Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions, Exams of Nursing

Download Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions Janet is a 30-year-old who has recently been diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? A. Gastrocnemius weakness B. A reduced or absent ankle reflex C. Numbness in the lateral foot D. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks -correct answer D. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks Mr. Jackson is a 65-year-old man recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis. The clinician has explained to Mr. Jackson that the goals for managing osteoarthritis include controlling pain, maximizing functional independence and mobility, minimizing disability, and preserving quality of life. Mr. Jackson explains to the clinician that his first choice would be to use complementary therapies to control his condition and asks what therapies are most effective in treating osteoarthritis. What would be the most appropriate response from the clinician? A. "Complementary therapies should be considered only if surgical interventions are not successful." B. "I am unfamiliar with the available complementary therapies for osteoarthritis and prefer to discuss more mainstream treatments, such as NSAIDs and physical therapy, to manage your condition." C. "I would be happy to discuss all the treatment options available to you. Compleme - correct answer C. "I would be happy to discuss all the treatment options available to you. Complementary therapies, such as acupuncture, acupressure, and tai-chi, are being studied for use in the treatment of osteoarthritis and have shown promise when used with standard medical therapy." John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear? A. Valgus stress test B. McMurray circumduction test C. Lachman test D. Varus stress test -correct answer B. McMurray circumduction test The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as: A. Apprehension sign B. Bulge sign C. Thumb sign NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions D. None of the above -correct answer A. Apprehension sign A clinician has performed a synovial fluid analysis and the results are as follows: visual analysis: turbid and yellow, viscosity: decreased, 52,000 white blood cells (WBCs) per mm3, polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs): 75%, protein: 5 g/dL. Which of the following conditions could this result be attributed to? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Gout D. Septic arthritis -correct answer D. Septic arthritis Mr. S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician expect in the initial test results for this patient? A. Elevated uric acid level B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen C. Decreased urine pH D. Decreased C-reactive protein -correct answer A. Elevated uric acid level Debbie is a 43-year-old female being evaluated for a wrist injury. The clinician is assessing for median nerve compression by having Debbie maintain forced flexion of her wrist for 1 minute with the dorsal surface of each hand pressed together. Which of these tests did the clinician just perform? A. Allen's test B. Phalen's test C. Tinel's sign D. Finkelstein's test -correct answer B. Phalen's test Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc? A. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine B. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain C. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate D. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue -correct answer B. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain Felice is a 66-year-old female who complains that walking and prolonged standing causes pain and weakness in her legs and buttocks. She expresses that she has short- term relief when she leans on the shopping cart. When she sleeps on her back, she sometimes wakes up in the night in pain. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely? NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions B. Hydrocodone C. An opioid D. Muscle relaxant -correct answer A. Tylenol For acute pain, how many days are considered sufficient for treatment with opioids? A. 3 B. 5 C. 4 D. 9 -correct answer A. 3 Which of the following best describes the onset of action for a fentanyl patch after application? A. 12 to 16 hours B. 1 to 2 hours C. 17 to 19 hours D. 4 to 6 hours -correct answer A. 12 to 16 hours What is the likely result of the over-prescription, over-supply, and over-production of opioids? A. Opioid use B. Opioid abuse C. Opioid dependence D. Opioid resistance -correct answer B. Opioid abuse Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders? A. Benzodiazepines B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) C. Tricyclic antidepressants D. Cognitive behavioral therapy -correct answer D. Cognitive behavioral therapy Which of the following symptoms is NOT part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? A. Hypersomnolence B. Blunted feelings C. Loss of interest in significant activities D. Intrusive recurrent recollections of the event -correct answer A. Hypersomnolence It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault? A. Depression B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder C. Substance abuse D. PTSD -correct answer D. PTSD NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions Gladys has begun taking Prolia for osteoporosis. Which of the following should be included in teaching about this medication? A. This medication is an oral pill daily. B. This medication decreases the risk of infection. C. It is contraindicated in the event of hypocalcemia. D. A drug holiday every 8 months is recommended. -correct answer C. It is contraindicated in the