lead to impaired neurological function in clients with increased intracranial pressure? (select all that apply) A. Compression of the brain B. Inflammation of the brain tissue C. Decrease perfusion of the brain tissue. D. The ability of the tissues
11. Increased calcium levels in the blood could be due to an imbalance of which of the following hormones? A. Parathyroid hormone

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B. Antidiuretic hormone C. Calcitonin D. Melatonin

12. Which hyperglycemic disorder is related to breaking down fats for energy in patients with type 1 diabetes? A. Nonketotic hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome B. Hyperglycemic lipid syndrome C.Diabetic ketoacidosis D. Lipidosis hyperosmolar ketosis
13. Which of the following would the nurse expect to see in client experiencing hypoventilation? A. increased oxygenation in the alveoli B. increased carbon dioxide in the bloodstream C. decreased hemoglobin in the bloodstream D. decreased carbon dioxide in the alveoli
14. A client has a potassium of 1.9mEq/L. What is most important observation? A. Jaundice B. Skin turgor C. Ability of the client to walk. D. Telemetry EKG for cardiac abnormalities

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15. Clients experiencing a sickle cell crisis would display which of the following clinical manifestations? A. Pain and dyspnea B. Bleeding and decreased white blood cell count. C. Increase mucous production and decreased platelets. D. Jugular venous distension and ascites
16. Which of the following is used to classify seizures? A. Clinical symptoms and electrocardiogram (ECG) B. Electroencephalogram (EEG)and electrocardiogram (ECG) C. Clinical symptoms and complete blood count (CBC) D. Clinical symptoms and electroencephalogram (EEG)
17. Which of the following are causes of obstructive shock? (select all that Apply ) A. Spinal cord injury B. Pulmonary embolism C. Cardiac tamponade D. Tension pneumothorax E. Hemorrhage
18. A tension pneumothorax requires a needle thoracotomy and or chest tube placement as treatment to treat which component of this condition?

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A. An accumulation of blood in the pleural space, which make it difficult for lungs to exchange gases. B. Extreme pain cause by a fractured rib. C. A large accumulation of trapped air in the pleural space, affecting both the lungs and heart. D. Sudden failure of the respiratory system due to fluid accumulation in the alveoli.

19. Which of the following describes what is occurring in the body of clients experiencing hypovolemia? A. Increased urine retention

B. Insufficient circulating blood volume C. Bounding peripheral pulses D. Crackles auscultated in the lungs.

20. Which link in the chain of infection describes the source (living or nonliving) of an infection agent? A. Reservoir B. Mode of transmission C. Portal of exit D. Susceptible
21. What symptom would the nurse expect to see in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? A. Dyspnea on exertion B. Normal lungs sound. C. Normal arterial blood gases

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D. Onset of the disease during young adulthood.

22. Which organ is associated with the development of esophageal varices?

A. Liver B. Spleen C. Kidney D. Pancreas

23. Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of leukemia and lymphoma? A. Fatigue B. Increased risk of bleeding C. Increased risk of infections D. Increased energy and strength
24. Virchow triad includes which of the following factors? ( select all that APPLY ) A. Venous blood stasis

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B. Damage to the venous wall C. Venous blood hypermobility D. Increase blood coagulability. E. Damage to the arterial wall

25. A patient has acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which of the following would the nurse expert to find?

A. Alkalosis and hyperventilation B. Hypoxemia and hypercapnia C. Alkalosis and high potassium D. Elevated sodium and acidosis

26. Which of the following electrolytes and as an electrolyte pool?

A. Brain B. Bone C. Kidneys D. Nails

27. What is a cause of cardiogenic shock? A. Sever dysfunction of the heart’s ventricles. B. Acute blood loss

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C. Sever dysfunction of the heart’s atria. D. Suppression of the sympathetic nervous system

