NUR-265 Exam 1 Questions with Correctly Solved Answers, Exams of Nursing

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NUR-265 Exam 1 Questions with Correctly Solved Answers

1.Absorption: Transferring food products into circulation

2. Bilirubin: a pigment derived from the breakdown of hemoglobin and eliminated by the liver in bile
3. Borborygmi: loud, gurgling bowel sounds signaling increased motility or hyper- peristalsis; occurs with early bowel obstruction, gastroenteritis, diarrhea
4. Cheilosis: a disorder of the lips characterized by crack-like sores at the corners of the mouth 5.Digestion: Physical and chemical breakdown of food into absorbable substances
5. Endoscopy: A medical procedure that allows a doctor to examine the inside of the body without performing major surgery 7.Hematemesis: Vomiting blood 8.Ingestion: Intake of food 9.Kupffer cells: Macrophages in the liver 10.Melena: abnormal black, tarry stool containing digested blood 11.Pyrosis: heartburn; burning sensation in upper abdomen due to reflux of gastric acid 12.Pyorrhea: Recessed gingivae, purulent pockets 13.Steatorrhea: Fatty, frothy, foul-smelling stool 14.Tenesmus: painful, ineffective defecation 15.Valsalva Maneuver: A physical action that involves forcefully exhaling against a closed airway 16.Ghrelin: Hormone released from the stomach to stimulate appetite 17.Leptin: Hormone involved in appetite suppression 18.A patient is admitted to the hospital with diarrhea and dehydration. The nurse recognizes that increased peristalsis resulting in diarrhea can be relat- ed to: Parasympathetic Stimulation 19.A patient has a high blood level of indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin. One cause of this finding is that: Bilirubin is not being conjugated and excreted into the bile by the liver 20.As gastric contents move into the small intestine, the bowel is normally protected from the acidity of gastric contents by the: Secretion of mucus by goblet cells 21.A patient has jaundice with pale colored stools. This is MOST likely related to: Decreased bile flow into the intestine 22.An 80 yo man states that, although he adds a lot of salt to his food, it still does not have much taste. The nurse's response is based on the

knowledge that the older adult: Has a loss of taste buds, especially for sweet and salt

23.When the nurse is assessing the health perception-health maintenance pattern as related to GI function, an appropriate question to ask is: Have you traveled to a foreign country in the last year? 24.When assessing the abdomen, the nurse should: Listen for bowel sounds in the epigastrium and all 4 quadrants for 2 minutes. 25.Normal physical assessment findings of the GI system are (select all that apply): Nonpalpable spleen Tympany of percussion of the abdomen 26.In preparing a patient for a colonoscopy, the nurse explains that: Sedation will be used during the procedure 27.Anorexia Nervosa: Characterized by restricting energy intake, difficulty main- taining an appropriate weight, an intense fear of gaining weight or being fat, and distorted body image 28.Bulimia Nervosa: Characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating. To pre- vent weight gain, the person then engages in inappropriate compensatory behaviors (vomiting, laxative or diuretic misuse, over exercise) 29.Enteral Nutrition: AKA tube feeding, is nutrition delivered through a tube, catheter, or stoma directly into the GI tract. EN is used with the patient who has a functioning GI tract but is unable to take any or enough oral nourishment or when it is unsafe to do so. 30.Malabsorption Syndrome: The impaired absorption of nutrients from the GI tract 31.Malnutrition: A deficit, excess, or imbalance in a person's intake of nutrients 32.Parenteral Nutrition: Is the administration of nutrients directly into the blood- stream. PN is used when the GI tract cannot be used for the ingestion, digestion, and absorption of essential nutrients. 33.Refeeding Syndrome: The bodies response to the switch from starvation to a fed state in the initial phase of nutrition therapy in patients who are severely malnourished

34. The percentage of daily calories for a healthy person consists of a. 50% carbohydrates, 25% protein, 25% fat, and <10% of fat from saturated fatty acids. b. 65% carbohydrates, 25% protein, 25% fat, and >10% of fat from saturated fatty acids.

c. 50% carbohydrates, 40% protein, 10% fat, and <10% of fat from saturated fatty acids. d. 40% carbohydrates, 30% protein, 30% fat, and >10% of fat from saturated

fatty acids.: a. 50% carbohydrates, 25% protein, 25% fat, and <10% of fat from saturated fatty acids.