event of hypocalcemia. Which of the following tests is considered the gold standard for definitively diagnosing osteoporosis? A. Bone alkaline phosphatase levels B. Urinary N-telopeptide assay C. Bone mass density measurement by densitometry D. Magnetic resonance imaging -correct answer C. Bone mass density measurement by densitometry A patient presents with symptoms of infectious mononucleosis. Which lab chemistry test should the clinician order? A. Viral load B. Hemoglobin A1c C. Western blot assay D. Heterophile antibody test -correct answer D. Heterophile antibody test Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) tends to occur in which individuals? A. Active, highly functional adults B. Depressed middle-aged adults C. Individuals with a depressed immune system D. Individuals who are hypochondriacs -correct answer A. Active, highly functional adults You have a patient who is a positive for strep on rapid antigen testing (rapid strep test). You order amoxicillin after checking for drug allergies (patient is negative) but he returns 3 days later, reporting that his temperature has gone up, not down (101.5°F in office). You also note significant lymphadenopathy, most notably in the posterior and anterior cervical chains, some hepatosplenomegaly, and a diffuse rash. You decide: A. To refer the patient B. That he is having an allergic response and needs to be changed to a macrolide antibiotic C. That his antibiotic dosage is not sufficient and should be changed D. That he possibly has mononucleosis concurrent with his strep infection -correct answer D. That he possibly has mononucleosis concurrent with his strep infection Infectious mononucleosis results from an acute infection with which of the following? A. Epstein-Barr virus B. Acute HIV infection C. Guillain-Barré NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions D. Hepatitis -correct answer A. Epstein-Barr virus What is the mainstay of management for infectious mononucleosis? A. Antivirals B. Symptom control C. Corticosteroids D. Isolation -correct answer B. Symptom control Keratoconjunctivitis sicca is a classic sign of which condition? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Sjögren's syndrome C. Fibromyalgia syndrome D. Lyme disease -correct answer B. Sjögren's syndrome When analyzing synovial fluid, if it has 10,000 white blood cells/mcL with 80% polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs), it may be indicative of which of the following conditions? A. None, this is a normal result B. Scleroderma C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sickle cell disease -correct answer C. Rheumatoid arthritis When analyzing synovial fluid, if it has 10,000 white blood cells/mcL with 80% polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs), it may be indicative of which of the following conditions? A. None, this is a normal result B. Scleroderma C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Sickle cell disease -correct answer C. Rheumatoid arthritis Which phrase describes rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? A. Localized synovial joint destruction B. Chronic exocrine dysfunction C. Systemic inflammatory disease D. Antibody-mediated cellular cytotoxicity response -correct answer C. Systemic inflammatory disease Which person is four times more likely to develop systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) than a Caucasian? A. One of African descent B. An Asian C. A Hispanic D. One from the Middle East -correct answer A. One of African descent A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia. There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which condition should be included in the differential diagnosis? NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions D. Nonpharmacological solution -correct answer A. Oxygen After returning from visiting his grandchildren in Connecticut, George, age 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. Which disease should the clinician be considering? A. Rubella B. Lyme disease C. Fibromyalgia syndrome D. Shingles -correct answer B. Lyme disease If left untreated, this condition will progress to complaints that include multiple joint arthritis. A. Sjögren's syndrome B. HIV/AIDS C. Guillain-Barré D. Lyme disease -correct answer D. Lyme disease Which condition if left untreated will progress to complaints that include multiple joint arthritis? A. Sjögren's syndrome B. HIV/AIDS C. Guillain-Barré D. Lyme disease -correct answer D. Lyme disease Lyme disease treatment -correct answer treatment for Lyme disease (doxycycline) Diana, 55, complains of ear pain, right facial weakness, and loss of taste. What diagnosis would you consider? A. Lyme disease B. Stroke C. Ear infection D. Brain tumor -correct answer A. Lyme disease Bipolar disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except? A. Substance abuse and medication effects B. Medical and neurological disorders Downloaded by J. Joyce Stanton ([email protected])lOMoARcPSD|15569321 C. Cluster B personality disorders and depression D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder -correct answer D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder Which medication is used as a first-line treatment in the management of bipolar disorder? A. Gabapentin B. Lamotrigine C. Carbamazepine NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions D. Topiramate -correct answer C. Carbamazepine Alexa is a 17-year-old female who participates in figure skating. Which of the following issues is she at risk for being in an aesthetic sport? A. Bulimia B. Drug abuse C. Asthma D. Presyncope -correct answer A. Bulimia The clinician is examining the skin of Mary, who would like to be cleared to play beach volleyball. What