NUR-2251C Final Exam Questions With Answers 2023-2024 Graded A+ Success Assured, Exams of Nursing

Download NUR-2251C Final Exam Questions With Answers 2023-2024 Graded A+ Success Assured and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! a. Mechanism of injury NUR-2251C Final Exam Questions With Answers 2023-2024 Graded A+ Success Assured 1. An emergency department (ED) nurse is preparing to transfer a client to the trauma intensive care unit. Which information should the nurse include in the nurse-to-nurse hand-off report? (Select all that apply.) b. Diagnostic test results c. Immunizations d. List of home medications e. Isolation precautions ANS: A, B, E Hand-off communication should be comprehensive so that the receiving nurse can continue care for the client fluidly. Communication should be concise and should include only the most essential information for a safe transition in care. Hand-off communication should include the client’s situation (reason for being in the ED), brief medical history, assessment and diagnostic findings, Transmission-Based Precautions needed, interventions provided, and response to those interventions. 2. Primary goal of triage by the nurse in the emergency department with Emergency Department patients? a. Other choice b. Determine acuity of conditions and establish/prioritize care c. Other choice d. Assess ABC’s and deficits The correct answer is B; D is incorrect because the D in ABCDE stands for disability not deficits 3. An emergency room nurse is triaging victims of a multi-casualty event. Which client should receive care first? a. A 30-year-old distraught mother holding her crying child b. A 65-year-old conscious male with a head laceration c. A 26-year-old male who has pale, cool, clammy skin d. A 48-year-old with a simple fracture of the lower leg ANS: C The client with pale, cool, clammy skin is in shock and needs immediate medical attention. The mother does not have injuries and so would be the lowest priority. The other two people need medical attention soon, but not at the expense of a person in shock. 4. An emergency room nurse assesses a client who has been raped. With which health care team member should the nurse collaborate when planning this clients care? a. Emergency medicine physician b. Case manager c. Forensic nurse examiner d. Psychiatric crisis nurse ANS: C All other members of the health care team listed may be used in the management of this client’s care. However, the forensic nurse examiner is educated to obtain client histories and collect evidence dealing with the assault and can offer the counseling and follow-up needed when dealing with the victim of an assault. 5. The complex care provided during an emergency requires interdisciplinary collaboration. Which interdisciplinary team members are paired with the correct responsibilities? (Select all that apply.) a. Psychiatric crisis nurse Interacts with clients and families when sudden illness, serious injury, or death of a loved one may cause a crisis b. Forensic nurse examiner Performs rapid assessments to ensure clients with the highest acuity receive the quickest evaluation, treatment, and prioritization of resources c. Triage nurse Provides basic life support interventions such as oxygen, basic wound care, splinting, spinal immobilization, and monitoring of vital signs d. Emergency medical technician Obtains client histories, collects evidence, and offers counseling and follow- up care for victims of rape, child abuse, and domestic violence e. Paramedic Provides prehospital advanced life support, including cardiac monitoring, advanced airway management, and medication administration ANS: A, E The psychiatric crisis nurse evaluates clients with emotional behaviors or mental illness and facilitates follow- up treatment plans. The psychiatric crisis nurse also works with clients and families when experiencing a crisis. This practice helps to maintain the goal of triage, which is doing the most good for the most people. Precious resources are not used for those with overwhelming critical injury or illness, so that they can be allocated to others who have a reasonable expectation of survival. Clients are not sacrificed. Telling students to move on after identifying the expectant dead belittles their feelings and does not provide an adequate explanation. Clients are not black-tagged to allow volunteers to give comfort care. 10. A nurse wants to become part of a Disaster Medical Assistance Team (DMAT) but is concerned about maintaining licensure in several different states. Which statement best addresses these concerns? a. Deployed DMAT providers are federal employees, so their licenses are good in all 50 states. b. The government has a program for quick licensure activation wherever you are deployed. c. During a time of crisis, licensure issues would not be the governments priority concern. d. If you are deployed, you will be issued a temporary license in the state in which you are working. ANS: A When deployed, DMAT health care providers are acting as agents of the federal government, and so are considered federal employees. Thus their licenses are valid in all 50 states. Licensure is an issue that the government would be concerned with, but no programs for temporary licensure or rapid activation are available. 11. An emergency department charge nurse notes an increase in sick calls and bickering among the staff after a week with multiple trauma incidents. Which action should the nurse take? a. Organize a pizza party for each shift. b. Remind the staff of the facility’s sick-leave policy. c. Arrange for critical incident stress debriefing. d. Talk individually with staff members. ANS: C The staff may be suffering from critical incident stress and needs to have a debriefing by the critical incident stress management team to prevent the consequences of long-term, unabated stress. Speaking with staff members individually does not provide the same level of support as a group debriefing. Organizing a party and revisiting the sick-leave policy may be helpful but are not as important and beneficial as a debriefing. 12. Emergency medical services (EMS) brings a large number of clients to the emergency department following a mass casualty incident. The nurse identifies the clients with which injuries with yellow tags? (Select all that apply.) a. Partial-thickness burns covering both legs b. Open fractures of both legs with absent pedal pulses c. Neck injury and numbness of both legs d. Small pieces of shrapnel embedded in both eyes e. Head injury and difficult to arouse f. Bruising and pain in the right lower abdomen ANS: A, C, D, F Clients with burns, spine injuries, eye injuries, and stable abdominal injuries should be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours, and therefore should be identified with yellow tags. The client with the open fractures and the client with the head injury would be classified as urgent with red tags. 13. A hospital responds to a local mass casualty event. Which action should the nurse supervisor take to prevent staff post-traumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event? a. Provide water and healthy snacks for energy throughout the event. b. Schedule 16-hour shifts to allow for greater rest between shifts. c. Encourage counseling upon deactivation of the emergency response plan. d. Assign staff to different roles and units within the medical facility. ANS: A To prevent staff post-traumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event, the nurses should use available counseling, encourage and support co-workers, monitor each other’s stress level and performance, take breaks when needed, talk about feelings with staff and managers, and drink plenty of water and eat healthy snacks for energy. Nurses should also keep in touch with family, friends, and significant others, and not work for more than 12 hours per day. Encouraging counseling upon deactivation of the plan, or after the emergency response is over, does not prevent stress during the casualty event. Assigning staff to unfamiliar roles or units may increase situational stress and is not an approach to prevent post-traumatic stress disorder. 14. A hospital prepares for a mass casualty event. Which functions are correctly paired with the personnel role? (Select all that apply.) a. Paramedic Decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients b. Hospital incident commander Assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan c. Public information officer Provides advanced life support during transportation to the hospital d. Triage officer Rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment e. Medical command physician Serves as a liaison between the health care facility and the media ANS: B, D The hospital incident commander assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan. The triage officer rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment. The paramedic provides advanced life support during transportation to the hospital. The public information officer serves as a liaison between the health care facility and the media. The medical command physician decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients. 15. A client who is hospitalized with burns after losing the family home in a fire becomes angry and screams at a nurse when dinner is served late. How should the nurse respond? a. Do you need something for pain right now? b. Please stop yelling. I brought dinner as soon as I could. c. I suggest that you get control of yourself. d. You seem upset. I have time to talk if you’d like. ANS: D Clients should be allowed to ventilate their feelings of anger and despair after a catastrophic event. The nurse establishes rapport through active listening and honest communication and by recognizing cues that the client wishes to talk. Asking whether the client is in pain as the first response closes the door to open communication and limits the client’s options. Simply telling the client to stop yelling and to gain control does nothing to promote therapeutic communication. 