35. Place in order the substrates the body uses for energy during starvation, beginning with 1 for the first component and ending with 4 for the last com- ponent. a. Skeletal protein b. Glycogen c. Visceral protein d. Fat stores: b. Glycogen a. Skeletal protein d. Fat stores c. Visceral protein 36. A complete nutrition assessment including anthropometric measurements is most important for the patient who a. has a BMI of 25.5 kg/m2. b. reports episodes of nightly nocturia. c. reports a 5-year history of chronic constipation. d. reports unintentional weight loss of 10 lb in 2 months.: d. reports unintentional weight loss of 10 lb in 2 months. 37. Which method is best to use when confirming initial placement of a blindly inserted small-bore NG feeding tube? a. X-ray b. Air insertion c. Observing patient for coughing d. pH measurement of gastric aspirate: a. X-ray 38. A patient is receiving peripheral parenteral nutrition. The solution is com- pleted before the new solution arrives on the unit. The nurse gives a. 20% intralipids. b. 5% dextrose solution. c. 0.45% normal saline solution. d. 5% lactated Ringer's solution.: b. 5% dextrose solution. 39. A patient with anorexia nervosa shows signs of malnutrition. During initial refeeding, the nurse carefully assesses the patient for (select all that apply)

a. hypokalemia.

b. hypoglycemia. c. hypercalcemia. d. hypomagnesemia. e. hypophosphatemia.: a. hypokalemia d. hypomag e. hypopho 40.Bariatric Surgery: Involves surgery on the stomach and/or intestines to help a person with extreme obesity lose weight 41.Extreme Obesity: Is used for those with a BMI greater than 40 kg/m2. 42.Lipectomy: The surgical removal of excess skin and adipose tissue 43.Metabolic Syndrome: A group of metabolic risk factors that increase a person's chance of developing CVD, stroke, and diabetes 44.Obese: A BMI of 30 kg/m2 or above 45.Overweight: A BMI of 25 to 29.9 kg/m 46.Obesity: An excessively high amount of body fat or adipose tissue 47.Waist-to-hip Ratio (WHR): Another way to assess obesity by dividing the waist measurement by the hip measurement

48. Which statement best describes the cause of obesity? a. Obesity primarily results from a genetic predisposition. b. Psychosocial factors can override the effects of genetics in causing obesity. c. Genetic factors are more important than environmental factors in causing obesity. d. Obesity is the result of complex interactions between genetic and environ- mental factors.: d. Obesity is the result of complex interactions between genetic and environmental factors. 49. Health risks associated with obesity include (select all that apply) a. colorectal cancer. b. rheumatoid arthritis. c. polycystic ovary syndrome. d. nonalcoholic steatohepatitis. e. systemic lupus erythematosus.: a. colorectal cancer. c. polycystic ovary syndrome. d. nonalcoholic steatohepatitis. 50. The obesity classification that is most often associated with cardiovascu- lar health problems is a. primary obesity.

b. secondary obesity. c. gynoid fat distribution. d. android fat distribution.: d. android fat distribution.

51. The best nutrition therapy plan for a person who is obese a. is high in animal protein. b. is fat-free and low in carbohydrates. c. restricts intake to under 800 calories per day. d. lowers calories with foods from all the basic groups.: d. lowers calories with foods from all the basic groups. 52. This bariatric surgical procedure involves creating a gastric pouch that is reversible, and no malabsorption occurs. Which procedure is this? a. Vertical gastric banding b. Biliopancreatic diversion c. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass d. adjustable gastric banding: d. adjustable gastric banding 53. A patient with extreme obesity has undergone Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery. In planning postoperative care, the nurse expects that the patient a. may have severe diarrhea early in the postoperative period. b. will not be allowed to ambulate for 1 to 2 days postoperatively. c. will have small amounts of oral liquids within the first 24 hours. d. will require nasogastric suction until the drainage is pale yellow.: c. will have small amounts of oral liquids within the first 24 hours. 54. Which criteria must be met for a diagnosis of metabolic syndrome? (select all that apply) a. Hypertension b. High triglycerides c. Elevated plasma glucose d. Increased waist circumference e. Decreased low-density lipoproteins: a. Hypertension b.High triglycerides c. Elevated plasma glucose d.Increased waist circumference e. Decreased low-density lipoproteins 55.Achalasia: When peristalsis of the lower 2/3 of the esophagus is absent

