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NURS 2063 EXAM-ESSENTIALS OF PATHOLOGY FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS 2023
Typology: Exams
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Question 1 Which of the following is a systemic effect from an inflammatory response? A. Redness and Swelling B. Blisters C. Pus D. Elevated temperature Question 3 A nurse is caring for an adult client with atopic dermatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Curving, white ridges between the fingers B. Chronic rash with thick skin C. Visible nits on scalp hair D. Acute rash following exposure to a plant allergen Question 4 What skin change is caused by the release of histamines? A. Pallor B. Erythema C. Ecchymosis D. Tenting Question 5 The client has been diagnosed with acromegaly. The nurse understands this condition can be caused by? A. An underactive adrenal gland B. An overactive adrenal gland C. An overactive pituitary gland D. An underactive pituitary gland Question 6 What is the pathophysiology of type I diabetes?
A. Loss of insulin receptors on the target cells, resulting in insulin resistance B. A pituitary tumor in the brain, resulting in increased antidiuretic hormone production C. Overproduction of insulin from the beta cells of the pancreas D. Destruction of the beta cells within the pancreas, resulting in an inability to produce insulin Question 7 What is a characteristic of coronary artery disease (CAD)? A. The build-up of infection by-products in the lymph nodes B. Insufficient delivery of carbon dioxide to the lungs C. The build-up of nile in the stomach and gallbladder D. Insufficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the myocardium Question 8 Which of the following clinical manifestations are present in anaphylactic shock? A. Tachypnea and airway dilation B. Airway obstruction and hypotension C. Airway dilation and hypertension D. Tachycardia and hypertension Question 9 Which of the following is a typical manifestation of decreased cardiac output? A. Increased gas exchange B. Dehydration C. Increased blood flow D. Fluid accumulation Question 10 Incorrect Question 10 A client has a regular heart rate of 54 beats per minute. The nurse would recognize the rhythm as which? A. Bradycardia B. Normal
C. Tachycardia D. Tachypne a Question 11 How does unstable angina pectoris differ from stable angina pectoris? A. Unstable angina pectoris is not relieved by period of rest B. Unstable angina pectoris is not as serious as stable angina C. Unstable angina pectoris can only be diagnosed by changes in cardiac biomarkers D. Unstable angina pectoris manifests in electrocardiogram (ECG) changes only Question 12 Which of the following blood pressure values is classified as stage 1 hypertension? A. 165/94 mmHg B. 148/89 mmHg C. 107/64 mmHg D. 136/85 mmHg Question 13 Which of the following are backward effects of right-sided heart failure A. Increased urination B. Immunosuppression C. Peripheral edema D. Pulmonary edema Question 14 A client with pheochromocytoma is scheduled to have the tumor surgically removed during the admission………? A. Hyperthermia B. Hyperkalemia C. Bradycardia D. Hypertension Question 15 I
A nurse educator is teaching a group of student nurses about the signs and symptoms of thyroid storm. Wh……? A. Hypotension, translucent skin, and obesity B. Nausea, bradycardia, and severe headache C. Fever, tachycardia, and systolic hypertension D. Profuse sweating, flushing, and constipation Question 16 Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism? A. Fatigue B. Weight gain C. Tachycardia D. Constipation Question 17 A client is brought into the emergency department with an acute infection. The healthcare? A. Increased number of white blood cells in the blood B. Increased size and shape of white blood cells in the blood C. Increased concentration of fibrinogen in the blood D. Increased number of immature red blood cells in the blood Question 18 Which type of white blood cells play a role in cell-mediated immunity and the production of immunoglobulin? A. Macrophages B. Lymphocytes C. Neutrophils D. Monocytes Question 19 What causes atherosclerotic plaques to form in the body? A. Injury to the endothelium B. Interruption of blood flow to the brain
C. Administration of statin medications D. Poor dietary modification Question 20 A client is diagnosed with hypertension as a result of their chronic renal failure and diabetes. This type of hypertension is called? A. Secondary hypertension B. Tertiary hypertension C. Primary hypertension D. Malignant hypertension Question 21 Chronic inflammation can lead to which of the following disorders in which the pericardium becomes thick……? A. Constrictive pericarditis B. Cardiomyopathy C. Myocardial infarction D. Myocarditis Question 22 Infective endocarditis is an infection that affects which parts of the cardiovascular system? A. The left and right atria B. The aorta or vena cava C. The left of right ventricle D. The endocardium or heart valves Question 23 Valve stenosis results in which of the following alterations in blood flow through the heart? A. Blood is unable to flow easily out of the valve because it does not fully open B. Blood is unable to flow easily out of the valve due to a problem with the papillary muscle C. Blood flows backwards across the valve because it does not close fully D. Blood flows backwards across the valve causing rupture of the heart chambers
Question 24 A. Question 25 Incorrect answer The nurse is reviewing a client’s lab results. The nurse knows the client with a pH of 7.3 and pCO2 of 55 mm Hg? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic acidosis CORRECT ANS: C Question 26 Which clients are at highest risk of pneumonia? A. Those in their 20s and 30s and generally healthy B. Those who are hospitalised and immunocompromised C. Those who exercise regularly and are not exposed to pathogens D. Those who have adequate respiratory function Question 27 The most common cause of bacterial pneumonia is which of the following microorganisms? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Excherichia coli C. Histoplasmosis D. Neisseria meningitidis Question 28 Which of the following activities is most likely to trigger exercise-induced asthma? A. Running B. Sleeping C. Bicycling D. Swimming Question 29 Incorrect answer Risk factors for respiratory disorders include all of the following except which?
A. High protein diet B. Asthma C. Smoking D. Bedrest CORRECT ANS: A Question 30 How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis the bacteria that causes tuberculosis (TB) transmitted to others? A. Skin to skin contact with the infected person B. Walking barefoot outdoors C. Airborne droplets inhaled through the lungs D. Oral-fecal transmission from poor hygiene Question 31 Which statement below differentiates asthma from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) A. Airflow obstruction caused by asthma is reversible whereas airflow obstruction in CORD is B. Airborne obstruction Question 32 The nurse is reviewing the difference between rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and osteoarthritis OA). Which of the following……? A. RA is an inflammatory joint disorder while DA is a degenerative joint disorder B. The disease pattern of RA is usually unilateral and affects a single joint, whereas OA is usually ….. C. The risk factors or causes of RA are probably autoimmune, whereas OA may be caused by age…… D. The typical onset of RA is between 35 and 45 years of age, whereas the typical onset of OA is in Question 33 Which of the following is a complication of compartment syndrome? A. Chronic kidney disease
B. Pain and tissue damage C. Increased limb function D. Hemorrhage Question 34 incorrect answer A 60 year-old client reports pain in the knees. The client denies any previous infections or pain in the spine ……? A. Rheumatic fever B. Lyme disease C. Reiter syndrome D. Osteoarthritis CORRECT ANS: D Question 35 Incorrect Answer Parkinson's disease is a degenerative disorder of which of the following region of the brain? A. Frontal lobe B. Anterior pituitary C. Basal ganglia D. Hypothalamus CORRECT ANS:C