NURS 617 EXAM 5 NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM STUDYGUIDE QUESTIONS AND DETAILED CORRECT ANSWERS, Exams of Nursing

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NURS 617 EXAM 5 NEWEST 2025

ACTUAL EXAM STUDYGUIDE

QUESTIONS AND DETAILED CORRECT

ANSWERS | A+ GRADE STUDYGUIDE

2024 - 2025

aortic stenosis Correct Answer - either d/t genetics or calcification of aortic valve cusps that increases resistance of ejection of blood from LV to aorta

• causes measurable decrease in CO; eventually leads to HF
• differs from aortic sclerosis d/t flow not being obstructed in sclerosis like it is in stenosis
• s/s: loud systolic murmor or split s
• tx: valve replacement, cholesterol rx, anti-HTN rx aortic regurgitation Correct Answer - (aortic insufficiency) incompetent aortic valve that allows backward flow of blood into left ventricle during diastole
• makes L ventricle increase stroke volume to include blood entering from lungs and blood leaking from aortic valve
• results in pulmonary edema and L side HF
• tx: valve replacement fetal heart development + circulation (fetal + perinatal) Correct Answer - heart develops between 4-7 weeks of gestation; first functioning organ in embryo

• fetal=o2 through placenta; fetal cardiac output +HR=higher d/t lower spo
• perinatal=o2 in lungs heart disease in pediatrics: prophylactic measures Correct Answer - prophylactic abx before dental procedures d/t risk of IE and RF patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Correct Answer - common in kids; an abnormal opening between the pulmonary artery and the aorta caused by failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus to close after birth
• failure to divert blood from R side of heart away from lungs; leads to pulmonary HTN and congestion
• s/s: machine like murmor continuous through systole + diastole, widened pulse pressure
• if untreated=results in congestive HF, IE, calcification, thrombus formation, aneurysm formation arterial septal defect Correct Answer - Increased pulmonary blood flow, risk for pulmonary vascular disease; increase in blood volume that must be ejected from R side; prolongs closure of pulmonary valve and produces separation of aortic + pulmonary components
• there is a hole between the atria; oxygenated blood from the left atrium is shunted to the right atrium and lungs
• do not compromise children seriously; surgical closure is recommended before school age; can lead to congestive heart failure or atrial dysrhythmias later in life if not corrected

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) Correct Answer - set of 4 congenital heart defects occurring together; blood shunted from R to L

• ventricular septal defect, dextroposition of the aorta, R ventricular outflow obstruction, R ventricular hypertrophy
• s/s: hypercyanotic "tet" spells (d/t crying, feeding, pooping d/t increased pulmonary resistance causing decreased pulmonary blood flow)
• tx: surgery, knee to chest position transposition of the great vessels Correct Answer - a congenital abnormality where the aorta is attached to the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery to the left ventricle (this is backwards and leads to two separate blood routes)
• surgery needed coarctation of the aorta (CoA) Correct Answer - severe congenital narrowing of the aorta
• s/s: weak distal lower extremity pulses, bounding proximal (ex: carotid and brachial), BP higher in arms than in legs (normally higher in legs by 10-20 mm Hg)
• surgery needed; risk for HTN post-op Kawasaki disease Correct Answer - immune response causes inflammation of blood vessels (hence the strawberry tongue) & coronary artery aneurysms
• effects skin, brain, eyes, heart, liver, and lymph nodes
• acute phase=4-8 weeks; abrupt fever, conjuctivitis, rash, swelling/edema, unresponsiveness to abx
• can lead to pericarditis, mitral regurgitation, myocarditis
• subacute=8 weeks-4y; peeling skin, s/s slowly disappear

pathophysiology of shock Correct Answer Decreased Blood Volume Decreased Venous Return Decreased Stroke Volume Decreased Cardiac Output Decreased Tissue Perfusion Impaired cellular metabolism/death cardiogenic shock Correct Answer - not enough oxygen is delivered to the tissues of the body d/t low CO/hypotension/hypoxia