56.Barrett Esophagus: A complication of chronic GERD when the flat epithelial cells in the distal esophagus change into columnar epithelial cells

57. Dysphagia: 58.Esophagitis: Inflammation of the esophagus 59.Gastritis: Inflammation of the gastric mucosa 60.Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD): A symptom of mucosal damage caused by reflux of the stomach acid into the lower esophagus 61.Hiatal Hernia: Herniation of part of the stomach into the esophagus through an opening in the diaphragm 62.Nausea: Feeling of discomfort in the epigastrium with a conscious desire to vomit 63.Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD): Erosion of the GI mucosa from the digestive action of HCL acid and pepsin 64.Stress-related Mucosal Disease: Damage in the GI tract associated with seri- ous illness 65.Vomiting: Forceful ejection of partially digested food and secretions (emesis) from the upper GI tract 66. M.J. calls the clinic and tells the nurse that her 85-year-old mother has been nauseated all day and has vomited twice. Before the nurse hangs up and calls the HCP, she should tell M.J. to a. administer antiemetic drugs and assess her mother's skin turgor. b. give her mother sips of water and elevate the head of her bed to prevent aspiration. c. offer her mother large quantities of Gatorade to decrease the risk for sodium depletion. d. give her mother a high-protein liquid supplement to drink to maintain her nutrition needs.: b. give her mother sips of water and elevate the head of her bed to prevent aspiration. 67. The nurse explains to the patient with Vincent's infection that treatment will include a. tetanus vaccinations. b. viscous lidocaine rinses. c. amphotericin B suspension. d. topical application of antibiotics.: d. topical application of antibiotics. 68. The nurse teaching young adults about behaviors that put them at risk for oral cancer includes

a. discouraging use of chewing gum. b. avoiding use of perfumed lip gloss. c. avoiding use of smokeless tobacco. d. discouraging drinking of carbonated beverages.: c. avoiding use of smokeless tobacco.

69. Which instructions would the nurse include in a teaching plan for a patient with mild gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? a. "The best time to take an as-needed antacid is 1 to 3 hours after meals." b. "A glass of warm milk at bedtime will decrease your discomfort at night." c. "Do not chew gum; the excess saliva will cause you to secrete more acid." d. "Limit your intake of foods high in protein because they take longer to digest.": a. "The best time to take an as-needed antacid is 1 to 3 hours after meals." 70. A patient who had an esophagectomy for esophageal cancer develops increasing pain, fever, and dyspnea after starting a full-liquid diet. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are most indicative of a. an intolerance to the feedings. b. extension of the tumor into the aorta. c. leakage of fluids into the mediastinum. d. esophageal perforation with fistula formation into the lung.: c. leakage of fluids into the mediastinum. 71. The nurse monitors a patient with gastritis for pernicious anemia due to a. chronic autoimmune destruction of cobalamin stores in the body. b. progressive gastric atrophy from chronic breakage in the mucosal barrier and blood loss. c. a lack of intrinsic factor normally produced by acid-secreting cells of the gastric mucosa. d. hyperchlorhydria from an increase in acid-secreting parietal cells and degradation of RBCs.: c. a lack of intrinsic factor normally produced by acid-se- creting cells of the gastric mucosa. 72. The nurse is teaching the patient and family that peptic ulcers are a. caused by a stressful lifestyle and other acid-producing factors, such as H. pylori. b. inherited within families and reinforced by bacterial spread of Staphylococ- cus aureus in childhood.

c. promoted by factors that cause oversecretion of acid, such as excess diet

fats, smoking, and alcohol use. d. promoted by a combination of factors that cause erosion of the gastric mucosa, including certain drugs and H. pylori.: d. promoted by a combination of factors that cause erosion of the gastric mucosa, including certain drugs and H. pylori.

