NURS 6551 FINAL EXAM TEST BANK Advanced Practice care of Adults Walden University, Exams of Nursing

Download NURS 6551 FINAL EXAM TEST BANK Advanced Practice care of Adults Walden University and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! lOMoARcPSD|28578405 NURS 6551 FINAL EXAM TEST BANK Advanced Practice care of Adults Walden University NURS 6551 Final Exam Question 1 2 out of 2 points What is the general goal of surgical treatment for stress UI? Answer: D. To support and stabilize the urethra Question 2 2 out of 2 points Gender differences in heart disease can be found in: Answer: D. All of the above Question 3 2 out of 2 points Sarah, who just found out she is pregnant, is taking prenatal vitamins with extra daily supplements of iron. She may be a candidate for Answer: B. Premature delivery. Question 4 2 out of 2 points Margie, who has been breastfeeding for 4 weeks, has mastitis in her right breast and is taking Dixcloxacillin. She asks you what she needs to do about feeding the baby. You respond Answer: B. "There is no need to stop breastfeeding, but start with your left side." Question 5 What is a possible cause of abdominal pain during pregnancy? Answer: A. Round ligament pain Question 14 2 out of 2 points A 28-year-old pregnant patient, at 18 weeks gestation, complains of feeling lightheaded when standing. which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse practitioner? Answer: D. Blood pressure normally decreases during pregnancy and can cause this symptom. Question 15 2 out of 2 points In order to maintain continence bladder pressure must be Answer: D. lower than urethral pressure. Question 16 2 out of 2 points How does the third stage of labor end? Answer: B. With the delivery of the placenta Question 17 2 out of 2 points Which of the following drugs should be used with extreme caution in breastfeeding mothers? Answer: C. Phenobarbital Question 18 How can hormonal influences during pregnancy cause backache? Answer: A. They loosen ligaments and joints. Question 19 2 out of 2 points According to Naegele's rule, if a woman's last normal menstral period (LNMP) was September 23, what is her estimated date of delivery? Answer: D. June 30 Question 20 2 out of 2 points A poorly defined, flat, blue-black macule, present at birth and usually on the trunk and buttocks, is a Answer: C. Mongolian spot Question 21 0 out of 2 points The majority of early pregnancy losses are due to: Answer: D. Chromosomal abnormalities Question 22 2 out of 2 points Without treatment shortly after birth, as many as 90 percent of infants born to hepatitis B– infected mothers will: Answer: D. Become infected Question 23 A 28-year-old pregnant patient gives a history of smoking 1 pack of cigarettes per day (1 PPD). The nurse practitioner is accurate when she tells the patient that cigarette smoking is associated with: Answer: A. Intrauterine growth restriction Question 24 2 out of 2 points Which of the following does not increase a woman's risk for developing cervical cancer? Answer: D. Nulliparity Question 25 0 out of 2 points A nurse practitioner is holding a prenatal nutrition class for a group of patients. Considering cultural variations, which of the following women may be increased risk for inadequate intake of calcium? Answer: A. A 35-year-old Caucasian Question 26 2 out of 2 points What is the best description of Bishop's score? Answer: A. It is an assessment of the cervix's readiness for elective induction. Question 27 Answer: B. Gradually weaning the baby to a bottle or cup over a 3-week period Question 33 2 out of 2 points Uncomplicated acute bacterial cystitis occurs in women who: Answer: B. Have no signs of upper tract infection Question 34 2 out of 2 points Which of the following diseases is not acquired transplancentally? Answer: C. Tuberculosis Question 35 2 out of 2 points NSAID use during pregnancy has been linked to which condition in newborns? Answer: C. Pulmonary hypertension Question 36 2 out of 2 points Carrie is due to deliver her second baby. During your work-up, you note that she hemorrhaged after delivering her first baby 2 years ago, has always had menorrhagia, and bruises easily. Her lab work reveals a normal blood work-up, including a normal prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. What do you suspect? Answer: A. Von Willibrand's disease Question 37 2 out of 2 points Screening for hyperlipidemia is recommended to begin at what age for women with no risk factors? Answer: C. 45 Question 38 0 out of 2 points A 20-year-old female patient presents with lower abdominal pain, moderate vaginal bleeding, and right shoulder pain. Her blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg, pulse 140, respirations 28, and temperature 98 deg. F. She has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Her urine pregnancy test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Answer: D. Threatened spontaneous abortion Question 39 2 out of 2 points Which of the following recommendations should you provide to parents about reducing the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)? Answer: C. A bare crib with firm sleep surface; no soft objects, wedges, or ruffles. Question 40 2 out of 2 points