16. A nurse triages clients arriving at the hospital after a mass casualty. Which clients are correctly classified? (Select all that apply.) a. A 35-year-old female with severe chest pain: red tag b. A 42-year-old male with full-thickness body burns: green tag c. A 55-year-old female with a scalp laceration: black tag ANS: D Fever and chills indicate systemic toxicity, which can lead to hemolytic reactions, kidney failure, pulmonary edema, cardiovascular collapse, and death. Assessing for a fever should be the nurse’s priority. All other symptoms are normal for a brown recluse bite and should be assessed, but they do not provide information about complications from the bite, and therefore are not the priority. 21. While on a camping trip, a nurse cares for an adult client who had a drowning incident in a lake and is experiencing agonal breathing with a palpable pulse. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Deliver rescue breaths. b. Wrap the client in dry blankets. c. Assess for signs of bleeding. d. Check for a carotid pulse. ANS: A In this emergency situation, the nurse should immediately initiate airway clearance and ventilator support measures, including delivering rescue breaths. 22. An emergency department nurse moves to a new city where heat-related illnesses are common. Which clients does the nurse anticipate being at higher risk for heat-related illnesses? (Select all that apply.) a. Homeless individuals b. Illicit drug users c. White people d. Hockey players e. Older adults ANS: A, B, E Some of the most vulnerable, at-risk populations for heat-related illness include older adults; blacks (more than whites); people who work outside, such as construction and agricultural workers (more men than women); homeless people; illicit drug users (especially cocaine users); outdoor athletes (recreational and professional); and members of the military who are stationed in countries with hot climates (e.g., Iraq, Afghanistan). 23. A nurse assesses a client recently bitten by a coral snake. Which assessment should the nurse complete first? a. Unilateral peripheral swelling b. Clotting times c. Cardiopulmonary status d. Electrocardiogram rhythm ANS: C Manifestations of coral snake envenomation are the result of its neurotoxic properties. The physiologic effect is to block neurotransmission, which produces ascending paralysis, reduced perception of pain, and, ultimately, respiratory paralysis. The nurse should monitor for respiratory rate and depth. Severe swelling and clotting problems do not occur with coral snakes but do occur with pit viper snakes. Electrocardiogram rhythm is not affected by neurotoxins 24. A nurse caring for a client notes the following assessments: white blood cell count 3800/mm3, blood glucose level 198 mg/dL, and temperature 96.2 F (35.6 C). What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Document the findings in the client’s chart. b. Give the client warmed blankets for comfort. c. Notify the health care provider immediately. d. Prepare to administer insulin per sliding scale. ANS: C This client has several indicators of sepsis with systemic inflammatory response. The nurse should notify the HCP immediately. Documentation needs to be thorough but does not take priority. The client may appreciate warm blankets, but comfort measures do not take priority. The client may or may not need insulin. 25. A client in shock has been started on dopamine. What assessment finding requires the nurse to communicate with the provider immediately? a. Blood pressure of 98/68 mm Hg b. Pedal pulses 1+/4+ bilaterally c. Report of chest heaviness d. Urine output of 32 mL/hr ANS: C Chest heaviness or pain indicates myocardial ischemia, a possible adverse effect of dopamine. While taking dopamine, the oxygen requirements of the heart are increased due to increased myocardial workload, and may cause ischemia. Without knowing the clients previous blood pressure or pedal pulses, there is not enough information to determine if these are an improvement or not. A urine output of 32 mL/hr is acceptable. 26. A patient has had a myocardial infarction with HR changed from 88 to 110 and BP changed from 120/82 to 100/60. What does the nurse do next? a. Assess for bleeding b. Document vital signs in chart c. Medicate for pain d. Allow patient to rest 27. A nurse is caring for a client after surgery who is restless and apprehensive. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports the vital signs and the nurse sees they are only slightly different from previous readings. What action does the nurse delegate next to the UAP? a. Assess the client for pain or discomfort. b. Measure urine output from the catheter. c. Reposition the client to the unaffected side. d. Stay with the client and reassure him or her. ANS: B Urine output changes are a sensitive early indicator of shock. The nurse should delegate emptying the urinary catheter and measuring output to the UAP as a baseline for hourly urine output measurements. The UAP cannot assess for pain. Repositioning may or may not be effective for decreasing restlessness, but does not take priority over physical assessments. Reassurance is a therapeutic nursing action, but the nurse needs to do more in this situation. 28. (Same as 24 above) 29. A nurse is caring for several clients at risk for shock. Which laboratory value requires the nurse to communicate with the health care provider? a. Creatinine: 0.9 mg/dL makes them prone to dehydration. Having older adults drink fluids on a regular schedule will help keep them hydrated without the influence of thirst (or lack of thirst). Telling clients not to get dehydrated is important, but not the best answer because it doesn’t give them the tools to prevent it from occurring. Older adults should seek attention for lacerations, but this is not as important an issue as staying hydrated. Taking medications as prescribed may or may not be related to hydration 33. The nurse is caring for a client with suspected severe sepsis. What does the nurse prepare to do within 3 hours of the client being identified as being at risk? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer antibiotics. b. Draw serum lactate levels. c. Infuse vasopressors. d. Measure central venous pressure. e. Obtain blood cultures. ANS: A, B, E Within the first 3 hours of suspecting severe sepsis, the nurse should draw (or facilitate) serum lactate levels, obtain blood cultures (or other cultures), and administer antibiotics (after the cultures have been obtained). Infusing vasopressors and measuring central venous pressure are actions that should occur within the first 6 hours. 34. A nurse reviews the following data in the chart of a client with burn injuries: Admission Notes: 36-year-old female with bilateral leg burns NKDA Health history of asthma and seasonal allergies Wound Assessment: Bilateral leg burns present with a white and leather-like appearance. No blisters or bleeding present. Client rates pain 2/10 on a scale of 0- 10. Based on the data provided, how should the nurse categorize this clients injuries? a. Partial-thickness deep b. Partial-thickness superficial c. Full thickness d. Superficial ANS: C The characteristics of the client’s wounds meet the criteria for a full-thickness injury: color that is black, brown, yellow, white, or red; no blisters; minimal pain; and firm and inelastic outer layer. Partial-thickness superficial burns appear pink to red and are painful. Partial-thickness deep burns are deep red to white and painful. Superficial burns are pink to red and are also painful. 35. Dose calc : An emergency room nurse implements fluid replacement for a client with severe burn injuries. The provider prescribes a liter of 0.9% normal saline to infuse over 1 hour and 30 minutes via gravity tubing with a drip factor of 30 drops/mL. At what rate should the nurse administer the infusion? (Record your answer using a whole number and rounding to the nearest drop.) drops/min ANS: 333 drops/min 1000 mL divided by 90 minutes, then multiplied by 30 drops, equals 333 drops/min. 36. A nurse reviews the laboratory results for a client who was burned 24 hours ago. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately? a. Arterial pH: 7.32 b. Hematocrit: 52% c. Serum potassium: 6.5 mEq/L d. Serum sodium: 131 mEq/L ANS: C The serum potassium level is changed to the degree that serious life-threatening responses could result. With such a rapid rise in potassium level, the client is at high risk for experiencing severe cardiac dysrhythmias and death. All the other findings are abnormal but do not show the same degree of severity; they would be expected in the emergent phase after a burn injury. 37. A nurse cares for a client who has facial burns. The client asks, Will I ever look the same? How should the nurse respond? a. With reconstructive surgery, you can look the same. b. We can remove the scars with the use of a pressure dressing. c. You will not look exactly the same but cosmetic surgery will help. d. You shouldn’t start worrying about your appearance right now. ANS: C Many clients have unrealistic expectations of reconstructive surgery and envision an appearance identical or equal in quality to the pre-burn state. The nurse should provide accurate information that includes something to hope for. Pressure dressings prevent further scarring; they cannot remove scars. The client and the family should be taught the expected cosmetic outcomes. 38. A nurse assesses a client who has burn injuries and notes crackles in bilateral lung bases, a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, and a productive cough with blood-tinged sputum. