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NUR 2407 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1 NEWEST 2024 ALL 50 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED A, Exams of Nursing

NUR 2407 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1 NEWEST 2024 ALL 50 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+

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2024/2025

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NUR 2407 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1 NEWEST 2024 ALL 50
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+
1. A client taking phenytoin suddenly develops hives. What is the best explanation for this
occurrence and the nurse’s best response?
a. A hypersensitive (excessive) response and the dose should be reduced
b. A random idiosyncratic response that will not disrupt treatment plan
c. A paradoxical response related to the body’s attempt to maintain homeostasis
and will resolve over time
d. An allergic response and the medication should be stopped
2. A client is given a new medication and reports nausea within an hour after taking the
drug. The nurse knows that nausea is an expected side effect. What is the best action?
a. Report the symptom to the pharmacist to modify the order
b. Administer next dose as scheduled and tell client to report more symptoms
c. Hold the drug and let the provider know before administering the next dose
d. Explore non-pharmacological measures to minimize the side effect
3. A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a hospitalized patient who has been
taking lithium for 3 days. The client is complaining of mild nausea, fatigue, and dry
mouth. The client’s lithium levels are 0.8 mEq/L. What is the best response?
a. Administer the dose and tell the client the expected side effects are
temporary
b. Request an order for amiloride
c. Contact the provider to request an order for serum electrolytes
d. Hold the dose and notify the provider of the client’s lithium levels
4. What is the nurse’s best response when a client refuses medication?
a. Remind the client of the consequences associated with noncompliance
b. Investigate the reason the client is refusing
c. Bring in a social worker for counselling
d. Call the provider and explore alternative medications
5. Why is IV diazepam used in the treatment of status epilepticus?
a. The IV product has a 5 day half-life to prevent reoccurance
b. The medication resolves continual seizures rapidly with no loading dose
c. The drug alleviates suffering when the family requests euthanasia
d. Diazepam is a secondary medication to make the patient forget the event
6. A client taking levodopa/carbidopa reports feeling lightheaded/dizzy, especially when
standing from a sitting position. What will the nurse expect the provider to recommend?
a. Alpha-adrenergic antagonist
b. Drug holiday
c. Increase salt and water intake
d. Amantadine
7. A client taking interferon beta-1a reports feeling depressed. What is the nurse’s best
action?
a. Notify the provider of these symptoms
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NUR 2407 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1 NEWEST 2024 ALL 50

QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)

|ALREADY GRADED A+

  1. A client taking phenytoin suddenly develops hives. What is the best explanation for this occurrence and the nurse’s best response? a. A hypersensitive (excessive) response and the dose should be reduced b. A random idiosyncratic response that will not disrupt treatment plan c. A paradoxical response related to the body’s attempt to maintain homeostasis and will resolve over time d. An allergic response and the medication should be stopped
  2. A client is given a new medication and reports nausea within an hour after taking the drug. The nurse knows that nausea is an expected side effect. What is the best action? a. Report the symptom to the pharmacist to modify the order b. Administer next dose as scheduled and tell client to report more symptoms c. Hold the drug and let the provider know before administering the next dose d. Explore non-pharmacological measures to minimize the side effect
  3. A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a hospitalized patient who has been taking lithium for 3 days. The client is complaining of mild nausea, fatigue, and dry mouth. The client’s lithium levels are 0.8 mEq/L. What is the best response? a. Administer the dose and tell the client the expected side effects are temporary b. Request an order for amiloride c. Contact the provider to request an order for serum electrolytes d. Hold the dose and notify the provider of the client’s lithium levels
  4. What is the nurse’s best response when a client refuses medication? a. Remind the client of the consequences associated with noncompliance b. Investigate the reason the client is refusing c. Bring in a social worker for counselling d. Call the provider and explore alternative medications
  5. Why is IV diazepam used in the treatment of status epilepticus? a. The IV product has a 5 day half-life to prevent reoccurance b. The medication resolves continual seizures rapidly with no loading dose c. The drug alleviates suffering when the family requests euthanasia d. Diazepam is a secondary medication to make the patient forget the event
  6. A client taking levodopa/carbidopa reports feeling lightheaded/dizzy, especially when standing from a sitting position. What will the nurse expect the provider to recommend? a. Alpha-adrenergic antagonist b. Drug holiday c. Increase salt and water intake d. Amantadine
  7. A client taking interferon beta-1a reports feeling depressed. What is the nurse’s best action? a. Notify the provider of these symptoms