28. Which of the following would result in a prerenal kidney injury?

A. Contrast dye/media B. Hemorrhage C. Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) D. Nephrolithiasis

29. What is the best way to prevent spinal cord injuries? A. Moving the client’s neck and spine to maintain mobility. B. Administering antibiotics to prevent invasion of bacteria. C. Stabilization to prevent further trauma to the spinal cord. D. Having the client bear weight immediately after injury
30. How dose unstable angina pectoris differ from stable angina pectoris? A. Unstable angina pectoris manifests in electrocardiogram (ECG) changes only B. Unstable angina pectoris is not relieved by periods of rest unstable angina pectoris is not as serious as stable angina. C. Unstable angina pectoris is not relieved by periods of rest. D. Unstable angina pectoris is not as serious as stable angina.

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31. A person involved in a motor vehicle accident has a suspected spinal cord injury. The nurse knows that which of the following may have cause this injury to occur? A. Leakage of fluid from the ears. B. Large loss of blood secondary to an open femur fracture. C. Compression of the spinal cord secondary to extreme twisting of the neck during the accident. D. An accumulation of the in the subarachnoid space secondary to hitting the head on the windshield.
32. What of the following best describes sepsis? A. An overwhelming allergic reaction B. Sever inflammatory response to a pathogen. C. Unknown cause resulting in hypertension. D. Poor nursing and health care provider interventions.
33. What is the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function? A. The ability to perform complex mathematics. B. Altered level of consciousness. C. The lack of level of cerebrospinal fluid production D. Intact cranial nerve functions
34. What happens to a cell with polycythemia?

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A. Deficient plasma in the blood B. Increased lymphatic fluid being produced. C. Increased red blood cells being produced. D. Deficient number of red blood cells.

35. A client is bleeding platelets within the bloodstream begin aggregating to prevent further blood lose. Platelet aggregation is one of the steps of which of the following processes? A. Homokinetic B. Homokinetic C. Hemostasis D. homeostasis
    36. Which of the following cause a client to have a mechanical bowel obstruction? a. Opioid analgesic administration b. A diet low in fiber c. Intussusception d. Clostridium difficulties infection

37.Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in clients with Cushing syndrome? Excessive production of glucocorticoids Insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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Hyperpigmentation Exophthalmos

38.Which of the following will the nurse do to identify a client with pyelonephritis? a. Percuss the costovertebral angle for pain. b. Identify pain in the cervical dermatomes. c. Evaluate for pain in the arms and legs. d. No assessment of pain as this organ does not sense pain.

39. Which of the following describes inflammation of the bladder lining? Incontinence Pyelonephritis Urinary calculi Cystitis
40. In which of acute kidney injury will a decrease in urine output be noted? Oliguric phase Diuresis phase Prodromal/asymptomatic phase Recovery phase
41. Meningitis is inflammation of the and encephalitis is inflammation of the A. Meningeal tissues brain tissues

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A. Brain tissues, spinal cord C. Meningitis tissues, brain tissues this is not the answer. D. Brain tissues; kidneys

42. A client diagnosed with heart failure reports a feeling of dizziness upon standing, which of the following term is describe client is feeling? A. Contraindication B. Sign C. Symptom D. Objective data
43. Which of the following conditions results from excessive immune responses? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Chronic renal failure C. Type 2 diabetes D. Onychomycosis

44.A state of equilibrium or balance with the organism is defined as. A. Homeostasis B. Hemostasis C. Diffusion D. Osmosis

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45. What sign and symptoms would the nurse expect to see in a client with asthma? A. Wheezing dyspnea and coughing B. Coughing diarrhea and hypoventilation C. Crackles, dyspnea, and oliguria D. Normal lung sounds, dyspnea, hyperventilation
46. A client presents to the emergency department with a distended abdomen a yellowish tint to his skin and sclera and confusion. The nurse suspects which of the following as the cause of these symptoms?