73. An optimal teaching plan for an outpatient with stomach cancer receiving radiation therapy should include information about a. cancer support groups, alopecia, and stomatitis. b. nutrition supplements, ostomy care, and support groups. c. prosthetic devices, wound and skin care, and grief counseling. d. wound and skin care, nutrition, drugs, and community resources.: d. wound and skin care, nutrition, drugs, and community resources. 74. The discharge teaching plan for the patient after an acute episode of upper GI bleeding includes information about the importance of (select all that apply) a. limiting alcohol intake to 1 serving per day. b. only taking aspirin with milk or bread products. c. avoiding taking aspirin and drugs containing aspirin. d. only taking drugs prescribed by the health care provider. e. taking all drugs 1 hour before mealtime to prevent further bleeding.: c. avoiding taking aspirin and drugs containing aspirin. d. only taking drugs prescribed by the health care provider. 75. Several patients come to the urgent care center with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea that began 2 hours ago while attending a large family reunion potluck dinner. You ask the patients specifically about foods they ingested containing a. beef. b. meat and milk. c. poultry and eggs. d. home-preserved vegetables.: b. meat and milk. 76.Anal fistula: An abnormal tunnel from the anus or rectum to the surface of the skin around the anus or the vagina 77.Appendicitis: Inflammation of the appendix 78.Bowel obstruction: Occurs when intestinal contents cannot pass through the GI tract

79.Celiac disease: An autoimmune disease that causes damage to the small intestinal mucosa

80.Constipation: Fewer than 3 stools per week 81.Crohn's disease: chronic inflammation of the intestinal tract 82.Diarrhea: The passage of at least 3 loose or liquid stools per day 83.Diverticulitis: Inflammation of 1 or more diverticula, resulting in perforation into the peritoneum 84.Fecal incontinence: the inability to control the passage of stool 85.Fistula: an abnormal tract between 2 hollow organs or a hollow organ and the skin 86.Gastroenteritis: inflammation of the mucosa in the stomach and small in- testines 87.Hemorrhoids: Abnormally dilated hemorrhoidal veins 88.Hernia: A condition that occurs when an organ or tissue pushes through a weak spot in the abdominal wall 89.Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD): Chronic inflammation of the GI tract char- acterized by periods of remission interspersed with periods of exacerbation 90.Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS): A disorder characterized by chronic abdomi- nal pain and altered bowel patterns 91.Lactase deficiency: A condition in which the lactase enzyme is deficient or absent 92.Ostomy: A surgically created opening on the abdomen that allows the discharge of body waste the normal elimination route is no longer possible 93.Paralytic Ileus: Decreased or absent bowel sounds in a quadrant may occur with a bowel obstruction 94.Peritonitis: inflammation of the peritoneum (membrane lining the abdominal cavity and surrounding the organs within it) 95.Short Bowel syndrome: A condition in which the small intestine does not have enough surface area to absorb enough nutrients 96.Steatorrhea: bulky, foul-smelling, yellow-gray, greasy stools with putty-like con- sistency 97.Ulcerative colitis (UC): Chronic inflammation of the colon

98. The most appropriate therapy for a patient with acute diarrhea caused by a viral infection is to a. increase fluid intake. b. administer an antibiotic. c. administer an antimotility drug. d. quarantine the patient to prevent spread of the virus.: a. increase fluid

intake.

99. A 35-year-old female patient is admitted to the emergency department with acute abdominal pain. Which medical diagnoses should you consider as

possible causes of her pain? (select all that apply) a. Gastroenteritis b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Gastrointestinal bleeding d. Irritable bowel syndrome e. Inflammatory bowel disease: a. Gastroenteritis b.Ectopic pregnancy c. Gastrointestinal bleeding d.Irritable bowel syndrome e. Inflammatory bowel disease

100. Assessment findings suggestive of peritonitis include (select all that apply) a. abdominal pain. b. rebound tenderness. c. a soft, distended abdomen. d. shallow respirations with bradypnea. e. observing that the patient is lying still.: a. abdominal pain. b. rebound tenderness. e. observing that the patient is lying still. 101. In planning care for the patient with Crohn's disease, the nurse recog- nizes that a major difference between ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease is that Crohn's disease a. often results in toxic megacolon. b. causes fewer nutrition deficiencies than ulcerative colitis. c. often recurs after surgery, while ulcerative colitis is curable with a colecto- my. d. is manifested by rectal bleeding and anemia more often than is ulcerative colitis.: c. often recurs after surgery, while ulcerative colitis is curable with a colec- tomy. 102. The nurse performs an abdominal assessment of a patient with a possible bowel obstruction, knowing that manifestations of an obstruction in the large intestine are (select all that apply) a. persistent abdominal pain. b. marked abdominal distention. c. diarrhea that is loose or liquid.

d. colicky, severe, intermittent pain. e. profuse vomiting that relieves abdominal pain.: a. persistent abdominal pain. b. marked abdominal distention.