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Administer furosemide (Lasix). b. Perform chest physiotherapy. c. Document and reassess in an hour. d. Place the client in an upright position. ANS: D Pulmonary edema can result from fluid resuscitation given for burn treatment. This can occur even in a young healthy person. Placing the client in an upright position can relieve lung congestion immediately before other measures can be carried out. Although Lasix may be used to treat pulmonary edema in clients who are fluid overloaded, a client with a burn injury will lose a significant amount of fluid through the broken skin; therefore, Lasix would not be appropriate. Chest physiotherapy will not get rid of fluid. 39. The nurse teaches burn prevention to a community group. Which statement by a member of the group should cause the nurse the greatest concern? a. I get my chimney swept every other year. b. My hot water heater is set at 120 degrees. c. Sometimes I wake up at night and smoke. d. I use a space heater when it gets below zero. ANS: C House fires are a common occurrence and often lead to serious injury or death. The nurse should be most concerned about a person who wakes up at night and smokes. The nurse needs to question this person about whether he or she gets out of bed to do so, or if this person stays in bed, which could lead to falling back asleep with a lighted cigarette. Although it is recommended to have chimneys swept every year, skipping a b. 18% c. 27% d. 36% ANS: C According to the rule of nines, the posterior trunk, anterior trunk, and legs each make up 18% of the total body surface. The head, neck, and arms each make up 9% of total body surface, and the perineum makes up 1%. In this case, the client received burns to the back (18%) and one arm (9%), totaling 27% of the body. 45. A nurse cares for a client with burn injuries from a house fire. The client is not consistently oriented and reports a headache. Which action should the nurse take? a. Increase the client’s oxygen and obtain blood gases. b. Draw blood for a carboxyhemoglobin level. c. Increase the client’s intravenous fluid rate. d. Perform a thorough Mini-Mental State Examination. ANS: B These manifestations are consistent with moderated carbon monoxide poisoning. This client is at risk for carbon monoxide poisoning because he or she was in a fire in an enclosed space. The other options will not provide information related to carbon monoxide poisoning. 46. Dose calc 47. Dose calc 48. Dose calcDose calc 49. Dose calc Exam 2 1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy tube. What actions may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Applying water-soluble lip balm to the clients lips b. Ensuring the humidification provided is adequate c. Performing oral care with alcohol-based mouthwash d. Reminding the client to cough and deep breathe often e. Suctioning excess secretions through the tracheostomy ANS: A, D The UAP can perform hygiene measures such as applying lip balm and reinforce teaching such as reminding the client to perform coughing and deep-breathing exercises. Oral care can be accomplished with normal saline, not products that dry the mouth. 2. A client with a new tracheostomy is being seen in the oncology clinic. What finding by the nurse best indicates that goals for the nursing diagnosis Impaired Self-Esteem are being met? a. The client demonstrates good understanding of stoma care. b. The client has joined a book club that meets at the library. c. Family members take turns assisting with stoma care. d. Skin around the stoma is intact without signs of infection. ANS: B The client joining a book club that meets outside the home and requires him or her to go out in public is the best sign that goals for Impaired Self-Esteem are being met. The other findings are all positive signs but do not relate to this nursing diagnosis. 3. A client is receiving oxygen at 4 liters per nasal cannula. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips. b. Periodically turn the oxygen down or off. c. Remove the tubing from the client’s nose. d. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed. ANS: A Oxygen can be drying, so the UAP can apply water-soluble lubricant to the clients lips and nares. The UAP should not adjust the oxygen flow rate or remove the tubing. Turning the client is not related to comfort measures for oxygen. 4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) was feeding a client with a tracheostomy. Later that evening, the UAP reports that the client had a coughing spell during the meal. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Assess the client’s lung sounds. b. Assign a different UAP to the client. c. Report the UAP to the manager. d. Request thicker liquids for meals. ANS: A The priority is to check the clients oxygenation because he or she may have aspirated. Once the client has been assessed, the nurse can consult with the registered dietitian about appropriately thickened liquids. The UAP should have reported the incident immediately, but addressing that issue is not the immediate priority. 5. A student is practicing suctioning a tracheostomy in the skills laboratory. What action by the student demonstrates that more teaching is needed? a. Applying suction while inserting the catheter b. Preoxygenating the client prior to suctioning c. Suctioning for a total of three times if needed d. Suctioning for only 10 to 15 seconds each time ANS: A Suction should only be applied while withdrawing the catheter. The other actions are appropriate. 6. The nurse assesses the client using the device pictured below to deliver 50% O2: (no image loaded but the rationale indicates that this is a Venturi mask) The nurse finds the mask fits snugly, the skin under the mask and straps is intact, and the flow rate of the oxygen is 3 L/min. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the clients oxygen saturation. b. Document these findings in the chart. c. Immediately increase the flow rate. d. Turn the flow rate down to 2 L/min. ANS: C For the Venturi mask to deliver high flow of oxygen, the flow rate must be set correctly, usually between 4 and 10 L/min. The clients flow rate is too low and the nurse should increase it. After increasing the flow rate, the nurse assesses the oxygen saturation and documents the findings. throat for bleeding. The nurse should also note whether the client is swallowing frequently because this could indicate postnasal bleeding. A nasal steroid would increase the risk for infection. It is too soon to change the packing, which should be changed by the surgeon the first time. 12. Neck cancer risks? Select all that apply a. Persistent weight gain over past 2 months b. Pain that decreases if drinking grapefruit juice c. Oral mucosa are gray/brown d. Oral lesion > 2 weeks e. Change in voice quality i. See Table 29-1, pg. 548 13. A nurse assesses a client who has facial trauma. Which assessment findings require immediate intervention? (Select all that apply.) a. Stridor b. Nasal stuffiness c. Edema of the cheek d. Ecchymosis behind the ear e. Eye pain f. Swollen chin ANS: A, D Stridor is a sign of airway obstruction and requires immediate intervention. Ecchymosis, or bruising, behind the ear is called battle sign and indicates basilar skull fracture. Nasal stuffiness, edema of the cheek or chin, and eye pain do not interfere with respirations or neurologic function, and therefore are not priorities for immediate intervention. 14. A nurse cares for a client who has packing inserted for posterior nasal bleeding. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess the client’s pain level. b. Keep the client’s head elevated. c. Teach the client about the causes of nasal bleeding. d. Make sure the string is taped to the client’s cheek. ANS: D The string should be attached to the client’s cheek to hold the packing in place. The nurse needs to make sure that this does not move because it can occlude the client’s airway. The other options are good interventions, but ensuring that the airway is patent is the priority objective. 15. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for development of obstructive sleep apnea? a. A 26-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant b. A 42-year-old man with gastroesophageal reflux disease c. A 55-year-old woman who is 50 pounds overweight d. A 73-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus ANS: C The client at highest risk would be the one who is extremely overweight. None of the other clients have risk factors for sleep apnea. 16. While assessing a client who has facial trauma, the nurse auscultates stridor. The client is anxious and restless. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Contact the provider and prepare for intubation. b. Administer prescribed albuterol nebulizer therapy. c. Place the client in high-Fowlers position. d. Ask the client to perform deep-breathing exercises. ANS: A Facial and neck tissue edema can occur in clients with facial trauma. Airway patency is the highest priority. Clients who experience stridor and hypoxia, manifested by anxiety and restlessness, should be immediately intubated to ensure airway patency. Albuterol decreases bronchi and bronchiole inflammation, not facial and neck edema. Although putting the client in high-Fowlers position and asking the client to perform breathing exercises may temporarily improve the client’s comfort, these actions will not decrease the underlying problem or improve airway patency. 17. A patient with epistaxis recent nasal package removed – correct teaching is understood. Select all that apply. a. Wait one month before resume weight lifting b. Normal saline sprays prevent a rebleed c. Vigorous nose blowing several times a day d. Petroleum jelly to nares e. Ibuprofen is okay to take i. See page 558…. Avoid NSAIDs and avoid vigorously blowing nose 18. A nurse assesses a client who reports waking up feeling very tired, even after 8 hours of good sleep. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Contact the provider for a prescription for sleep medication. b. Tell the client not to drink beverages with caffeine before bed. c. Educate the client to sleep upright in a reclining chair. d. Ask the client if he or she has ever been evaluated for sleep apnea. ANS: D Clients are usually unaware that they have sleep apnea, but it should be suspected in people who have persistent daytime sleepiness and report waking up tired. Causes of the problem should be assessed before the client is offered suggestions for treatment. 19. A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing epistaxis. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate Standard Precautions. b. Apply direct pressure. c. Sit the client upright. d. Loosely pack the nares with gauze. ANS: A The nurse should implement Standard Precautions and don gloves prior to completing the other actions. 20. A nurse is assessing a client who has suffered a nasal fracture. Which assessment should the nurse perform first? a. Facial pain b. Vital signs c. Bone water each day. An intravenous line may be ordered later, after the clients degree of dehydration is assessed. An electrocardiogram is not necessary at this time. 24. A client is recovering from a kidney transplant. The clients urine output was 1500 mL over the last 12- hour period since transplantation. What is the priority assessment by the nurse? a. Checking skin turgor b. Taking blood pressure c. Assessing lung sounds d. Weighing the client ANS: B By taking blood pressure, the nurse is assessing for hypotension that could compromise perfusion to the new kidney. The nurse then should notify the provider immediately. Skin turgor, lung sounds, and weight could give information about the fluid status of the client, but they are not the priority assessment. 25. A client is assessed by the nurse after a hemodialysis session. The nurse notes bleeding from the clients nose and around the intravenous catheter. What action by the nurse is the priority? a. Hold pressure over the clients nose for 10 minutes. b. Take the clients pulse, blood pressure, and temperature. c. Assess for a bruit or thrill over the arteriovenous fistula. d. Prepare protamine sulfate for administration. ANS: D Heparin is used with hemodialysis treatments. The bleeding alerts the nurse that too much anticoagulant is in the client’s system and protamine sulfate should be administered. Pressure, taking vital signs, and assessing for a bruit or thrill are not as important as medication administration. 26. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a dose of cefazolin and vitamins at this time. Hemodialysis for this client is also scheduled in 60 minutes. Which action by the nurse is best? a. Administer cefazolin since the level of the antibiotic must be maintained. b. Hold the vitamins but administer the cefazolin. c. Hold the cefazolin but administer the vitamins. d. Hold all medications since both cefazolin and vitamins are dialyzable. ANS: D Both the cefazolin and the vitamins should be held until after the hemodialysis is completed because they would otherwise be removed by the dialysis process. 27. The nurse is caring for five clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which clients would the nurse consider to be at risk for post-renal acute kidney injury (AKI)? (Select all that apply.) a. Man with prostate cancer b. Woman with blood clots in the urinary tract c. Client with ureterolithiasis d. Firefighter with severe burns e. Young woman with lupus ANS: A, B, C Urine flow obstruction, such as prostate cancer, blood clots in the urinary tract, and kidney stones (ureterolithiasis), causes post-renal AKI. Severe burns would be a pre-renal cause. Lupus would be an intrarenal cause for AKI. 28. A client is undergoing hemodialysis. The clients blood pressure at the beginning of the procedure was 136/88 mm Hg, and now it is 110/54 mm Hg. What actions should the nurse perform to maintain blood pressure? (Select all that apply.) a. Adjust the rate of extracorporeal blood flow. b. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position. c. Stop the hemodialysis treatment. d. Administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline. e. Contact the health care provider for orders. ANS: A, B, D Hypotension occurs often during hemodialysis treatments as a result of vasodilation from the warmed dialysate. Modest decreases in blood pressure, as is the case with this client, can be maintained with rate adjustment, Trendelenburg positioning, and a fluid bolus. If the blood pressure drops considerably after two boluses and cooling dialysate, the hemodialysis can be stopped and the health care provider contacted. 29. The charge nurse is orienting a float nurse to an assigned client with an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis in her left arm. Which action by the float nurse would be considered unsafe? a. Palpating the access site for a bruit or thrill b. Using the right arm for a blood pressure reading c. Administering intravenous fluids through the AV fistula d. Checking distal pulses in the left arm ANS: C The nurse should not use the arm with the AV fistula for intravenous infusion, blood pressure readings, or venipuncture. Compression and infection can result in the loss of the AV fistula. The AV fistula should be monitored by auscultating or palpating the access site. Checking the distal pulse would be an appropriate assessment. 30. A client is taking furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg/day for management of chronic kidney disease (CKD). To detect the positive effect of the medication, what action of the nurse is best? a. Obtain daily weights of the client. b. Auscultate heart and breath sounds. c. Palpate the client’s abdomen. d. Assess the clients diet history. ANS: A Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload and hypertension in clients with early stages of CKD. One kilogram of weight equals about 1 liter of fluid retained in the client, so daily weights are necessary to monitor the response of the client to the medication. Heart and breath sounds should be assessed if there is fluid retention, as in heart failure. Palpation of the client’s abdomen is not necessary, but the nurse should check for edema. The diet history of the client would be helpful to assess electrolyte replacement since potassium is lost with this diuretic, but this does not assess the effect of the medication. 31. A male client comes into the emergency department with a serum creatinine of 2.2 mg/dL and a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 24 mL/dL. What question should the nurse ask first when taking this client’s history? a. Have you been taking any aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen recently? 36. A client is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD). What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema? a. Maintaining oxygen saturation of 89% b. Minimal crackles and wheezes in lung sounds c. Maintaining a balanced intake and output d. Limited shortness of breath upon exertion ANS: C With an optimal fluid balance, the client will be more able to eject blood from the left ventricle without increased pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. Other ideal goals are oxygen saturations greater than 92%, no auscultated crackles or wheezes, and no demonstrated shortness of breath. 37. The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding? a. Woman with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg b. Client with Kussmaul respirations c. Man with skin itching from head to toe d. Client with halitosis and stomatitis ANS: B Kussmaul respirations indicate a worsening of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs. Hypertension is common in most clients with CKD, and skin itching increases with calcium-phosphate imbalances, another common finding in CKD. Uremia from CKD causes ammonia to be formed, resulting in the common findings of halitosis and stomatitis. 38. A client with chronic kidney disease states, I feel chained to the hemodialysis machine. What is the nurse’s best response to the client’s statement? a. That feeling will gradually go away as you get used to the treatment. b. You probably need to see a psychiatrist to see if you are depressed. c. Do you need help from social services to discuss financial aid? d. Tell me more about your feelings regarding hemodialysis treatment. ANS: D The nurse needs to explore the client’s feelings in order to help the client cope and enter a phase of acceptance or resignation. It is common for clients to be discouraged because of the dependency of the treatment, especially during the first year. Referrals to a mental health provider or social services are possibilities, but only after exploring the client’s feelings first. Telling the client his or her feelings will go away is dismissive of the client’s concerns. 39. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse? a. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him. b. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner. c. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time. d. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis. ANS: A The initial action for the nurse is to assess anxiety, coping styles, and the client’s acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments may help, and referral to a mental health practitioner and the possibility of peritoneal dialysis are all viable options, assessment of the client’s acceptance of the treatment should come first. 40. The nurse is teaching the main principles of hemodialysis to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse? a. My sodium level changes by movement from the blood into the dialysate. b. Dialysis works by movement of wastes from lower to higher concentration. c. Extra fluid can be pulled from the blood by osmosis. d. The dialysate is similar to blood but without any toxins. ANS: B Dialysis works using the passive transfer of toxins by diffusion. Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. The other statements show a correct understanding about hemodialysis. 41. Dose calc 42. Dose calc 43. Dose calc 44. Dose calc 45. Dose calc 46. Which of the following is a type of pre-renal acute kidney injury? a. Dehydration see Table 68-4, pg 1392 b. Other choices are post-renal 47. Low abd pain and hematuria – assess for history of _? a. Renal cancer in the family b. Pyelonephritis c. Glomerulonephritis d. Trauma to bladder/abdomen 48. AKI and patient has potassium level of 6.0. how to proceed? a. Put pt on cardiac monitor 49. Which of the following best indicates that the AV fistula on the left arm is patent prior to hemodialysis? a. Radial pulse in Lt wrist b. Absent bruit on auscultation c. Palpation of a thrill over the fistula d. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds in nail beds of fingers on Lt hand 50. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to see in a patient with end-stage chronic renal failure? Select all that apply. a. BUN 10 b. Creatinine 1.0 c. Hgb 10 d. Phosphorus 5.5 e. Calcium 7.4 I have no idea what the correct answer is, but I picked phosphorus & calcium time frame of 0700 administration 6. A preoperative nurse assesses a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus prior to a surgical procedure. The client’s blood glucose level is 160 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take? a.Document the finding in the client’s chart. b.Administer a bolus of regular insulin IV. c.Call the surgeon to cancel the procedure. d.Draw blood gases to assess the metabolic state. ANS: A Clients who have type 1 diabetes and are having surgery have been found to have fewer complications, lower rates of infection, and better wound healing if blood glucose levels are maintained at between 140 and 180 mg/dL throughout the perioperative period. The nurse should document the finding & proceed w/other operative care. The need for bolus of insulin, canceling the procedure, or drawing ABGs is not required. 7. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with diabetes mellitus who presents with polyuria, lethargy, and a blood glucose of 560 mg/dL. Which laboratory result should the nurse correlate with the client’s polyuria? a.Serum sodium: 163 mEq/L b.Serum creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL c.Presence of urine ketone bodies d.Serum osmolarity: 375 mOsm/kg ANS: D Hyperglycemia causes hyperosmolarity of extracellular fluid. This leads to polyuria from an osmotic diuresis. The client’s serum osmolarity is high. The client’s sodium would be expected to be high owing to dehydration. Serum creatinine and urine ketone bodies are not related to the polyuria . 8. After teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? a. “I should increase my intake of vegetables with higher amounts of dietary fiber.” b.“My intake of saturated fats should be no more than 10% of my total calorie intake.” c.“I should decrease my intake of protein and eliminate carbohydrates from my diet.” d.“My intake of water is not restricted by my treatment plan or medication regimen.” ANS: C The client should not completely eliminate carbohydrates from the diet, and should reduce protein if microalbuminuria is present. The client should increase dietary intake of complex carbohydrates, including vegetables, and decrease intake of fat. Water does not need to be restricted unless kidney failure is present. 9. A nurse cares for a client experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis who presents with Kussmaul respirations. Which action should the nurse take? a. Administration of oxygen via face mask b. Intravenous administration of 10% glucose c. Implementation of seizure precautions d. Administration of intravenous insulin ANS: D The rapid, deep respiratory efforts of Kussmaul respirations are the body’s attempt to reduce the acids produced by using fat rather than glucose for fuel. Only the administration of insulin will reduce this type of respiration by assisting glucose to move into cells and to be used for fuel instead of fat. The client who is in ketoacidosis may not experience any respiratory impairment and therefore does not need additional oxygen. Giving the client glucose would be contraindicated. The client does not require seizure precautions. 10. After teaching a client who is recovering from pancreas transplantation, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional education ? a.“If I develop an infection, I should stop taking my corticosteroid.” b.“If I have pain over the transplant site, I will call the surgeon immediately.” c. “I should avoid people who are ill or who have an infection.” d.“I should take my cyclosporine exactly the way I was taught.” ANS: A Immunosuppressive agents should not be stopped without the consultation of the transplantation physician, even if an infection is present. Stopping immunosuppressive therapy endangers the transplanted organ. The other statements are correct. Pain over the graft site may indicate rejection. Anti- rejection drugs cause immunosuppression, and the client should avoid crowds and people who are ill. Changing the routine of anti-rejection medications may cause them to not work optimally. 11. A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who asks, “Why do I need to administer more than one injection of insulin each day?” How should the nurse respond? a. “You need to start with multiple injections until you become more proficient at self-injection.” b. “A single dose of insulin each day would not match your blood insulin levels and your food intake patterns.” c. “A regimen of a single dose of insulin injected each day would require that you eat fewer carbohydrates.” d. “A single dose of insulin would be too large to be absorbed, predictably putting you at risk for insulin shock.” ANS: B Even when a single injection of insulin contains a combined dose of different-acting insulin types, the timing of the actions and the timing of food intake may not match well enough to prevent wide variations in blood glucose levels. One dose of insulin would not be appropriate even if the client decreased carbohydrate intake. Additional Blood pressure: 90/62 mm Hg Pulse: 120 beats/min Respiratory rate: 28 breaths/min Urine output: 20 mL/hr via catheter Results Serum potassium: 2.6 mEq/LPotassium chloride 40 mEq IV bolus STAT Increase IV fluid to 100 mL/hr Which action should the nurse take? a.Administer the potassium and then consult with the provider about the fluid order. b Increase the intravenous rate and then consult with the provider about the potassium prescription. . c.Administer the potassium first before increasing the infusion flow rate. d Increase the intravenous flow rate before administering the potassium. . ANS: B The client is acutely ill and is severely dehydrated and hypokalemic. The client requires more IV fluids and potassium. However, potassium should not be infused unless the urine output is at least 30 mL/hr. The nurse should first increase the IV rate and then consult with the provider about the potassium. 17. A nurse teaches a client who is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care to delay the onset of microvascular and macrovascular complications? a. “Maintain tight glycemic control and prevent hyperglycemia.” b.“Restrict your fluid intake to no more than 2 liters a day.” c.“Prevent hypoglycemia by eating a bedtime snack.” d.“Limit your intake of protein to prevent ketoacidosis.” ANS: A Hyperglycemia is a critical factor in the pathogenesis of long-term diabetic complications. Maintaining tight glycemic control will help delay the onset of complications. Restricting fluid intake is not part of the treatment plan for clients with diabetes. Preventing hypoglycemia and ketosis, although important, are not as important as maintaining daily glycemic control. 18. A nurse is caring for a patient with metabolic syndrome. What assessment findings would the nurse expect to find in the patient’s medical history? Select all that apply. a. Fasting BG > 130 b. Triglycerides 130 c. HDL 30 d. Lisinopril 10mg QD e. BP 152/88 I put A, C, D, and E, but I don’t know what’s correct for sure. See Ch 64, pg 1287 19. A nurse cares for a client who is diagnosed with acute rejection 2 months after receiving a simultaneous pancreas-kidney transplant. The client states, “I was doing so well with my new organs, and the thought of having to go back to living on hemodialysis and taking insulin is so depressing.” How should nurse respond? a. “Following the drug regimen more closely would have prevented this.” b.“One acute rejection episode does not mean that you will lose the new organs.” c. “Dialysis is a viable treatment option for you and may save your life.” d.“Since you are on the national registry, you can receive a second transplantation.” ANS: B An episode of acute rejection does not automatically mean that the client will lose the transplant. Pharmacologic manipulation of host immune responses at this time can limit damage to the organ and allow the graft to be maintained. The other statements either belittle the client or downplay his or her concerns. The client may not be a candidate for additional organ transplantation. 20. A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed an insulin pump. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s discharge education? a. “Test your urine daily for ketones.” b. “Use only buffered insulin in your pump.” c. “Store the insulin in the freezer until you need it.” d. “Change the needle every 3 days.” ANS: D Having the same needle remain in place through the skin for longer than 3 days drastically increases the risk for infection in or through the delivery system. Having an insulin pump does not require the client to test for on the information provided, this is not the priority. The client will not be reoriented until the glucose level rises. 