• severe complication of a large acute myocardial infarction or DVT hypovolemic shock Correct Answer shock resulting from blood or fluid loss, most common obstructive shock Correct Answer - Shock that occurs when there is a block to blood flow in the heart or great vessels, causing an insufficient blood supply to the body's tissues
• ex: DVT, atherosclerosis distributive shock Correct Answer - Shock due to a shift of fluid from blood to tissues; results in low BP, loss of blood vessel tone, or enlarged vascular compartment
• ex: serious burns, hypothermia complications of shock Correct Answer Acute renal failure

Shock lung, acute lung injury, or adult respiratory distress syndrome Hepatic failure Paralytic ileus, stress or hemorrhagic ulcers Multi-organ dysfunction syndrome Infection or septicemia Disseminated intravascular coagulation Depression of cardiac function cardiac action potential: 5 steps Correct Answer - phase 0: QRS complex; rapid uptake of action potential; rapid influx of Na+ into cell, causes cardiac cell to change from - to +

• phase 1: early polarization; inactivation of Na+ channels
• phase 2: plateau (ST segment); K+ permeability is low, calcium slowly infiltrates
• phase 3: final repolarization period (T wave); rapid repolarization; sharp influx of K+
• phase 4: diastolic repolarization period; Na+ out, K+ in until resting membrane potential is reached (-60 to - 90mV); during diastole AND REPEAT cardiac conduction system Correct Answer 1. SA node (atrial conduction; pacemaker of the heart, fastest rate of firing)

2. AV node & bundle of his(connection between atria and ventricles; blocked=atria and ventricles beat separately; slower conduction)
3. purkinje system (ventricular conduction; rapid conduction; can assume pacemaker function if AV node conduction cannot pass)

absolute vs relative refractory period Correct Answer Absolute: membrane cannot be stimulated to produce action potential (prevents dysrhythmias); Na+ inactivation gate closes, activation gate still open Relative: membrane potential below threshold; Na+ inactivation gate reopens and activation gate closes [de- inactivation] - ready to participate in AP again supernormal excitatory period Correct Answer A weak stimulus can evoke depolarization Extends from the terminal portion of phase 3 until the beginning of phase 4 Cardiac arrhythmias develop EKG: what each segment represents Correct Answer P: SA node P-Q: delay in AV node tranmission QRS: ventricular contraction/purkinje S-T: repolarization of ventricles

• EKG detects early ischemia and prevents early MI complications
• improper lead placement can change QRS mechanisms of arrhythmias and conduction dx Correct Answer 1. automaticity: specific cells spontaneously initiating an impulse

2. excitability: cells ability to respond to an impulse
3. conductivity: cells ability to conduct impulses
4. refractoriness: extent of cells to respond to stimulus

*cardiac scar tissue slowens conduction, increases chance of unilateral block & arrythmias respiratory sinus arrythmia Correct Answer - normal P, QRS and T waves but the heart rate varies with respiration

• the rate increases on inspiration and decreases on expiration
• more common in kids sinus bradycardia Correct Answer < normal sinus rhythm, origin=SA node can be d/t rx, athletes Sinus Tachycardia Correct Answer >100 bpm normal sinus rhythm, origin=SA node can be d/t fever, blood loss, anxiety, exercise, SNS stimulation, loss of vagal tone supraventricular vs ventricular arrythmias Correct Answer
• supraventricular=dx of atrial rhythm or conduction above the ventricles (ex: afib, a flutter, PAC)
• ventricular=dx of ventricular rhythm or conduction; can be life threatening (ex: vtach, vfib) premature arterial contraction (PAC) Correct Answer - arrhythmia in which atria contract earlier than they should; SA node does not reach AV
• additional P wave

Atrial Tachycardia Correct Answer Rate: 150-250 beats per minute Regularity: regular P-waves: may be upright or inverted will appear different from underlying rhythm; up to 3 P waves QRS-complex: Normal PR interval- may be normal, shortened, or prolonged atrial flutter Correct Answer - irregular beating of the atria (240-450 bpm); re-entry of rhythm in R atria