What is the recommended timing for gestational diabetes screening? Answer: B. 24-28 weeks' gestation Question 41 2 out of 2 points What is an indication of the second stage of labor? Answer: A. Complete dilation of the cervix Question 42 2 out of 2 points Liza is 34 weeks pregnant and has mild hypertension. You are performing a nonstress test (NST). What is the criterion for a reactive NST? Answer: C. At least two fetal heart rate accelerations in response to fetal movement in a 20- minute test period. Question 43 2 out of 2 points You see G5P4015 on a client's history form. You surmise that Answer: B. The woman has five living children, including a set of twins, and she has had one abortion. Question 50 2 out of 2 points An example of an X-linked recessive condition or trait is Answer: C. Hemophilia Question 51 0 out of 0 points 4.What tends to cause acne in adolescence? a.A decrease in estrogen b.Dietary changes c.Hormonal birth control use d.An increase in testosterone 5.What tends to cause acne in adolescence? Answer: fluctuations in hormone levels 6.The onset of labor is indicated by regular uterine contractions and: a. Complete dilation of the cervix b. Change in the position of the fetus c. Rupture of the membranes d. Progressive cervical change 7.Which of the following statements does not support the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease? a. Crying every day b. Forgetting where she puts things c. Getting lost driving to the grocery store d. Lost ability to balance a checkbook 8.A 23-year-old woman is seeing the clinician because of chronic headaches. These headaches are typically preceded by seeing flashing lights. These visual distortions spontaneously resolve followed by throbbing pain on either the right or left side of her head. Pain is associated with photophobia, nausea, and vomiting. The most likely diagnosis is: a.Cluster headache b.Migraine headache c.Temporal arteritis d.Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) 9.When is round ligament pain most likely to occur in pregnant women? a.Between 6–8 weeks’ gestation b.Between 24–28 weeks’ gestation c.Between 10–12 weeks’ gestation d.Between 16–20 weeks’ gestation 10.Postpartum depression occurs in about what percentage of women who give birth? a.5–10% b.25–30% c.10–15% d.1–5% 11.About how many breastfeeding women are affected by lactation mastitis? a.10% b.20% c.15% d.25% Question 22 2 out of 2 points Which of the following is a predictor of impending preterm birth? Answer: A. Positive fetal fibronectin testing Question 23 2 out of 2 points What tends to cause acne in adolescence? Answer: D. An increase in testosterone b. Prehypertensive c. Stage 1 hypertension d. Stage 2 hypertension 61.Approximately how many reproductive-age women in the United States meet the BMI criteria for obesity? a. 1 in 5 b. 1 in 10 c. 1 in 4 d. 1 in 7 62.What should be addressed during late postpartum maternal evaluation (weeks 2–6)? a. The healing of the mother b. The need for birth control information or supplies c. The birth plan of the mother d. The latching-on response of the infant 63.What is important to consider when vaginal bleeding occurs during the first trimester? a. Uterine size b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Viral infection d. HIV 64.Optimal weight gain during pregnancy is based on the woman’s pre-pregnant BMI and: a. Age b. Height c. Nutritional assessment d. Caloric intake 65.What is the most common disorder leading to hyperthyroidism? a. Parkinson’s disease b. Graves’ disease c. Multiple sclerosis d. Epilepsy 67.A 72-year-old woman is presenting with chest pain. Which of the following statements best differentiates chest pain due to angina versus myocardial infarction? a. Angina pain is frequently relieved by nitroglycerin. b. Angina pain is more substernal and does not radiate to other areas. c. Myocardial pain with an infarction is always associated with fatigue. d. Myocardial pain with an infarction is more severe. 68.At what time during pregnancy does nausea typically occur? a. At 3–6 weeks’ gestation b. At 6–8 weeks’ gestation c. At 12–15 weeks’ gestation d. At 1–3 weeks’ gestation 17.After how many weeks’ gestation is a pregnancy loss considered a fetal death or stillbirth? a. 18 weeks b. 30 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 24 weeks 18.What can be used as a space-filling device, replacing normal pressure on the vaginal walls when levator ani support is unreliable? a.Diaphragms b.Tampons c.Kegels d.Sacral nerve stimulators 19.All of the following symptoms are associated with chest pain and representative of coronary artery disease except: a. Diaphoresis b. Jaw pain c. Pain with inspiration d. Shortness of breath 20.Screening for hyperlipidemia is recommended to begin at what age for women with no risk factors a.35 b.40 c.45 d.50 21.What is the potential danger of a fetus born through meconium-stained amniotic fluid? a. The infant will not be able to relax its anal sphincter. b. The infant can breathe meconium into the lungs. c. The infant can get meconium caught in the esophagus. d. The infant will be born with jaundice. 