is the clinician's most important focus point when looking at her skin? A. Color of her skin, to see if she is easily sunburnt B. Acne, to see if she has sensitivity to perspiration C. Freckles, to assess if she potentially has a melanoma D. Contagious diseases, such as tinea, boils, impetigo, or herpes -correct answer D. Contagious diseases, such as tinea, boils, impetigo, or herpes In which of these athletes is posterior impingement syndrome most commonly seen? A. Cross country runner B. Swimmer C. Soccer player D. Ballet dancer -correct answer D. Ballet dancer Tatiana is receiving a sports physical to participate in cross-country running. She receives her exam from a single provider, who is examining all of the athletes one after the other in the nurse's office at school. Which of the following is a problem with this exam format for sports physicals? A. It is expensive, and her school will have to use a large amount of its budget to fulfill the sports physical requirement. B. It lacks individual attention that could increase the risk of insufficient medical history. C. It is disorganized, and the athletes may have the potential for inadequate integration of findings. D. It lacks privacy and the students may feel that their medical information is not being kept confidential. -correct answer B. It lacks individual attention that could increase the risk of insufficient medical history. The clinician is seeing Dahlia, a 15-year-old swimmer, for a sports physical. During examination, she notes she has had difficulty breathing while swimming over the last 3 days. Which of the following options is best for the clinician to pursue? A. Clear her to participate in swimming, as it is common to have some days of difficulty on exertion, especially if she has not been as active the week before. B. Refer Dahlia to the sports trainer prior to clearing her so she can work on her form and have less difficulty on exertion. C. Complete a workup for pulmonary hypertension, anemia, asthma, and cardiovascular issues prior to clearing her for participation. NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions D. Send her to the emergency room immediately, as this is very concerning and needs to be urgently addressed. -correct answer C. Complete a workup for pulmonary hypertension, anemia, asthma, and cardiovascular issues prior to clearing her for participation. Which of the following should be gathered from the family history during a sports physical? A. History of ADHD B. History of heart disease C. History of broken bones D. History of cancer -correct answer B. History of heart disease After discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a monoamine oxidase inhibitor? A. 2 weeks B. 3 weeks C. 4 weeks D. 5 weeks -correct answer D. 5 weeks •MAOIs and drug interactions -correct answer MAOI AND SSRIs cause Seratonin Syndrome It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period? A. Prior to the antidepressant reaching therapeutic levels B. As the mood lifts in response to antidepressant treatment C. During dosage or medication adjustments D. After the patient reveals suicidal thoughts or plans -correct answer B. As the mood lifts in response to antidepressant treatment Suicide plans are assessed on all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Specificity B. Possibility C. Availability D. Lethality -correct answer B. Possibility The stooped posture, motor slowness, and minor cognitive impairments of patients with major depressive disorders are similar to the signs of disorders of the basal ganglia, such as: A. Parkinson's disease B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome C. Neurological disease D. Huntington's disease -correct answer A. Parkinson's disease NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions A. Follow a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet B. Allow caffeine at each meal C. Avoid nuts and seeds D. Eat six small meals a day -correct answer D. Eat six small meals a day Which laboratory test result is diagnostic for hypoglycemia? A. A1c 7.0% B. Fasting blood sugar of 75 mg/dL C. Glucose level 43 mg/dL D. Random glucose level 64 mg/dL -correct answer C. Glucose level 43 mg/dL A patient presents to the emergency department with delirium, dilated pupils bilaterally, and hypoactive bowel sounds. Skin is flushed and dry; mucous membranes are dry. Upon admission, a urinary catheter was inserted with no output. These clinical manifestations describe which common toxidrome? A. Cholinergic B. Sedative-hypnotic C. Anticholinergic D. Sympathomimetic -correct answer C. Anticholinergic What condition is sometimes confused with anaphylaxis from an insect sting? A. Heat stroke B. Toxic syndrome C. Vasovagal reaction D. Inflammatory response -correct answer C. Vasovagal reaction Which diagnostic test is the best to diagnose a subdural hematoma? A. History B. Positron emission tomography C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. Computed tomography (CT) scan -correct answer C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Which causes the greatest percentage of mammalian bites? A. Dogs B. Cats C. Humans D. Rodents -correct answer A. Dogs Which arthropod bite can contain cytotoxic and hemolytic toxins that may destroy tissue? A. Tick B. Brown recluse spider C. Wasp D. Stinging caterpillar -correct answer B. Brown recluse spider NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions Why are people with cystic fibrosis (CF) especially vulnerable to heat stroke? A. Intravascular coagulation prevents the production of chloride. B. Blood flow to the skin is impaired in temperatures above 95°. C. Sweat glands are inactive in CF. D. Salts from perspiration are not reabsorbed after sweating. -correct answer D. Salts