• sawtooth pattern; no observable p wave Atrial Fibrillation (A-Fib) Correct Answer - an irregular and often very fast heart rate originating from abnormal conduction in the atria; atrial cells cannot repolarize in time for next stimulus
• atria=400-600bpm, ventricles=80-180bpm
• can occur w and w/o cardiac disease
• absent p wave, widened QRS
• pulse deficit: difference in apical rate and peripheral pulses **need anticoag rx Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia (PSVT) Correct Answer - A regular, narrow-QRS tachycardia that starts or ends suddenly
• can be d/t AV node re-entry
• HR 140-240 BPM

premature ventricular contraction (PVC) Correct Answer - a ventricular contraction preceding the normal impulse initiated by the SA node (pacemaker)

• QRS occurs before P wave Ventricular tachycardia (V-tach) Correct Answer - A life- threatening heart rhythm in which there is very rapid contraction of the ventricles, and the heart does not pump blood at all
• wide, tall, bizarre QRS; absent p wave. 70-250bpm
• origin=bundle of his Ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) Correct Answer - abnormal heart rhythm which results in quivering of ventricles
• no cardiac output, no palpable/audible pulses
• VFIB=DEFIB!
• BPM=150- 500 first degree AV block Correct Answer Prolonged PR interval (>0.20); delayed AV conduction second degree AV block Correct Answer - missed beats; action potential is not reaching the AV node, failure of conduction from atria to ventricles
• causes more p waves third degree AV block Correct Answer - atria and ventricles function independently
• QRSs and the P waves have no relation to each other
• permanent pacemaker required

PNS vs SNS impact on respiratory system Correct Answer PNS=airway constriction, increase in secretions SNS=airway dilation, decrease in secretions structure of lung Correct Answer - trachea

• splits into 2 bronchi - one to each lung
• bronchi split into smaller tubes - bronchioles
• bronchioles end in alveoli where gas exchange occurs
• R lung=3 lobes, L lung=2 lobes
• mediastinum holds lungs in place conducting airways Correct Answer - nasal cavity, oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, right and left pulmonary bronchi, bronchioles
• "conditions" inspired air; warms, filters, and moisturizes air as it passes through; mucous membranes moistened, blood flow warms, and mucociliary blanket removes foreign materials
• impairment of mucociliary blanket=increased debris in lungs; causes=tobacco, dust; results in chronic bronchitis, emphysema fever: effect on resp system Correct Answer - increase in water vapor=loss of water from mucosa=thicker mucous
• ^ why you need to increase h2o intake when sick nasopharyngeal Correct Answer - pertaining to nose and throat
• help protect against obstruction

larynx Correct Answer voice box; passageway for air moving from pharynx to trachea; contains vocal cords tracheobronchial tree Correct Answer branching structures of the respiratory system that resemble an upside-down tree trunk and its branches; includes trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles. function of lungs vs lobules vs alveoli Correct Answer - lungs: gas exchange, inactive vasoactive substances (bradykinin), convert angiotensin I to II. reservoir for blood storage.

• lobules: gas exchange
• alveoli: terminal air space for resp tract; gas exchange between air and blood. contains brush cells (monitor air quality of lungs) and macrophages (remove debris from lungs) alveoli: type I vs II pneumocytes Correct Answer I: 95% of cells; create barrier between air and alveoli wall, cannot divide II: 5%; synthesize surfacant, which decreases surface tension of alveoli to aid in expansion/inflation; starts maturing at 26-27 weeks, betamethasone used for pre- term babies to prevent ARDs pulmonary vs bronchial circulation Correct Answer Pulmonary Circulation=deoxygenated blood that flows from the right ventricle to the alveoli to be oxygenated. It returns to the heart via the pulmonary vein.

Bronchial Circulation=oxygenated blood that flows from the left ventricle (via the thoracic aorta) to supply the tissues of the lungs and tracheobronchial tree; some of the now-deoxygenated blood returns to the heart via the pulmonary vein, some by the bronchial veins, and some by the bronchopulmonary veins.