24. When teaching a client recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the client states, “I will never be able to stick myself with a needle.” How should the nurse respond? a.“I can give your injections to you while you are here in the hospital.” b.“Everyone gets used to giving themselves injections. It really does not hurt.” c.“Your disease will not be managed properly if you refuse to administer the shots.” d.“Tell me what it is about the injections that are concerning you.” ANS: D Devote as much teaching time as possible to insulin injection and blood glucose monitoring. Clients with newly diagnosed diabetes are often fearful of giving themselves injections. If the client is worried about giving the injections, it is best to try to find out what specifically is causing the concern, so it can be addressed. Giving the injections for the client does not promote self-care ability. Telling the client that others give themselves injections may cause the client to feel bad. Stating that you don’t know another way to manage the disease is dismissive of the client’s concerns. 25. After teaching a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is prescribed nateglinide (Starlix), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the prescribed therapy? a. “I’ll take this medicine during each of my meals.” b.“I must take this medicine in the morning when I wake.” c. “I will take this medicine before I go to bed.” d.“I will take this medicine immediately before I eat.” ANS: D Nateglinide is an insulin secretagogue that is designed to increase meal-related insulin secretion. It should be taken immediately before each meal. The medication should not be taken without eating as it will decrease the client’s blood glucose levels. The medication should be taken before meals instead of during meals. 26. SIMILAR TO THIS QUESTION, BUT SEE BELOW FOR HOW IT ACTUALLY APPEARED ON MY EXAM A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing numbness and reduced sensation. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching to prevent injury? a. “Examine your feet using a mirror every day.” b. “Rotate your insulin injection sites every week.” c. “Check your blood glucose level before each meal.” d. “Use a bath thermometer to test the water temperature.” ANS: D Clients with diminished sensory perception can easily experience a burn injury when bathwater is too hot. Instead of checking the temperature of the water by feeling it, they should use a thermometer. Examining the feet daily does not prevent injury, although daily foot examinations are important to find problems so they can be addressed. Rotating insulin and checking blood glucose levels will not prevent injury. ON MY EXAM: THE QUESTION SAID “WHICH PATIENT STATEMENT INDICATES A NEED FOR FURTHER TEACHING? A) WILL USE A HEATING PAD WHEN IT’S PAINFUL, THIS PT HAS DECREASED SENSATION, SO A HEATING PAD (EVEN THOUGH IT MIGHT ALLEVIATE PAIN) COULD LEAD TO ACCIDENTAL BURNS. See chart 64- 6, p. 1307 B) WILL USE A BATH THERMOMETER C) WILL EXAMINE FEET IN MIRROR EVERY DAY, D) WILL CHECK BG AC 27. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed an intensified insulin regimen: • Fasting blood glucose: 75 mg/dL • Postprandial blood glucose: 200 mg/dL • Hemoglobin A1c level: 5.5% How should the nurse interpret these laboratory findings? a.Increased risk for developing ketoacidosis b.Good control of blood glucose c.Increased risk for developing hyperglycemia d.Signs of insulin resistance ANS: B The client is maintaining blood glucose levels within the defined ranges for goals in an intensified regimen. Because the client’s glycemic control is good, he or she is not at higher risk for ketoacidosis or hyperglycemia and is not showing signs of insulin resistance. 28. A nurse assesses a client who is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). For which manifestations should the nurse monitor the client? (Select all that apply.) a.Deep and fast respirations b.Decreased urine output c.Tachycardia d.Dependent pulmonary crackles e.Orthostatic hypotension ANS: A, C, E DKA leads to dehydration, which is manifested by tachycardia and orthostatic hypotension. Usually clients have Kussmaul respirations, which are fast and deep. Increased urinary output (polyuria) is severe. Because of diuresis and dehydration, peripheral edema and crackles do not occur. 29. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with ketoacidosis. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse correlate with this condition? a. Increased rate and depth of respiration b.Extremity tremors followed by seizure activity c.Oral temperature of 102° F (38.9° C) d.Severe orthostatic hypotension ANS: A Ketoacidosis decreases the pH of the blood, stimulating the respiratory control areas of the brain to readings. What action does the nurse delegate next to the UAP? a. Assess the client for pain or discomfort. b. Measure urine output from the catheter. c. Reposition the client to the unaffected side. d. Stay with the client and reassure him or her. ANS: B Urine output changes are a sensitive early indicator of shock. The nurse should delegate emptying the urinary catheter and measuring output to the UAP as a baseline for hourly urine output measurements. The UAP cannot assess for pain. Repositioning may or may not be effective for decreasing restlessness, but does not take priority over physical assessments. Reassurance is a therapeutic nursing action, but the nurse needs to do more in this situation 35. A client is receiving norepinephrine (Levophed) for shock. What assessment finding best indicates a therapeutic effect from this drug? a. Alert and oriented, answering questions b. Client denial of chest pain or chest pressure c. IV site without redness or swelling d. Urine output of 30 mL/hr for 2 hours ANS: A Normal cognitive function is a good indicator that the client is receiving the benefits of norepinephrine. The brain is very sensitive to changes in oxygenation and perfusion. Norepinephrine can cause chest pain as an adverse reaction, so the absence of chest pain does not indicate therapeutic effect. The IV site is normal. The urine output is normal, but only minimally so. 36. A client is being discharged home after a large myocardial infarction and subsequent coronary artery bypass grafting surgery. The clients sternal wound has not yet healed. What statement by the client most indicates a higher risk of developing sepsis after discharge? a. All my friends and neighbors are planning a party for me. b. I hope I can get my water turned back on when I get home. c. I am going to have my daughter scoop the cat litter box. d. My grandkids are so excited to have me coming home! ANS: B All these statements indicate a potential for leading to infection once the client gets back home. A large party might include individuals who are themselves ill and contagious. Having litter boxes in the home can expose the client to microbes that can lead to infection. Small children often have upper respiratory infections and poor hand hygiene that spread germs. However, the most worrisome statement is the lack of running water for handwashing and general hygiene and cleaning purposes. 37. A student nurse is helping a registered nurse with a blood transfusion. Which actions by the student are most appropriate? (Select all that apply.) a. Hanging the blood product using normal saline and a filtered tubing set b. Taking a full set of vital signs prior to starting the blood transfusion c. Telling the client someone will remain at the bedside for the first 5 minutes d. Using gloves to start the client’s IV if needed and to handle the blood product e. Verifying the client’s identity, and checking blood compatibility and expiration time ANS: A, B, D Correct actions prior to beginning a blood transfusion include hanging the product with saline and the correct filtered blood tubing, taking a full set of vital signs prior to starting, and using gloves. Someone stays with the client for the first 15 to 30 minutes of the transfusion. Two registered nurses must verify the client’s identity and blood compatibility. 38. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What action is most important? a. Correctly identifying client using two identifiers b. Ensuring informed consent is obtained if required c. Hanging the blood product with Ringer’s lactate d. Staying with the client for the entire transfusion ANS: B If the facility requires informed consent for transfusions, this action is most important because it precedes the other actions taken during the transfusion. Correctly identifying the client and blood product is a National Patient Safety Goal and is the most important action after obtaining informed consent. Ringer’s lactate is not 3 2 3 2 2 3 2 3 2 used to transfuse blood. The nurse does not need to stay with the client for the duration of the transfusion. 