22.What does rosacea describe? a. Adult acne b. Nail fungus c. Swelling of the joints d. Pruritis 23.Any woman with a complicated cystitis or symptoms of upper tract disease needs a urine culture and: a. Sensitivity test b. Gestational diabetes c. Hepatitis d. Anemia 24.What is the definition of a primary headache? a. A headache that occurs only before and during menstruation b. A headache is caused by a preexisting condition c. A headache that is not a symptom of, or caused by, another condition d. A headache that is characterized by muscle tension 25.What is the leading cause of first-trimester maternal death? a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Complications from prior gynecologic surgeries c. Abortion d. Complications from unresolved STIs 26.When considering a diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease, the clinician should: a. Interview her with a family member or close friend b. Interview her separately (alone) then with a family member or close friend c. Obtain the history from a family member or close friend d. Rely on client observation without obtaining a history 27.What is the most common cause of death in women in the United States? a. Breast cancer b. Cardiovascular disease c. Cervical cancer d. Lung cancer 28.What percentage of pregnant women in developed countries have iron-deficiency anemia? a.20% b.10% c.15% d.5% 71.What is the term for stimulation of the uterus by an external agent to enhance uterine contractions after labor has started? a. Exteriorization b. Induction c. Augmentation d. Presentation 72.Uncomplicated acute bacterial cystitis occurs in women who: a. Are pregnant b. Have no signs of upper tract infection c. Have a high fever d. Have had recent antibiotics 73.Chest pain associated with irritation of the myocardial nerve fibers (such as with angina pectoris or myocardial infarction) is due to an increase in: a. Blood glucose b. Lactic acid c. Serum magnesium d. Serum potassium 74.What was the reason that prenatal care began in the early 1900s? a. To screen for preeclampsia b. To predict preterm births c. To assess women’s nutritional needs d. To test women for disease d. Eczema 38.What is a potential benefit of circumcision? a. Decreased incidence of urinary tract infections b. Prevention of prostate cancer c. Increased immunity against herpes simplex virus d. Prevention of transmission of sexually transmitted bacteria 39.Without treatment shortly after birth, as many as 90 percent of infants born to hepatitis B– infected mothers will: a. Develop HIV b. Have cognitive difficulties c. Need blood transfusions d. Become infected 40.Fever associated with pyelonephritis will usually resolve within how many hours of treatment with antibiotics? a.24 hours b.12 hours c.72 hours d.80 hours 41.What is more likely to occur in women with female genital cutting? a.Low birth-weight babies b.Birth-related complications c.Miscarriages d.Premature births 42.What is the general goal of surgical treatment for stress UI? a. To increase the capacity of the bladder b. To increase pressure on the vaginal walls c. To support and strengthen the levator ani d. To support and stabilize the urethra 43.The clinician is ordering a lipid panel for a 50-year-old woman. The following advice should be given: a.Eat a normal breakfast the morning of the blood draw b.Fast for 12 hours prior to the blood draw c.No dietary changes d.Eat a low-fat breakfast the morning of the blood draw 44.All except which of the following are important historical questions for a 29-year-old woman in clinic for right-sided weakness? a. Use of oral combined hormonal contraceptives b. Recent childbirth c. History of recent deep venous thrombosis d. History of pelvic inflammatory disease 45.What is the initial symptom of Lyme disease, seen in approximately 70 to 80 percent of people infected with the bacterium? a.Red facial patches b.A circular red rash c.Rough bumps on the skin d.Shortness of breath 46.According to the CDC, what percentage of pregnant women continues to drink alcohol during their pregnancies? a.10% b.20% c.25% d.30% 52.Which of the following is a predictor of impending preterm birth? a. Positive fetal fibronectin testing b. Cervical length less than 15 mm c. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid d. Cord prolapse 53.What is significant about cytomegalovirus (CMV)? a. It cannot be transmitted by person-to-person contact. b. It can remain dormant within the body for life. c. It is the most dangerous virus that can be transmitted to a fetus. d. It is experienced by about 25 percent of childbearing-age women before pregnancy. 