b. Request an order for an antidepressant c. Reassure the client that the symptoms will subside d. Skip the next dose and report if symptoms persist

  1. Which of the following is least likely to occur during the assessment phase of drug therapy? a. Developing outcomes for effective responses to drug therapy b. Determining if there are any financial restraints c. Identify client’s level of understanding d. Obtain information about clients current medication use
  2. After administering a medication, the client complains of an upset stomach. The nurse recognizes this as a negative effect of the drug and identifies it as which of the following? a. Side effect b. Intended effect c. Teratogenic effect d. Paradoxical effect
  3. A child diagnosed with ADHD begins taking a CNS stimulant. Which statement by the child's parents indicates a need for further teaching? a. This medication will help my child improve attention and focus b. This drug will make my child more impulsive at school c. I will make sure my child takes this in the morning after breakfast d. I should report insomnia and appetite loss to the provider
  4. Which side effects of a cholinesterase inhibitor would be most concerning to a nurse? a. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea b. Symptomatic bradycardia that may lead to fainting c. Confusion and memory impairment d. Dizziness and headache
  5. A client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is given a benzodiazepine. Why is this helpful? a. Benzodiazepines relieve muscle spasms and spasticity b. Benzodiazepines exacerbate alcohol withdrawal symptoms c. Benzodiazepines suppress symptoms brought on by alcohol withdrawal d. Alcohol does not interact with benzodiazepines
  6. A client is taking a FGA and the nurse notices the client has trouble speaking, chewing and observes slow, worm-like movement of the tongue. The nurse suspects which of the following adverse effects is occurring? a. Parkinsonism b. Acute dystonia c. Tardive dyskinesia d. Akathisia
  7. A client is receiving lamotrigine as a treatment for partial seizures. Which assessment finding will lead the nurse to stop the drug and contact the provider immediately? a. Dizziness b. Rash c. Insomnia d. Loss of taste

a. If I forget a dose, I should take the missed dose with my next dose b. If dyskinesia occurs, I should stop taking the drug immediately. c. With adequate drug therapy, the disease may be slowed d. A levodopa/carbidopa combination is used to improve motor function

  1. What discharge teaching should a client with epilepsy receive when starting clonazepam 3 times/day (Select all) a. Skip a dose if you need to drive b. Skip a dose if you plan on drinking alcohol c. Sudden withdrawal from benzodiazepines may include seizures, anxiety, insomnia, sweating, tremors, and dizziness d. Tolerance can be developed overtime and lead to needing a higher dose e. Do not try to taper yourself off the medication without provider guidance
  2. A client who is taking sodium-depleting drugs (diuretics) is started on lithium. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the medication education? a. I may develop a rash and itching, but symptoms are not serious b. I should report any palpitations, tremors, and/or confusion to my provider c. I may need to increase my lithium dosage while on diuretics d. I should use salt substitutes instead of real salt while taking these drugs
  3. The nurse has given 800 mg of a drug that has an 8 hour half life. If no other dose is given, how much of the drug is in the client’s body in 24 hours? a. 0 mg b. 100 mg c. 200 mg d. 50 mg
  4. A client asks what is meant by the statement ‘tolerance can occur when taking an anxiolytic?’ How should the nurse respond? a. Increased tolerance for medical side effects b. Greater acceptance of the behaviors of other people when taking the drug c. A different anxiolytic is necessary to treat the symptoms d. Higher levels of the medication is needed to achieve intended effect
  5. What must the nurse include in education for a young woman going home on phenytoin? a. Phenytoin can cause teratogenic effects and interferes with birth control b. Phenytoin is a controlled substance so you must store it in a locked cabinet c. There are no refills for this medication d. This drug is a Class D so it's safe to take during pregnancy
  6. A client with dementia is being started on Donepezil. Which side effect is expected? a. Elimination of nausea b. Tachycardia c. Tardive dyskinesia d. Diarrhea
  7. Which client would the nurse consider as having the highest predisposition for an adverse reaction to a medication? a. 40 yr old man with kidney disease b. 55 yr old woman with cystitis