• can undergo angiogenesis (formation of new vessels) lymphatic circulation: resp system Correct Answer - superficial vessels: drains surface of the lungs, travels through connective tissue of visceral pleura
• deep lymphatic vessels: drains the pulmonary artery/veins, bronchial tree through bronchioles **aids in removal of particulates/plasma proteins to prevent excess fluid in the pleural cavity pleura of the lungs Correct Answer - serous membrane that lines the lungs; outer surface adheres to thoracic wall, inner adheres to lungs
• serous fluid between the 2 layers help protect the pleura
• inflammation of pleura = pleural effusion; produces machine-like sound **pleura=only part of lung w/ pain receptor lung volumes Correct Answer - tidal volume=500ml
• inspiratory reserve volume=air inspired in excess of the tidal volume
• expiratory reserve volume=volume of air expired in excess of tidal volume
• residual volume=volume of air remaining in lungs after max expiration

pulmonary function tests: forced vital capacity Correct Answer - max air that is rapidly/forcefully exhaled after full inspiration

• lower in obstructive diseases pulmonary function tests: maximal voluntary ventilation Correct Answer volume of air moved in and out max effort for 12-15 sec pulmonary function tests: forced expiratory volume Correct Answer - air expired in the first second of forced vital capacity
• used in diagnosis of obstructive disorders pulmonary function tests: forced inspiratory volume Correct Answer - respiratory response during maximal inspiration
• mid-expiratory flow rate=measurement of respiratory muscle dysfunction
• inspiratory flow relies more on effort pulmonary function tests: minute volume Correct Answer - amount of air exchanged in 1 min; dependent on metabolic needs
• minute volume: 6,000ml=500mL (tidal volume) X RR
• stiff/noncompliant: decreased VT and increased RR to meet needs
• obstructive: increased VT and decreased RR to meet needs

dead air space Correct Answer - air that occupies the space between the mouth and alveoli (conducting airways) but that does not actually reach the area of gas exchange

• increase in anatomic (150-200ml=normal) and alveolar (5-10ml=normal), dead space=increased lung disease
• ventilation w/o perfusion in dead space can result in pulmonary embolsim inspiration and expiration: impact on intrathoracic pressure Correct Answer - inspiration=decrease in intrathoracic pressure
• expiration=increase in intrathoracic pressure pulmonary shunt Correct Answer - blood moves from L to R side of circulation without being oxygenated
• anatomic: venous to arterial side without passing through lungs; congenital heart defect
• physiologic: insufficient ventilation to provide o2 to blood in alveolar capillaries (ex: HF, destructive lung disease)
• perfusion w/o ventilation can result in atelectasis or airway obstruction gas exchange in lungs Correct Answer - Occurs via diffusion
• O2 concentration is higher in the lungs than in the blood, so O2 diffuses into blood
• CO2 concentration in the blood is higher than in the lungs, so CO2 diffuses out of blood
• increased thickness of alveolar-capillary membrane=increased distance for diffusion; ex=pulmonary edema, pneumonia

what part of brain controls breathing Correct Answer - medulla oblongata in brain stem (aka pacemaker)

• chemoreceptors monitor blood levels of o2, co2, & pH
• lung receptors monitor breathing patterns and lung function
• coughing=reflex to protect lungs from secretions & debris dyspnea + causes Correct Answer - sensation/perception of difficulty breathing
• primary lung disease=asthma, pneumonia, emphysema
• heart disease/pulmonary congestion (L side HF)
• exercise induced, anxiety upper vs lower respiratory tract Correct Answer Upper: Nasal cavity, pharynx and larynx Lower: trachea, primary bronchi and lungs
• most common cause of infections=viruses pneumonia: bacterial + viral Correct Answer - bacterial infection + inflammation of lung tissue; alveoli in the affected areas fill w/fluid, impacts part or all of a lobe
• hospital or community acquired
• can also be viral (aka walking pneuomina); lack of alveolar exudate pneuomococcal pneumonia Correct Answer - acute bacterial pneumonia=most common; involves strep pneumoniae (gram +)