103. A patient with stage I colorectal cancer is scheduled for surgery. Patient teaching for this patient would include an explanation that a. chemotherapy will begin after the patient recovers from the surgery. b. both chemotherapy and radiation can be used as palliative treatments. c. follow-up colonoscopies will be needed to ensure that the cancer does not recur. d. a wound, ostomy, and continence nurse will visit the patient to identify the site for the ostomy.: c. follow-up colonoscopies will be needed to ensure that the cancer does not recur. 104. The nurse determines a patient undergoing ileostomy surgery under- stands the procedure when the patient states a. "I should only have to change the pouch every 4 to 7 days." b. "The drainage in the pouch will look like my normal stools." c. "I may not need to wear a drainage pouch if I irrigate it daily." d. "Limiting my fluid intake should decrease the amount of output.": a. "I should only have to change the pouch every 4 to 7 days." 105. In contrast to diverticulitis, the patient with diverticulosis a. has rectal bleeding. b. often has no symptoms. c. usually develops peritonitis. d. has localized cramping pain: b. often has no symptoms 106. A nursing intervention that is most appropriate to decrease postoperative edema and pain after an inguinal herniorrhaphy is to a. maintain the patient on bedrest. b. allow the patient to stand to void. c. support the incision during coughing. d. apply a scrotal support with an ice bag.: d. apply a scrotal support with an ice bag. 107. The nurse determines that the goals of diet teaching have been met when the patient with celiac disease selects from the menu

a. scrambled eggs and sausage.

b. buckwheat pancakes with syrup. c. oatmeal, skim milk, and orange juice. d. yogurt, strawberries, and rye toast with butter.: a. scrambled eggs and sausage.

108. What should a patient be taught after a hemorrhoidectomy? a. Take mineral oil before bedtime. b. Eat a low-fiber diet to rest the colon. c. Use a daily oil-retention enema to empty the colon. d. Take prescribed pain medications before a bowel movement.: d. Take pre- scribed pain medications before a bowel movement. 109. Which information about an 80-yr-old male patient at the senior center is of most concern to the nurse? a. Decreased appetite b. Occasional indigestion c. Unintended weight loss d. Difficulty chewing food: Ans: C Unintentional weight loss is not a normal finding and may indicate a problem such as cancer or depression. Poor appetite, difficulty in chewing, and indigestion are common in older patients. These will need to be addressed but are not of as much concern as the weight loss. 110. An older patient reports chronic constipation. When would the nurse suggest that the patient regularly attempt defecation? a. Right after awakening in the morning b. Before eating breakfast c. Immediately after the first daily meal d. Right before bedtime: ANS: C The gastrocolic reflex is most active after the first daily meal. Awakening, the anticipation of eating, and bedtime timing do not stimulate these reflexes. 111. Which condition would the nurse anticipate when caring for a patient with a history of a total gastrectomy? a. Constipation b. Dehydration c. Elevated total serum cholesterol d. Cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency: ANS: D The patient with a total gastrectomy does not secrete intrinsic factor,

which is needed for cobalamin (vitamin B12) absorption. Because the stomach absorbs only small

amounts of water and nutrients, the patient is not at higher risk for dehydration, elevated cholesterol, or constipation.

112. The nurse is caring for a patient with a biliary obstruction. Which condi- tion would the nurse expect? a. Melena b. Steatorrhea c. Decreased serum cholesterol level d. Increased serum indirect bilirubin level: ANS: B A common bile duct obstruction will reduce the absorption of fat in the small intestine, leading to fatty stools. Gastrointestinal bleeding is not caused by common bile duct obstruction. Serum cholesterol levels are increased with biliary obstruction. Direct bilirubin level is increased with biliary obstruction. 113. The nurse receives the following information about a patient who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which information would the nurse communi- cate to the health care provider before preparing the patient for the procedure? a. The patient declined to drink the prescribed laxative solution. b. The patient has had an allergic reaction to shellfish and iodine. c. The patient has a permanent pacemaker to prevent bradycardia. d. The patient is worried about discomfort during the examination.: ANS: A If the patient has had inadequate bowel preparation, the colon cannot be visualized and the procedure would be rescheduled. Because contrast solution is not used during colonoscopy, the iodine allergy is not pertinent. A pacemaker is a contraindi- cation to magnetic resonance imaging but not to colonoscopy. The nurse should instruct the patient about the sedation used during the examination to decrease the patient's anxiety about discomfort. 114. Which statement by a patient with jaundice indicates a need for teaching? a. "I used cough syrup several times a day last week" b. "I take a baby aspirin every day to prevent strokes" c. "I take an antacid for indigestion several times a week" d. "I use acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours for pain": ANS: D Chronic use of high doses of acetaminophen can be hepatotoxic and may have caused the patient's jaundice. The other patient statements require further assess- ment by the nurse but do not indicate a need for patient education. 115. Which is the correct technique for the nurse to palpate the liver

during a head-to-toe physical assessment? a. Place one hand on top of the other and use the upper fingers to apply pressure and the bottom fingers to feel for the liver edge. b. Place one hand on the patient's back and press upward and inward with the other hand below the patient's right costal margin.