from perspiration are not reabsorbed after sweating. Why do benzodiazepines have less potential for toxicity than barbiturates? A. They cause decreased neuronal activity, depressed central sympathetic tone, and inhibit cardiac contractility. B. They increase ligand affinity and the frequency of ion channel opening, but not the duration of time the channel remains open. C. They act directly on inhibitory gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptors. D. They increase the average opening time of chloride ion channels. -correct answer B. They increase ligand affinity and the frequency of ion channel opening, but not the duration of time the channel remains open. A patient with a basilar skull fracture may experience an impaired downward gaze or diplopia from which affected cranial nerve? A. CN II B. CN III C. CN IV D. CN V -correct answer C. CN IV CSF may leak through the cribriform plate region of the skull following a head injury and cause which of the following? A. Ear CSF otorrhea B. Leakage of CSF from the eye C. Nasal CSF rhinorrhea D. Leakage of CSF from the mouth -correct answer C. Nasal CSF rhinorrhea HITS is a validated instrument used to identifying intimate partner violence. What does HITS stand for? A. Hit, Injured, Threatened, Scared B. Hurt, Insult, Threaten, Scream C. Humiliated, Isolated, Tortured, Scarred D. Harm, Injury, Terror, Shame -correct answer B. Hurt, Insult, Threaten, Scream If a suspected pneumothorax is discovered in the primary-care setting, what should happen first? A. Emergency medical services should be activated. B. Support cardiovascular and respiratory status as needed. C. Administer supplemental oxygen to reabsorb the pneumothorax. D. Initiate stabilizing treatments, including emergency chest-tube placement. -correct answer A. Emergency medical services should be activated. NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions What number represents normal neurological function on the Glasgow Coma Scale? A. 7 B. 9 C. 10 D. 15 -correct answer D. 15 What population represents almost 75% of wounds? A. Boys in the mid-to-late teens B. Men in their early 20s C. Women in the mid-40s D. Toddlers between 18 and 30 months -correct answer B. Men in their early 20s When giving discharge instructions to a patient with a laceration injury to his lower leg, which is the most important one? A. Recommend isometric exercises to prevent a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). B. Recommend cleansing the wound every 4 hours to prevent an infection. C. Keep the leg elevated at waist level to prevent any edema. D. Keep the leg completely immobile to prevent extension of the laceration. -correct answer A. Recommend isometric exercises to prevent a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm? A. Dilute povidone-iodine solution B. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) C. Saline solution infused with an antibiotic D. Saline irrigation or soapy water -correct answer D. Saline irrigation or soapy water Which of the following statements is true about antibiotic prophylaxis for most wounds? A. Antibiotics are not indicated. B. Antibiotics should always be ordered for a wound. C. Antibiotics need to be ordered for at least 2 weeks. D. Antibiotics should be ordered only if sutures are in place. -correct answer A. Antibiotics are not indicated. ADHD: •Treatment of choice for adults and children -correct answer BEHAVIOR THERAPY If stimulant drugs are not tolerated or contraindicated for the treatment of ADHD, what medication may produce a therapeutic effect? A. Daytrana B. Vyvanse C. Warfarin D. Atomoxetine -correct answer D. Atomoxetine What is the advantage of guanfacine (i.e., Tenex, Intuniv) over clonidine (i.e., Catapres, Kapvay) for the treatment of ADHD? NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions Which of the following would the nurse explain as the most common type of leukemia that affects children? A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) B. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) -correct answer C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) Sandra is 42 years old and has just been diagnosed with leukemia. She is complaining of bone and joint pain. Which type of leukemia is most likely the culprit? A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia B. Acute myelogenous leukemia C. Chronic myelogenous leukemia D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia -correct answer B. Acute myelogenous leukemia Which finding from the bone marrow aspiration is typical in a patient with CML? A. Schistocytes B. Howell-Jolly bodies C. Hemoglobin S gene D. Philadelphia chromosome -correct answer D. Philadelphia chromosome Which type of bone marrow transplant is obtained from an identical twin? A. Xenograft B. Autologous C. Allogeneic D. Syngeneic -correct answer D. Syngeneic Which hydrocortisone dose would the clinician prescribe for a patient with Addison's disease? A. 25 to 50 mg daily B. 0.5 to 0.2 mg daily C. 20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in early evening D. 2 to 4 mg in the morning and 1 to 2 mg in the evening -correct answer C. 20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in early evening Madonna is a 77-year-old female who presents to the clinic for an annual wellness examination. Which subcategory of the older population does she fit into, based on her age? A. Young-old B. Old C. Old-old D. Oldest-old -correct answer B. Old What is an integumentary system age-related change? A. Increased body odor B. Decreased heat loss NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions C. Moistness D. Decreased hair production -correct answer B. Decreased heat loss What is the median reduction in life expectancy