• s/s: sudden onset, fever, severe ineffective thermoregulation, pleuretic pain w/ movement, blood- tinged sputum, audible fine crackles
• prevent w/ vaccine in those 60+y/o pneuomococcal pneuomia: pathogenesis Correct Answer - congestion (24h): protein rich fluid w/ organism fills alveoli
• red hepatizations (2 or more days): increase in WBC/RBC, alveoli not able to move gases well; RBC bursting=pink or red mucous
• grey hepatization (2-3 days after red, up to 8 days): macrophages phagocytose debris and produce grey appearance; congestion improves
• resolution: immune cells worked against infection, fibrous growths dissolve (gas exchange improves), alveoli function recover tuberculosis Correct Answer - Mycobacterium tuberculosis
• enters lungs via air, triggers cell-mediated hypersensitivity response
• lytic enzymes released in lung and causes damage; result in ghon complex (lung lesion)
• healed dormant lesion=latent TB; can be reactivated
• s/s: fatigue, fever, weight loss, night sweats, chest pain, dry cough, anemia, dyspnea small cell lung cancer Correct Answer - 20 - 25% of lung cancers;rapidly growing tumor in bronchioles that tends to metastasize quickly, oftenly to brain
• strong association w/ tobacco

• causes neoplastic syndrome - tumor secretions (hormones, cytokines, TNF, Interleukin-1), may cause hypercalcermia, hypoglycemia, SIADH non-small cell lung cancer Correct Answer - Squamous cell carcinoma (25-40%); common in men and smokers; originates in central bronchi, spreads centrally; causes neoplastic syndrome
• Adenocarcinoma (20-40%): common in women and nonsmokers; originates in bronchiolar or alveolar tissue
• Large cell carcinoma (10-15%): metastasizes early, originates in outer edge of lung, invades bronchi and large airways s/s of lung cancer Correct Answer - dry hacking cough
• hoarseness
• dyspnea
• hemoptysis/rust colored sputum
• pain in chest area
• diminished breath sounds/wheezing
• pleural effusion
• common areas of metastasis: brain, liver, bone RDS in infants Correct Answer - most common in pre terms born gestation < 34 weeks
• s/s: nasal flaring, grunting, tachypnea, accessory muscle use
• betamethasone (surfacant) used in infants up to 36 weeks of gestation

Role of surfactant in the lungs Correct Answer coats inner surface of aveoli and reduces surface tension in aveoli to prevent collapse during expiration signs of respiratory distress in newborn Correct Answer Nasal flaring, cyanosis, retractions (ribs)- supra sternal, substernal and intercostal, see saw breathing or abnormal movement of chest/abdomen, increased RR + HR, confusion Viral vs spasmodic croup Correct Answer - aka laryngotracheobronchitis; impacts upper + lower airway

• viral=barking cough & inspiratory stridor; treat with racemic epinephrine & glucocorticoids if stridor at rest
• spasmodic croup=acute onset of stridor croup at night, resolves without treatment; usually d/t allergies epiglottitis Correct Answer - severe, life-threatening infection of the epiglottis and supraglottic structures that occurs most commonly in children between 2 and 12 years of age
• upper airway bacterial infection; d/t Haemophilus influenzae type B (HIB)
• tx: IV ABX, fluids, corticosteroids Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) Correct Answer - A virus that causes an infection of the lungs and breathing passages; can lead to other serious illnesses that affect the lungs or heart, such as bronchiolitis and pneumonia
• highly contagious and spread through droplets