A. Appendicitis B. Inflammatory bowel disease C. Liver disease D. Congestive heart failure

47. Which of the following imbalances is found in clients with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

A. Decreased insulin production B. Decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production. C. Increased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). D. Increased production of insulin

48. The nurse knows which is true regarding the sexually transmitted infected syphilis?

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A. Syphilis is a systemic sexually transmitted infection causing painful fluid filled with vesicles that appear 3 to 7 days after the initial infection. B. Syphilis is a localized sexually transmitted infection that attaches to and penetrates columnar epithelium producing a patchy inflammatory response in the submucosa. C. Syphilis is a localized sexually transmitted infection that as a painful chancre and can progress to cause permanent cardiac and central nervous system. D. Syphilis is a systematic sexually transmitted infection that appears initially as a painless chancre and can progress to cause permanent cardiac and central nervous system damage.

49. Which of the following describes the type of incontinence due to an increase in intraabdominal pressure such as coughing sneezing and laughing?

A. Overflow B. Stress C. Mixed D. Functional

50. What is the goal for treating sepsis? A. To identify the cause and treat. B. Offer antibiotics if the client asks. C. Restore cognitive functioning. D. Restore kidney function.

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51. What causes osteoporosis? A. Poor nutrition B. Regular weight bearing exercise. C. Bone loss frequently during aging D. Cerebral palsy and associated disorders

52, Which of the following is often cause of a pulmonary embolism (PE)? A. An autoimmune disorder B. A venous blood clot from lower extremity C. An increase in intracranial pressure D. Hypotension

54: Which of the following hormones helps to raise the blood sugar level to help maintain homeostasis? A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Insulin C. Glycogen D. Thyroxine

55: What is the etiology of hemophilia A? A. Chemotherapy B. Factor VIII deficiency C. Factor IX deficiency D. Decreased synthesis of fibrinogen

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56: Dopaminergic cells are impacted while Parkinson’s disease develops. Which of the following is associated with Parkinson’s disease? A. Impaired mobility and functioning B. Decreased liver and kidney function C. Too much dopamine in the brain D. Skeletal muscle pain and flaccidity

57: Which of the following are clinical manifestations of left sided hearted failure? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY). Jugular venous distention Cough with frothy sputum Crackles auscultated in the lungs. Shortness of breath Peripheral edema

58: How is mycobacterium tuberculosis transmitted to others? A. Skin to skin contact with the infected person. B. Oral-fecal and from poor hygiene C. Walking barefoot outdoors D. Airborne droplets inhaled into the lung.

59. What is most likely to cause a hiatal hernia? A. An abnormally long esophagus

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B. Increase intra-abdominal pressure. C. Stenosis of the hiatus in the diaphragm D. A small fundus in the stomach

60: Classify the following arterial blood gas results: PH= 7.30, PaCo2=55mm Hg. HCO3-=24mEq/L, A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis

61. Which of the following is associated with client who have cystic fibrosis? A. Excessive mucous secretion B. Normal breath sounds C. High fever D. Excessive urination
62. Which of the following describes passive immunity? A. Vaccination against the disease B. Transfer of antibodies from mother to baby C. Cuts or wounds which are infected and heal. D. Having the disease in question.

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63, A client diagnosed with heart failure displays bilateral pitting edema of the lower extremities. Which of the following terms is used to describe this finding? A. Contraindication B. sign C. Symptom D. Subjective data

64, Which of the following are normal arterial blood gas values? A. pH7, 25, PaCO252mmhg, PaO22 75mmHg, HCO3,18mEq/L B. pH 7,50, PaCO230mmHg PaO2 80mmHg, HCO3, 28mEq/L C. pH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg PaO2 90 mm Hg, HCO3 24 MEQ/L D. pH 7. 15, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, Pa02 50 mm Hg, HCO3 24 MEQ/L

65. The client with human papillomavirus is at risk for which type of cancer? A. Lung cancer B. Pancreatic cancer C. Stomach cancer D. Cervical cancer
66. Which of the following can occur with clients who have hyponatremia? A. The loss of more than sodium B. A grain of more sodium than water C. Extreme thirst D. Potentially brain swelling.