among those with mental illness? A. 15.4 years B. 10.1 years C. 5.7 years D. 9.2 years -correct answer B. 10.1 years What is the health impact of low-dose alcohol consumption? A. Increased risk of developing alcohol addiction B. Increased risk of coronary artery disease C. Increased excitation of critical ion D. Increased high-density lipoproteins -correct answer D. Increased high-density lipoproteins Which of the following is true regarding old age and life expectancy? A. It is always defined as an adult aged 65 and older. B. The human life cycle is mostly consistent throughout the world. C. Old age is not a definite biological state. D. The life expectancy in the United States exceeds all other countries. -correct answer C. Old age is not a definite biological state. Which theory regarding the aging process is linked to cancer and Alzheimer's disease? A. Replicating senescence B. Weakening of the immune system C. Oxidative damage D. Telomere shortening -correct answer C. Oxidative damage Which of the following medications is appropriate to treat Paget's disease? A. Boniva B. Fosamax C. Reclast D. Forteo -correct answer C. Reclast Which statement by the patient would indicate teaching has been successful regarding management of Cushing's syndrome at home? A. "I will take cortisone on an empty stomach." B. "I will stay away from large crowds." C. "I will maintain a low-protein diet." D. "I will avoid foods high in potassium." -correct answer B. "I will stay away from large crowds." Characteristics of Cushings syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Heavy body and round face B. Atrophied skeletal muscle in the limbs NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions C. Staring eyes with infrequent blinking D. Atrophy of the lymph nodes -correct answer C. Staring eyes with infrequent blinking Which phrase describes deontology? A. The greatest amount of happiness or the least amount of harm for the greatest number B. The consideration of consequences with the calculation of benefits C. The belief that the ends justify the means D. The principle of universalizability -correct answer D. The principle of universalizability Which statement accurately describes the APRN's scope of practice? A. Regulation of the APRN's practice ensures public understanding. B. This delineates the permissible boundaries of APRN professional practice. C. It expands the APRN's practice outside each state's nurse practice act provisions. D. Each APRN defines his or her own aspect of practice to be included in a protocol. - correct answer B. This delineates the permissible boundaries of APRN professional practice. Which of the following is the best description of dyspnea? A. An oxygen saturation of less than 90% B. Respiratory rate greater than 24 C. A psychological state resulting in the feeling of air hunger D. A subjective feeling of breathlessness -correct answer D. A subjective feeling of breathlessness Which of the following is not a cause of secondary constipation? A. Hard stools B. Diet C. Pregnancy D. Medications -correct answer A. Hard stools Mr. W, 53 years old, is seen in the clinic with concerns about his left foot. He has a 40- year history of type 1 diabetes with "fairly good" control on twice-daily insulin. He denies injury but states that he tripped a few months ago and that his foot is sore when he walks. Physical examination reveals an edematous, erythremic, and warm foot. There is a superficial ulcer on the plantar surface. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Fallen arch B. Arthritis C. Charcot joint D. Sprained ankle -correct answer C. Charcot joint Which of the following tests should you order to confirm Mr. W's diagnosis? (Charcot foot) A. Bone scan B. Computed tomography (CT) scan NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions The Joint Commission mandates that all health-care organizations have which component in place? A. A mechanism for the consideration of ethical issues B. A standing ethics committee C. A resident parish nurse D. A lawyer who is knowledgeable about ethics -correct answer A. A mechanism for the consideration of ethical issues What is true about an acclimatized person? A. Aldosterone secretions are diminished B. Heat dissipation is impeded C. Cardiac output increases D. Aerobic muscle metabolism decreases -correct answer C. Cardiac output increases What term describes random quick jerking movements that flow from joint to joint? A. Dystonia B. Chorea C. Myoclonus D. Compulsions -correct answer B. Chorea Which intervention has been shown to diminish feelings of isolation, improve coping skills, and decrease the need for hospitalization in schizophrenia? A. Cognitive behavioral therapy B. Peer-delivered services C. Family-based therapy D. Assertive community treatment (ACT) model of care -correct answer B. Peer- delivered services The patient weighs 350 lbs and is on a weight loss program. After 6 months, which ideal weight in pounds should the clinician observe? A. 335 B. 325 C. 315 D. 305 -correct answer C. 315 In which area would the clinician evaluate a tender point in a patient with suspected fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS)? A. Fifth rib B. Trapezius C. Maxillary D. Midforearm -correct answer B. Trapezius A male patient with type 1 diabetes comes to the clinic complaining of feeling nervous and clammy. He states that he took his insulin this morning but was late for work and did not eat breakfast. Which action should the clinician take first? A. Administer glucagon subcutaneously. NUR601 Nursing Theory Exam 1 Questions with Complete Solutions B. Have him drink 4 ounces of juice. C. Call 911. D. Ask him about his usual eating habits. -correct answer B. Have him drink 4 ounces of juice.