c. Press slowly and firmly over the right costal margin with one hand and withdraw the fingers quickly after the liver edge is felt. d. Place one hand under the patient's lower ribs and press the left lower rib cage forward, palpating below the costal margin with the other hand.: ANS: B The liver is normally not palpable below the costal margin. The nurse needs to push inward below the right costal margin while lifting the patient's back slightly with the left hand. The other methods will not allow palpation of the liver.

116. An adult with a body mass index (BMI) of 22 kg/m2 is being admitted to the hospital for elective knee surgery. Which assessment finding would the nurse report to the health care provider? a. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen b. Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin c. Bowel sounds of 20/min in each quadrant d. Aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area: ANS: B Normally the lower border of the liver is not palpable below the ribs, so this finding suggests hepatomegaly. Visible aortic pulsations in the epigastrium, active bowel sounds, and abdominal tympany are within normal findings for an adult of normal weight. 117. Which finding by the nurse during abdominal auscultation indicates a need for a focused abdominal assessment? a. Loud gurgles b. High-pitched gurgles c. Absent bowel sounds d. Intermittent sounds: ANS: C Absent bowel sounds are abnormal and require further assessment by the nurse. Normal sounds are relatively high pitched intermittent gurgling. 118. Which action would the nurse take after assisting with a needle biopsy of the liver at a patient's bedside? a. Elevate the head of the bed to facilitate breathing. b. Place the patient on the right side with the bed flat. c. Check the patient's postbiopsy coagulation studies. d. Position a sandbag over the liver to provide pressure.: ANS: B After a biopsy, the patient lies on the right side with the bed flat to splint the biopsy site. Coagulation studies are checked before the biopsy. A sandbag does not exert adequate pressure to splint the site. 119. A patient is admitted to the outpatient testing area for an ultrasound of the gallbladder. Which information obtained by the nurse

indicates that the ultrasound may need to be rescheduled? a. The patient has a gastrostomy tube.

b. The patient ate a bagel 4 hours ago. c. The patient took a laxative the day before. d. The patient had a high-fat meal the previous evening.: ANS: B Food intake can cause the gallbladder to contract and result in a suboptimal study. The patient would be NPO for 8 to 12 hours before the test. A high-fat meal the previous evening, laxative use, or a gastrostomy tube will not affect the results of the study.

120. The nurse is assessing an alert and independent older adult patient for malnutrition risk. Which is the most useful initial question? a. "How do you get to the store to buy your food?" b. "Can you tell me the food that you ate yesterday?" c. "Do you have any difficulty in preparing or eating food?" d. "Are you taking any medications that alter your taste for food?": ANS: B This question is the most open-ended and will provide the best overall information about the patient's daily intake and risk for poor nutrition. The other questions may be asked, depending on the patient's response to the first question. 121. A patient has arrived in the recovery area after an upper endoscopy. Which information collected by the nurse is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient is very drowsy. b. The patient reports a sore throat. c. The patient's temperature is 101.4F. d. The patient's pulse rate is 100 beats/min.: ANS: C A temperature elevation may indicate that an acute perforation has occurred. The other assessment data are normal immediately after the procedure. 122. A patient has just returned to the nursing unit after an esophagogastro- duodenoscopy (EGD). Which action by assistive personnel (AP) requires that the registered nurse (RN) intervene? a. Offering the patient a pitcher of water b. Positioning the patient on the right side c. Checking the vital signs every 30 minutes d. Swabbing the patient's mouth with a wet cloth: ANS: A Immediately after EGD, the patient will have a decreased gag reflex and is at risk for aspiration. Assessment for return of the gag reflex should be done by the RN. The other actions by the AP are appropriate. 123. A patient is being scheduled for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopan- creatography (ERCP) as soon as possible. Which prescribed