• usually URI but can spread to lower resp signs of impending respiratory failure in children Correct Answer - size of airways in infants/small children results in respiratory distress being more serious
• s/s:cyanosis not relieved by oxygen administration, HR 150+, RR 60+ in newborns/30+ in children, retractions of intercostal spaces/sternum, fatigue, extreme anxiety/agitation, grunting, decreased chest movement Chylothorax pleural effusion Correct Answer - Collection of chylous (lymph fluid) usually d/t local infection OR trauma
• most common in fetus/neonates
• white, milky fluid in lymph (chyle) parapneumonic pleural effusion Correct Answer - exudates that accompany bacterial pneumonias; can cause lung abscess
• common after tx w/ pneumonia; if pt is stable and asymptomatic there is no more testing needed transudative pleural effusion Correct Answer - LDH and protein levels increase; fluid in pleural space
• d/t bacterial pneumonia and viral infections hemothorax Correct Answer - a collection of blood in the pleural cavity
• d/t injury, surgery, malignancy, vessel rupture; usually abrupt
• s/s: tachy, o2 decrease, increase in RR + resp effort, ventilation diminishes, breath sounds diminish

Pneuomothorax Correct Answer - Accumulation of air in the pleural space, also known as collapsed lungs.

• can be spontaneous (d/t rupture), traumatic (d/t penetrating or nonpenetrating wound), tension (intrapleural pressure exceeds atmosphere, air cannot enter or leave; LIFE THREATENING) asthma Correct Answer - A chronic allergic/inflammatory disorder characterized by episodes of severe breathing difficulty, coughing, and wheezing
• genetic predisposition - IgE hypersensitivity response
• causes airway inflammation, bronchospasm, mucus production, epithelial damage
• T cells, eosinophils, cytokines, neutrophils, and macrophages activated types of asthma: mild vs severe vs progressive Correct Answer mild=slight wheeze, chest tightness, prolonged expiration, slight increase in HR more severe=accessory muscle use, decreased breath sounds, air trapping, loud wheeze progressive=diaphoretic/anxious/worsening SOB/airflow very reduced, breath sounds inaudible..diminished wheeze=ominous sign of resp failure COPD Correct Answer - chronic obstructive pulmonary disease- progressive, chronic/recurrent airflow obstruction/air trapping/decreased gas exchange
• manifestations: loss of lung elasticity (proteases break down elastin), loss of alveolar tissue (proteases break

down alveolar walls), hypertrophy of mucosal glands (increased mucous production), fibrosis, inflammation

• common in smokers, alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency Emphysema Correct Answer - a condition in which the air sacs of the lungs are damaged and enlarged, causing breathlessness
• 2 types: centrilobular (smokers; upper lobes and superior lower lobes) and panlobular (ATT deficiency; early- peripheral alveoli, later=central bronchioles) chronic bronchitis Correct Answer - inflammation of bronchi persisting over a long time causes hypertrophy + hypersecretion of mucus/inflammation/fibrosis; type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
• airway obstruction of major and small airways
• most common causes=recurrent infections and smoking chronic interstitial (restrictive) lung disease Correct Answer - group of lung disorders producing inflammatory and fibrotic changes; effect collagen/elastic connective tissues of alveolar walls, which causes decreased lung volume/hypoxemia/decreased diffusion
• insidious; 1st sign=SOB w/ exercise, nonproductive cough, wheezing, hypoxemia @ rest, hypercapnia/resp acidosis
• examples: pulmonary fibrosis, interstitial pneumonia, asbestosis, sarcoidosis Acute lung injury (ALI)/Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) Correct Answer - rapid onset within 12-

18h after event (infection, trauma, chronic lung disease or neuromuscular disease)

• respiratory system fails gas exchange and/or ventilation
• local and systemic inflammatory response; causes widespread endothelial injury, increases permeability of alveolar membrane and becomes filled with fluid...lungs become stiff and difficult to inflate
• results in hypoxemia, hypercapnia, respiratory acidosis acute respiratory failure: ventilation vs perfusion/vent mismatching Correct Answer ventilation=normal perfusion w/ inadequate ventilation d/t insufficient o2 to aveoli and retained co2; d/t upper airway obstructions, chest wall injury, or weakness/paralysis of respiratory muscles perfusion/ventilation mismatching=adequate ventilation w/ inadequate perfusion OR perfused but not ventilated; hypoxemic failure; d/t advanced COPD, severe pneumonia, or atelectasis cystic fibrosis Correct Answer - two copies of recessive allele (transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene)
• characterized by an excessive secretion of mucus and consequent vulnerability to infection; fatal if untreated
• GI manifestations (fatty stool) right ventricular hypertrophy with cor pulmonale Correct Answer - causes pulmonary HTN, results in hypertrophy of R ventricle and eventually R side HF
• severe fluid build up in lungs can lead to shock

atherosclerosis development: 3 stages Correct Answer 1. endothelial injury (smoking, obesity, HTN); causes increase in adhesion of platelets + phagocytic monocytes

