NURS MISC EXAM 2 | QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS 2023 A+SUCCESS GUARANTEED, Exams of Nursing

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1. Antipyretic medications (aspirin, ibuprofen, acetaminophen) are used to alleviate the discomforts of fever and to protect vulnerable organs, such as the brain, from extreme elevations in body temperature. However, the use of aspirin in children is limited due to the possibility of what disease? a. Guillain-Barré syndrome b. Munchausen's syndrome c. Angelman's syndrome d Reye's syndrome
2. What nursing interventions are included in the plan of care for a client receiving antacids to relieve GI discomfort? a. Limit fluid intake to decrease dilution of the medication in the stomach. b. Administer this drug with other drugs or food. c. Have the patient swallow the antacid whole and do not crush or chew the tablet. d Administer the antacid 1 hour before or 2 hours after other oral medications.
3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving intrathecal baclofen. The client is unresponsive. After asking a coworker to contact the provider, the nurse anticipates performing which intervention? a. Obtaining an electrocardiogram b Preparing to support respiration c. Administering diazepam to prevent seizures d. Administering an antidote to baclofen
4. A nurse is presenting an educational event for a group of new parents. One topic that the nurse addresses is the overuse of acetaminophen, which can cause liver toxicity. What would the nurse tell the parents it is important to do?

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a. “Monitor their child's temperature carefully and regulate the Tylenol dose based on the fever.” b “Check the label of over-the-counter (OTC) medications carefully to watch for inclusions of acetaminophen in the ingredients.” c. “Mix OTC children's medications to get the best coverage for their child's symptoms.” d. “Do not give acetaminophen (Tylenol) unless you receive a doctor's order.”

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who will be going home on baclofen prescribed for his acute musculoskeletal pain. The nurse will stress that the client should avoid what? a. Taking antihistamines b. Taking antibiotics c. Drinking alcohol d. Taking antiemetics
6. A client has localized muscle spasms after an injury. The prescriber has ordered dantrolene to alleviate the spasms. When obtaining the patient’s health history, the nurse should be concerned about which of the following as a possible reason for considering another drug? a. A history of malignant hyperthermia b. A history of liver damage c. Occasional use of alcohol d. Concomitant use of aspirin
7. A patient asks the nurse how the anti-infective works in their body. What key point will the nurse use to explain this to the client? a. All anti-infectives work in the same way to destroy all organisms.

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b The goal of anti-infectives is to interfere with normal functioning of the organism. c. Anti-Infectives cause the same side effects and have the same action. d. All anti-infectives are made from mold.

8. When caring for a client diagnosed with a peptic ulcer, the nurse administers omeprazole along with what antibiotic to eradicate Helicobacter pylori? a. Amoxicillin b. Tetracycline c. Gentamicin d. Ketoconazole
9. What is the therapeutic action of the prochlorperazine in reducing nausea? a. Producing sedation b. Blocking histamine receptors c. Change responsiveness of the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) d. Reduce the production of gastric acid
10. A client is about to receive penicillin G for an infection that is highly sensitive to this drug. While obtaining the client’s medication history, the nurse learns that the client experienced a rash when given amoxicillin as a child 20 years earlier. What will the nurse do? a. Suggest using a desensitization schedule to administer the drug. b Request an order for a skin test to assess the current risk. c. Reassure the client that allergic responses diminish over time. d. Ask the provider to order a cephalosporin.
11. The nurse administers loperamide (Imodium) to decrease the number and liquidity of stool by what mechanism? a. Blocking the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) b. Decreasing intestinal motility c. Absorbing toxins d. Binding with fecal material to increase bulk

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12. The nurse, writing a care plan for a client on an aminoglycoside, includes what intervention to reduce the accumulation of the medication in the kidneys? a. Increase fluids. b Decrease activity. . c. Avoid caffeine intake. d Decrease consumption of fruits and vegetables. .
13. A nursing student is caring for a client who is taking sucralfate and ciprofloxacin to treat peptic ulcer disease. The student asks the nurse about the pharmacokinetics of sucralfate. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching? a. “Sucralfate adheres to the ulcer and blocks the back-diffusion of hydrogen ions.” b. “Sucralfate does not cause systemic side effects.” c. “Sucralfate and ciprofloxacin should be administered 1 hour apart.” d. “Sucralfate has a moderate acid-neutralizing capacity.”
14. The nurse teaches a client with rheumatic disease who is being prescribed salicylate therapy to monitor himself for toxicity. Which symptom is a potential indication of toxicity? a. Stomatitis b. Hirsutism c. Tinnitus d. Visual changes
15. When administering anti-infectives to patients, the nurse is aware of the risk for what potentially fatal adverse effect? a. Gastrointestinal toxicity b. Toxic effects on the kidney c. Anaphylaxis d. Eighth cranial nerve damage