54.A 30-year-old woman comes to clinic concerned about a headache that feels like a “rubber band squeezing her head,” which occurs nearly daily. It lasts several hours and is not associated with nausea or vomiting. She has no family history of migraine headaches. Her physical exam is within normal limits. The most likely diagnosis is Answer: Tension Headaches 55.What is the percentage of all unintended pregnancies in the United States? a.5% b.15% c.25% d.50% 56.How often does breech presentation occur in singleton pregnancies? a.1–2% b.3–4% c.6–7% Any woman with a complicated cystitis or symptoms of upper tract disease needs a urine culture and: Answer: A. Sensitivity test Question 3 2 out of 2 points What is significant about cytomegalovirus (CMV)? Answer: B. It can remain dormant within the body for life. Question 4 2 out of 2 points How can hormonal influences during pregnancy cause backache? Answer: A. They loosen ligaments and joints. Question 5 2 out of 2 points In the formula to estimate gestational age, woman are considered pregnant from: Answer: A. The first day of the last menstrual period Question 6 2 out of 2 points What is considered to be a common trigger of psoriasis? Answer: A. Stress Question 7 2 out of 2 points What is a contributor to the increased incidence of heartburn during pregnancy? Answer: D. The pregnancy hormone relaxin, which softens the lower esophageal sphincter Question 8 2 out of 2 points What is an indication of the second stage of labor? Answer: A. Complete dilation of the cervix Question 9 2 out of 2 points When is round ligament pain most likely to occur in pregnant women? Answer: D. Between 16–20 weeks’ gestation Question 10 2 out of 2 points How are pregnancy-related DHA (docosahexaenoic acid) needs best met? Answer: A. By consuming 2 servings of fatty low-mercury-content fish per week Question 11 2 out of 2 points Qualitative urine testing for hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) can be done reliably days after implantation of the blastocyst (fertilized egg). The primary endocrine disorders affecting women are diabetes mellitus and: Answer: B. Thyroid conditions Question 35 0 out of 2 points What is a potential benefit of circumcision? Answer: A. Decreased incidence of urinary tract infections Question 36 2 out of 2 points What was the reason that prenatal care began in the early 1900s? Answer: A. To screen for preeclampsia Question 37 2 out of 2 points What do current theories suggest as to how cranberry products can reduce UTIs? Answer: B. The fructose keeps E. coli bacteria from adhering to bladder cell walls. Question 38 2 out of 2 points Screening for hyperlipidemia is recommended to begin at what age for women with no risk factors? Answer: C. 45 Question 15 2 out of 2 points At what time during pregnancy does nausea typically occur? Answer: B. At 6–8 weeks’ gestation Question 16 2 out of 2 points In order to maintain continence bladder pressure must be Answer: D. lower than urethral pressure. Question 17 2 out of 2 points What is the most common disorder leading to hyperthyroidism? Answer: B. Graves’ disease Question 18 2 out of 2 points What is the most common cause of medical complications in pregnancy? Answer: A. Hypertension Question 19 2 out of 2 points What is the term for a postpartum disorder in which bacteria ascend from the lower genital tract and infect the uterus? Answer: B. Postpartum endometritis Question 20 2 out of 2 points What has changed in terms of recommended antibiotic treatment for uncomplicated lower UTIs? Answer: C. Three-day regimens are now recommended. Question 21 2 out of 2 points What is more likely to occur in women with female genital cutting? Answer: B. Birth-related complications Question 45 2 out of 2 points Optimal weight gain during pregnancy is based on the woman’s prepregnant BMI and: Answer: A. Age Question 46 2 out of 2 points What should be addressed during late postpartum maternal evaluation (weeks 2– 6)? Answer: B. The need for birth control information or supplies Question 47 2 out of 2 points How does the third stage of labor end? Answer: B. With the delivery of the placenta Question 29 Question 40 2 out of 2 points After how many weeks’ gestation is a pregnancy loss considered a fetal death or stillbirth? Answer: C. 20 weeks Question 41 2 out of 2 points What is important to consider when vaginal bleeding occurs during the first trimester? Answer: B. Ectopic pregnancy Question 42 2 out of 2 points How does women’s anatomy make them more susceptible to UTIs? Answer: D. Their urethras are shorter. Question 43 2 out of 2 points What significantly increases the risk of hypertension in women? Answer: A. The onset of menopause Question 44 2 out of 2 points A common prenatal care model in which women have their first visit with one provider and then subsequent visits in a group setting is called: Answer: C. Centering Pregnancy Question 46 2 out of 2 points A 30-year-old female patient is seeking advice from the nurse practitioner about becoming pregnant. She is currently taking an oral contraceptive. She gives a history of having a hydatidiform molar pregnancy 2 years ago. The appropriate plan of care for this patient should include: Answer: C. Discontinuing the oral contraceptive Question 47 2 out of 2 points A woman with hyperemesis gravidarum would most likely benefit from a plan of care designed to address which of the following nursing diagnosis? Answer: C. Anxiety, related to effects of hyperemesis on fetal well-being Question 48 2 out of 2 points What step can a clinician take to learn more about any chemicals used in a woman’s workplace? Answer: C. Ask the woman to obtain her workplace MSDs (material safety data sheets). Question 49 2 out of 2 points What is the general goal of surgical treatment for stress UI? Answer: D. To support and stabilize the urethra Question 50 2 out of 2 points