2. migration of inflammatory cells; macrophages engulf lipoproteins (LDLs) and creates "foam-like" cells
3. fibrous plaque forms; central core=lipid-laden foam cells. can result in hemmorhage into plaque or thrombotic occlusion atherosclerosis vs arterial sclerosis Correct Answer atherosclerosis=type of arterial sclerosis arterial sclerosis=hardening/thickening of vessel wall; loss of elasticity arterial vs venous disease Correct Answer arterial=decreased blood flow to tissues venous=decreased blood return + removal of waste products arterial circulation: 3 diseases Correct Answer 1. atherosclerosis: progressive dx d/t formation of fibrofatty plaques in large or medium arteries. risk factors=hyperlipidemia & inflammation
4. vasculities: inflammation of blood vessels (arteries/veins/capillaries); d/t direct injury, infection, or immune process
5. aneurysms: dilation of artery d/t weakness in vessel wall; as size increases, % of rupture increases lipid levels + role: total, LDL, HDL Correct Answer total: <200 (high risk=240+)

LDL: <100; carries cholesterol to peripheral tissues HDL: 40+; protective; removes cholesterol from tissues to liver for disposal **liver=major role in LDL metabolism; poor liver function=increased LDLs atherosclerosis: risk factors + arteries effected Correct Answer - HTN, smoking, AA race, diabetes, age, genetic predisposition (low LDL receptors=increase risk d/t increased need for macrophages to digest lipids; forms foam cells)

• birth control, HIV meds, beta-blockers, estrogens
• arteries supplying heart, brain, kidneys, lower extremities, small intestine athersclerosis: 3 types of lesions Correct Answer 1. fatty streak - yellow

2. fibrous plaque - grey/pearly
3. complicated lesion - scar tissue, ulceration, thrombosis risk Giant Cell Arteritis (Temporal Arteritis) Correct Answer - granulomatous inflammation of aorta + its major branches (ex: carotid); autoimmune panarteritis d/o frequently affecting the temporal artery (lupus, RA)

• s/s: blurred vision or diplopia, fever, myalgia, arthralgia. increased CRP & ESR
• risk for aortic aneurysm
• tx: high dose corticosteroids

acute arterial occlusion Correct Answer - sudden blockage of an artery, typically in the lower extremity (tibial, pedal, peroneal), in the patient with chronic peripheral arterial disease

• 50% narrowing of artery until s/s appear
• s/s: intermittent claudication (pain w/ walking that resolves w/ rest), pallor, shiny skin w/o hair, weak pedal pulse, cool to touch, sores that wont heal
• dx: lower systolic BP in ankle than brachial, doppler ultrasound
• tx: aspirin, plavix; NO NICOTINE OF ANY KIND thrombroangitis obliterans/burger disease Correct Answer
• inflammatory arterial disorder that causes thrombus formation; effects medium sized arteries (femoral, digital, plantar)
• s/s: pain distal to arterial ischemia, intermittent claudication in arch of foot + digits, malformed nails
• extremities can turn gangrene & require amputation **NO NICOTINE; TRIGGERS INFLAMMATORY RESPONSE raynaud disease vs phenomenon + tx Correct Answer - intense vasospasm of arteries + arterioles in fingers, sometimes toes; ischemia causes pallor/cyanosis
• disease=precipitated by cold or extreme emotions; not a secondary disorder, seldom causes tissue necrosis
• phenomenon= can cause tissue necrosis; d/t previous tissue trauma (ex: frost bite, heavy vibratory tools, lupus/collagen dx)