c. 9 yr old boy with an ear infection d. 50 yr old man with an upper respiratory infection

  1. What occurs when a drug binds to a receptor in the body? a. Agonoizes or antagonizes response at the receptor b. Prevents the action of the receptor by altering its response to chemical mediators c. It give the receptor a new function d. It alters the receptor to become unresponsive to its usual endogenous molecules
  2. The provider orders lisdexamfetamine. Which of the findings would have the most concern for a nurse? a. Insomnia b. Excitability c. Anorexia d. Shortness of breath
  3. A client asks what will happen if they do not avoid tyramine rich foods while taking a MAOI. How should the nurse respond? a. Profound paranoia b. Severe weight loss c. A hypertensive crisis d. Delusions of grandeur
  4. A caregiver of a psychotic, violent, non-compliant patient is wondering why an atypical antipsychotic cannot be started right away instead of a traditional neuroleptic. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Insurance will only cover atypical antipsychotics for people who have severe dyskinesia b. Haloperidol works quickly in a crisis. A switch could be an eventual goal c. Atypical antipsychotics are typically unaffordable. Funding sources are hard to find d. You should be able to haloperidol and being risperidone immediately
  5. A client is taking medication with a half-life of 24 hours. What is the expected dosing schedule? a. Every other day b. Daily c. Twice a day d. Three times a day 36. A 5 year old, who weighs 44 lbs, is receiving 50 mg of phenytoin. How much does she weigh in kg? 20 kg
  6. An agitated, extremely anxious client is brought to the ED and the provider orders alprazolam. Why is this medication appropriate for the situation? a. Alprazolam is known to cure general anxiety b. Alprazolam does not suppress the CNS c. Physical dependence is not a risk when taking alprazolam d. Alprazolam has a rapid onset of action
  7. The nurse would know to assess for extrapyramidal symptoms in any client taking which type of medication?

d. Contact the provider to discuss the need to have liver function tests done

  1. A client currently taking a FGA comes into the clinic for evaluation. He presents with a shuffling gait and mild tremors. What order would the nurse expect the provider to give? a. Withhold the drug for 2 days b. Order an anticholinergic medication c. Increase the dose of the antipsychotic medication d. Order a direct dopamine antagonist
  2. A client with Alzheimer's dementia is about to begin therapy with donepezil. Which cholinergic side effects would the nurse anticipate and report to the provider? a. Wheezes b. Dry eyes c. Increased heart rate d. Pinpoint pupils
  3. A client took an overdose of a TCA. What adverse effects would the nurse expect? a. Watery eyes b. Drooling c. Tachycardia d. Constipation e. Sleepiness
  4. Which of these medications might increase tremors in a client with Parkinson’s? a. Beta-blocker b. Traditional antipsychotics c. Barbiturate d. NSAID
  5. How would the nurse interpret the statement that a medication has a 12 hour half life? a. Twelve hours is the time it takes for half of the medication to enter the bloodstream b. Twelve hours is the time it takes for half of the medication to reach its receptors c. Twelve hours is the time it takes for half of the medication to be metabolized away d. Twelve hours is the time it takes for half of the medication effect to occur
  6. A client with a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital and has a partial seizure shortly after admission. The client has been taking phenytoin 100 mg 3/day and the current serum level is 8.6 mcg/mL. What will the nurse expect the provider to order? a. Stop the phenytoin immediately b. Decrease dose of phenytoin c. Increase dose of phenytoin d. Extended-release phenytoin