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67.Which clients are at highest risk for pneumonia? A. Those in their 20s and 30s and generally healthy B. Those who exercise regularly and not exposed to pathogens. C. Those who are hospitalized and immunopurified. D. Those who have adequate respiratory function.

68. What clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find in a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis? A. Dilated bronchioles, constriction of peripheral blood vessels, decreased capillary permeability. B. Asthma, deep vein thrombosis, encephalopathy C. Narrowing of the bronchioles, dilation of the peripheral blood vessels, increased capillary permeability. D. Left-sided heart failure, pulmonary embolism, urinary tract infection.
69. Which of the following hormones do the kidneys secrete to increase red blood cell production? A. Erythropoietin B. Insulin and glycogen C. Testosterone D. Thyroid stimulating hormone.
70. Which of the following would the nurse see in a client with thrombocytopenia?

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A. A decreased platelet cell count B. Decreased white blood cell count. C. Increase red blood cell count. D. An increased platelet cell count.

73. What physiological reaction happens to the body with the “fight or flight” response?

A. Increase heart rate. B. Constricted pupils C. Decreased blood pressure D. Decreased heart rate.

74. Which of the following describes the damage to the brain that result in cerebral palsy? A. Reversible with cognitive therapy with the infant client B. Transient and resolves in adulthood from physical therapy. C. Manifested as an adult after normal childhood activities. D. Irreversible and occurs before, during, or after birth or infancy.
75. Which condition is the result of endometrial tissue growing outside of the uterus?

A. Chlamydia

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B. Amenorrhea C. Endometriosis D. Gonorrhea

76. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is associated with which of the following conditions? A. Anemia B. Sepsis C. Pneumothorax D. Cystic fibrosis
77. What is the pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes? A. Overproductions od insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas. B. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin.

C. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance. D. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production.

78. Which of the following factors in not modifiable for clients with hypertension? A. Dietary intake B. Increasing age C. Obesity D. Sedentary life

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79. Which of the following are back ward effects of right-sided failure? A. Increased urination B. Peripheral edema C. Pulmonary edema D. Immunosuppression
80. A client present to the emergency department with lower right quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea palpating the abdomen, the client displays rebound tenderness; what would the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing? A. Pseudomembranous colitis B. Peptic ulcer disease B. Appendicitis C. Esophageal cancer
81. which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome? A. Hemorrhage secondary to open wound B. Severe pain and tissue damage secondary to tissue hypoxia C. Increased limb function secondary to hypermobility to the joint.

D. Chronic kidney disease secondary to bone breakdown.

82.Which of the following organs are primarily affected by poorly managed hypertension?

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A. The bladder and urethra B. The brain and skin C. The heart and kidney D. The stomach and intestines

83. What is a characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD)? A. The build-up of infections by products in the lymph node B. Insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium C. Insufficient delivery of carbon dioxide to the lungs D. The build-up of bile in the stomach and gall bladder

84.Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) is a potential etiology of which of the following diseases? A. Colon cancer B. Hiatal hernia C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Esophageal varices

85. What cause atherosclerotic plaques to form in the body? A. Poor dietary modification B. Administration of statin medications C. Interruption of blood flow to the brain D. Injury to the endothelium of the coronary arteries.

86.What typically causes contact dermatitis?

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A. Fungai infection B. Long term Disorder from gout C. Contact with a skin allergen. D. Staphylococcal infection

87. Which of the following properties are found in clients with metastatic cancer? A. Tumors that are well encapsulated B. Tumors with slow, stable growth C. Cells that are genetically stable D. Cells the invading local tissue and overrunning neighboring cells.
88. Cardiomyopathy results in a thickened, hyperkinetic ventricular A. heart muscle B. Hypertrophic C. Dilated D. Restrictive Obstructive
89. Which of the following hormone plays role in decreasing blood glucose by facilitating glucose uptake into the cells? A. Glucagon B. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) C. Calcitonin D. Insulin