39. A student nurse is learning about blood transfusion compatibilities. What information does this include? (Select all that apply.) a. Donor blood type A can donate to recipient blood type AB. b. Donor blood type B can donate to recipient blood type O. c. Donor blood type AB can donate to anyone. d. Donor blood type O can donate to anyone. e. Donor blood type A can donate to recipient blood type B. ANS: A, D Blood type A can be donated to people who have blood types A or AB. Blood type O can be given to anyone. Blood type B can be donated to people who have blood types B or AB. Blood type AB can only go to recipients with blood type AB. 40. Which hormone deficiency causes Diabetes Insipidus in a patient? a. Thyrotropin b. LH c. Prolactin d. ADH see p. 1250 41. A nurse assesses a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which arterial blood gas values should the nurse identify as potential ketoacidosis in this client? a.pH 7.38, HCO – 22 mEq/L, PCO 38 mm Hg, PO 98 mm Hg b.pH 7.28, HCO – 18 mEq/L, PCO 28 mm Hg, PO 98 mm Hg c.pH 7.48, HCO – 28 mEq/L, PCO 38 mm Hg, PO 98 mm Hg d.pH 7.32, HCO – 22 mEq/L, PCO 58 mm Hg, PO 88 mm Hg ANS: B When the lungs can no longer offset acidosis, the pH decreases to below normal. A client who has diabetic ketoacidosis would present with arterial blood gas values that show primary metabolic acidosis with decreased bicarbonate levels and a compensatory respiratory alkalosis with decreased carbon d. “Even when my seizures stop, I will continue to take this drug.” ANS: D Discontinuing antiepileptic drugs can lead to the recurrence of seizures or status epilepticus. The client does not need to drink more water and can drive while taking this medication. The medication will not stop an aura before a seizure. 3. A nurse is teaching a client with chronic migraine headaches. Which statement related to complementary therapy should the nurse include in this client’s teaching? a. “Place a warm compress on your forehead at the onset of the headache.” b. “Wear dark sunglasses when you are in brightly lit spaces.” c. “Lie down in a darkened room when you experience a headache.” d. “Set your alarm to ensure you do not sleep longer than 6 hours at one time.” ANS: C At the onset of a migraine attack, the client may be able to alleviate pain by lying down and darkening the room. He or she may want both eyes covered and a cool cloth on the forehead. If the client falls asleep, he or she should remain undisturbed until awakening. The other options are not recognized therapies for migraines. 4. A nurse assesses a client with a history of epilepsy who experiences stiffening of the muscles of the arms and legs, followed by an immediate loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities. How should the nurse document this activity? a. Atonic seizure b. Tonic-clonic seizure c. Myoclonic seizure d. Absence seizure ANS: B Seizure activity that begins with stiffening of the arms and legs, followed by loss of consciousness and jerking of all extremities, is characteristic of a tonic-clonic seizure. An atonic seizure presents as a sudden loss of muscle tone followed by postictal confusion. A myoclonic seizure presents with a brief jerking or stiffening of extremities that may occur singly or in groups. Absence seizures present with automatisms, and the client is unaware of his or her environment. 5. A nurse cares for a client who has Alzheimer's disease. The client’s wife states, “I am having trouble managing his behaviors at home.” Which questions with the nurse asked to assess potential causes of the client’s behavior problems? Select all that apply. a. Do you have a clock and calendar in the bedroom and kitchen? b. Does this behavior become worse around large crowds? c. Does your husband eat healthy foods including fruits and vegetables? d. Does your husband bathe and dress himself independently? e. Do you weigh your husband each morning around the same time? To minimize behavior problems, the nurse would encourage the patient to be as independent as possible with ADLs, minimize excessive stimulation, and assist the patient to remain oriented. The nurse would assess these activities by asking if the patient is independent with bathing and dressing, if the behavior worsens around crowds, and if the clock and single-date calendar are readily available. Diet and weight are not r/t the management of behavior problems for a patient who has Alzheimer's disease. 6. A nurse prepares to provide perineal care to a client with meningococcal meningitis. Which personal protective equipment should the nurse wear? (Select all that apply.) a. Particulate respirator b. Isolation gown c. Shoe covers d. Surgical mask e. Gloves ANS: D, E Meningeal meningitis is spread via saliva and droplets , and Droplet Precautions are necessary. Caregivers should wear a surgical mask when within 6 feet of the client and should continue to use Standard Precautions, including gloves. A particulate respirator, an isolation gown, and shoe covers are not necessary for Droplet Precautions. 7. A nurse cares for a client who is experiencing status epilepticus. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Atenolol (Tenormin) b. Lorazepam (Ativan) c. Phenytoin (Dilantin) d. Lisinopril (Prinivil) ANS: B Initially, intravenous lorazepam is administered to stop motor movements . This is followed by the administration of phenytoin. Atenolol, a beta blocker, and lisinopril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, are not administered for seizure activity. These medications are typically administered for hypertension and heart failure. 8. A nurse witnesses a client begin to experience a tonic-clonic seizure and loss of consciousness. Which action should the nurse take? a. Start fluids via a large-bore catheter. b. Turn the client’s head to the side. c. Administer IV push diazepam. d. Prepare to intubate the client. ANS: B The nurse should turn the client’s head to the side to prevent aspiration and allow drainage of secretions. Anticonvulsants are administered on a routine basis if a seizure is sustained. If the seizure is sustained (status epilepticus), the client must be intubated and should be administered oxygen, 0.9% sodium chloride, and IV push lorazepam or diazepam. 9. A nurse evaluates the results of diagnostic tests on a client’s cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Which fluid results alerts the nurse to possible viral meningitis? (Select all that apply.) a. Clear b. Cloudy c. Increased protein level d. Normal glucose level e. Bacterial organisms present functional ability, and restoration of function. The other responses do not meet this client’s needs. 14. A nurse assesses clients at a community center. Which client is at greatest risk for lower back pain? a. A 24-year-old female who is 25 weeks pregnant b. A 36-year-old male who uses ergonomic techniques c. A 45-year-old male with osteoarthritis d. A 53-year-old female who uses a walker ANS: C Osteoarthritis causes changes to support structures, increasing the client’s risk for low back pain. The other clients are not at high risk 15. After teaching a male client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level, the nurse assesses the clients understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to sexual effects of this injury? (Select all that apply.) a. I will explore other ways besides intercourse to please my partner. b. I will not be able to have an erection because of my injury. c. Ejaculation may not be as predictable as before. d. I may urinate with ejaculation, but this will not cause infection. e. I should be able to have an erection with stimulation. ANS: C, D, E Men with injuries above T6 often are able to have erections by stimulating reflex activity. For example, stroking the penis will cause an erection. Ejaculation is less predictable and may be mixed with urine. However, urine is sterile, so the client’s partner will not get an infection. 16. A nurse plans care for a client with a halo fixator. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Tape a halo wrench to the client’s vest. b. Assess the pin sites for signs of infection. c. Loosen the pins when sleeping. d. Decrease the client’s oral fluid intake. e. Assess the chest and back for skin breakdown. ANS: A, B, E A special halo wrench should be taped to the clients vest in case of a cardiopulmonary emergency. The nurse should assess the pin sites for signs of infection or loose pins and for complications from the halo. The nurse should also increase fluids and fiber to decrease bowel straining and assess the clients chest and back for skin breakdown from the halo vest. 17. A nurse teaches a patient about ways to prevent a back injury. Which statements would the nurse include n this patient’s teaching? Select all that apply. a. Twist no more than 45 degrees during movement b. Sit in a chair that provides good back support c. Shift your weight when standing d. Use assistance when lifting over 10 pounds (? Not sure, see rationale) e. Push objects rather than pull them. Best practices to prevent back injury include pushing objects rather than pulling them, using assistance or an aide to lift objects that are more than 5 to 10 pounds, avoiding prolonged standing or using a footstool to lessen back strain, and sitting in chairs with good support. Shifting weight when standing does not minimize the risk for back injury and no twisting should occur during movement. I put B and D (without E) and got 0/2 points but I asked if she’d accept partial credit for D as well. 18. Anterior cervical discectomy complication from – select all that apply a. Difficulty swallowing b. HTN c. Hoarseness d. Bradycardia e. Constipation A and C. see page 910, chart 43-12 19. A nurse teaches a client with a lower motor neuron lesion who wants to achieve bladder control. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching? a. Stroke the inner aspect of your thigh to initiate voiding. b. Use a clean technique for intermittent catheterization. c. Implement digital anal stimulation when your bladder is full. d. Tighten your abdominal muscles to stimulate urine flow. ANS: D In clients with lower motor neuron problems such as spinal cord injury, performing a Valsalva maneuver or tightening the abdominal muscles are interventions that can initiate voiding. Stroking the inner aspect of the thigh may initiate voiding in a client who has an upper motor neuron problem. Intermittent catheterization and digital anal stimulation do not initiate voiding or bladder control. 20. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a diskectomy 6 hours ago. Which assessment d. Wear properly fitting socks and shoes. ANS: A Corticosteroids reduce immune function, so clients taking these medications must avoid being exposed to illness. Long-term use can lead to secondary diabetes, but the client would not need to start checking blood glucose unless diabetes had been detected. Corticosteroids do not affect the effectiveness of contraception. Wearing well-fitting shoes would be important to avoid injury, but not just because the client takes corticosteroids. 26. The nurse learns that the pathophysiology of Guillain-Barr syndrome includes segmental demyelination. The nurse should understand that this causes what? a. Delayed afferent nerve impulses b. Paralysis of affected muscles c. Paresthesia in upper extremities d. Slowed nerve impulse transmission ANS: D Demyelination leads to slowed nerve impulse transmission. The other options are not correct. 27. The nurse caring for a pt with Guillain-Barre Syndrome has identified the priority problem of decreased mobility for the patient. What actions by the nurse are best? Select all that apply. a. Consult with the provider about a physical therapy consult b. Ask occupational therapy to help the patient with activities of daily living c. Work with speech therapy to design a high-protein diet d. Refer the patient to a medical social worker or chaplain e. Provide the patient with information on support groups **I put to include PT & OT, but I only got 1.33/2 points, so I don’t know what the other choice is to be 28. Pt receiving plasmapheresis. Report which of the following to the HCP – Select all that apply. a. Photophobia b. Urticaria/rash c. Calcium 6.4 d. Weight the next day e. Potassium of 4.2 Complications of plasma pheresis include hypocalcemia and urticarial rash. these need to be reported as a priority. Weight changes can occur due to fluid shifting or depletion, but this would not be a priority. The normal potassium level is not a concern, and photophobia is not related. 29. A client with Guillain-Barr syndrome is admitted to the hospital. The nurse plans caregiving priority to interventions that address which priority client problem? a. Anxiety b. Low fluid volume c. Inadequate airway d. Potential for skin breakdown ANS: C Airway takes priority. Anxiety is probably present, but a physical diagnosis takes priority over a psychosocial one. The client has no reason to have low fluid volume unless he or she has been unable to drink for some time. If present, airway problems take priority over a circulation problem. An actual problem takes precedence over a risk for a problem 30. A client is admitted with Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS). What assessment takes priority? a. Bladder control b. Cognitive perception c. Respiratory system d. Sensory functions ANS: C Clients with GBS have muscle weakness, possibly to the point of paralysis. If respiratory muscles are paralyzed, the client may need mechanical ventilation, so the respiratory system is the priority. The nurse will complete urinary, cognitive, and sensory assessments as part of a thorough evaluation. 31. The ER nurse instructs the student to the sons and symptoms of a mild traumatic brain injury. What are consistent? Select all that apply. c.sensitivity to light and sound a. unconscious 2 hours after injury b. increased temperature d. patient report of “feeling foggy” e. widened pulse pressure 32. A client has a traumatic brain injury. The nurse assesses the following: pulse change from 82 to 60 beats/min, pulse pressure increase from 26 to 40 mm Hg, and respiratory irregularities. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Call the provider or Rapid Response Team. b. Increase the rate of the IV fluid administration. c. Notify respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment. d. Prepare to give IV pain medication. ANS: A These manifestations indicate Cushings syndrome, a potentially life-threatening increase in intracranial pressure (ICP), which is an emergency. Immediate medical attention is necessary, so the nurse notifies the provider or the Rapid Response Team. Increasing fluids would increase the ICP. The client does not need a breathing treatment or pain medication. 33. A client had an embolectomy for an arteriovenous malformation (AVM). The client is now reporting a severe headache and has vomited. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Administer pain medication. b. Assess the client’s vital signs. c. Notify the Rapid Response Team. d. Raise the head of the bed. ANS: C This client may be experiencing a rebleed from the AVM. The most important action is to call the Rapid Response Team as this is an emergency. The nurse can assess vital signs while someone else notifies the Team, but getting immediate medical attention is the priority. Administering pain medication may not be warranted if the client must return to surgery. The optimal position for the client with an AVM has not been determined, Core Measures established by The Joint Commission include discharging stroke clients on statins, providing and recording stroke education and taking measures to prevent venous thromboembolism. The client must be assessed for therapies but may go elsewhere for them. Nutrition goals are not part of the Core Measures. 40. A nurse is caring for four clients who might be brain dead. Which client would best meet the criteria to allow assessment of brain death? a. Client with a core temperature of 95 F (35 C) for 2 days b. Client in a coma for 2 weeks from a motor vehicle crash c. Client who is found unresponsive in a remote area of a field by a hunter d. Client with a systolic blood pressure of 92 mm Hg since admission ANS: B In order to determine brain death, clients must meet four criteria: 1) coma from a known cause, 2) normal or near-normal core temperature, 3) normal systolic blood pressure, and 4) at least one neurologic examination. The client who was in the car crash meets two of these criteria. The clients with the lower temperature and lower blood pressure have only one of these criteria. There is no data to support assessment of brain death in the client found by the hunter. 41. A nurse prepares to discharge a client with cardiac dysrhythmia who is prescribed home health care services. Which priority information should be communicated to the home health nurse upon discharge? a. Medication reconciliation b. Immunization history c. Religious beliefs d. Nutrition preferences ANS: A The home health nurse needs to know current medications the client is taking to ensure assessment, evaluation, and further education related to these medications. The other information will not assist the nurse to develop a plan of care for the client. 42. After assessing a client who is receiving an amiodarone intravenous infusion for unstable ventricular tachycardia, the nurse documents the findings and compares these with the previous assessment findings: Vital Signs Nursing Assessment Time: 0800 Temperature: 98 F Heart rate: 68 beats/min Blood pressure: 135/60 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 14 breaths/min Oxygen saturation: 96% Oxygen therapy: 2 L nasal cannula Time: 1000 Temperature: 98.2 F Heart rate: 50 beats/min Blood pressure: 132/57 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 16 breaths/min Oxygen saturation: 95% Oxygen therapy: 2 L nasal cannula Time: 0800 Client alert and oriented. Cardiac rhythm: normal sinus rhythm. Skin: warm, dry, and appropriate for race. Respirations equal and unlabored. Client denies shortness of breath and chest pain. Time: 1000 Client alert and oriented. Cardiac rhythm: sinus bradycardia. Skin: warm, dry, and appropriate for race. Respirations equal and unlabored. Client denies shortness of breath and chest pain. Client voids 420 mL of clear yellow urine. Based on the assessments, which action should the nurse take? a. Stop the infusion and flush the IV. b. Slow the amiodarone infusion rate. c. Administer IV normal saline. d. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe. ANS: B IV administration of amiodarone may cause bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) block. The correct action for the nurse to take at this time is to slow the infusion, because the client is asymptomatic and no evidence reveals AV block that might require pacing. Abruptly ceasing the medication could allow fatal dysrhythmias to occur. The administration of IV fluids and encouragement of coughing and deep breathing exercises are not indicated, and will not increase the clients heart rate. 43. A nurse assesses a clients electrocardiograph tracing and observes that not all QRS complexes are preceded by a P wave. How should the nurse interpret this observation? a. The client has hyperkalemia causing irregular QRS complexes. b. Ventricular tachycardia is overriding the normal atrial rhythm. c. The clients chest leads are not making sufficient contact with the skin. d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites. ANS: D Normal rhythm shows one P wave preceding each QRS complex, indicating that all depolarization is initiated at the sinoatrial node. QRS complexes without a P wave indicate a different source of initiation of depolarization. This finding on an electrocardiograph tracing is not an indication of hyperkalemia, ventricular tachycardia, or disconnection of leads. 44. A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation? a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease ANS: B Atrial fibrillation occurs commonly in clients with cardiac disease and is a common occurrence after coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The other conditions do not place these clients at higher risk for atrial fibrillation. 45. A nurse prepares to defibrillate a client who is in ventricular fibrillation. Which priority intervention should the nurse perform prior to defibrillating this client?