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16. What classification of drugs does the nurse administer to treat peptic ulcers by suppressing the secretion of hydrochloric acid into the lumen of the stomach? a. Antipeptic agents b. Antacid c. Proton pump inhibitors
17. A client is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The patient is in distress. The nurse suspects an anaphylactic reaction resulting from taking oral penicillin. Which assessment findings would support that diagnosis? a. Temperature: 102º, swollen joints b. Profuse sweating, Blood Pressure: 92/ c. Hematocrit (Hct): 32%, decreased urine output d. Facial swelling, difficulty breathing
18. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an opioid analgesic. What are the nurse's priority assessments? a. Level of sedation and respiratory rate. b. Pain intensity and blood glucose level. c. Urine output and lung sounds. d. Urine output and blood glucose level.
19. Clients taking metoclopramide need to be assessed for extrapyramidal symptoms. What effects are considered adverse effects of the metoclopramide? a. Spasms, abnormal facial and neck movements b. Anxiety, and dizziness c. Hypertension, confusion d. Blurred vision, and decreasing pain

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20. An inhaled sympathomimetic drug has been ordered for an athlete who has exercise- induced asthma. What should the client be instructed to do? a. Use the inhaler every day at the same time each day. b. Use the inhaler as soon as the symptoms start. c. Use the inhaler 30 to 60 minutes before exercising to ensure peak therapeutic levels when needed. d. Use the inhaler 2 to 3 hours before exercising to ensure peak effectiveness.
21. The physician orders dantrolene for a patient with severe spasticity. In what circumstances is the medication dantrolene contraindicated? a. Spasticity that is painful b. Spasticity that involves the arm and the leg on the same side c. Spasticity that contributes to upright position d. Spasticity that contributes to disability
22. A client presents to the emergency department having an acute asthma attack. The physician has ordered a sympathomimetic (epinephrine). The nurse expects what as the therapeutic effect of this drug? a. Decrease the inflammatory response in the airways b. Reduce the surface tension within the alveoli allowing for gas exchange c. Inhibit the release of histamine and slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis (SRSA) to prevent the allergic asthmatic response d. Dilation of the bronchi with increased rate and depth of respirations
23. A postoperative client is being discharged home with acetaminophen/hydrocodone for pain. The client asks the nurse about using additional acetaminophen for fever. Which statement by the nurse is correct? a. “Taking the two medications together poses a risk of drug toxicity.”

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b. “Tylenol and Lortab are different drugs, so there is no risk of overdose.” c. “It is not safe to take over-the-counter drugs with prescription medications.” d. There are no known drug interactions, so this will be safe.”

24. A nurse is admitting a client to the hospital. The patient reports taking oral baclofen but stopped taking the drug the day before admission. The nurse would be correct to anticipate which adverse effects? a. Seizures and hallucinations b. Weakness and dizziness c. Respiratory depression and coma d. Fatigue and drowsiness
25. A client is brought to the clinic by his daughter for a routine appointment. The daughter tells the nurse that her father has only taken half of his amoxicillin prescription because he has limited finances and he is saving them for when he gets another infection. What does the nurse teach the client that is a potential consequence of this behavior? a. Increased therapeutic effect b. A decreased risk for a dermatologic reaction c. Increased risk for nausea and vomiting d. Increased risk for developing a superinfection
26. What action does the histamine-2 antagonist administered by the nurse have on the human body that will help to prevent peptic ulcer disease? a. Destroys Helicobacter pylori b Reduces the amount of hydrochloric acid secreted c. Increases the pH of the secreted hydrochloric acid d. Coats and protects the stomach lining
    27. The client is admitted to the acute care facility with an acute infection and has orders to receive gentamicin and ampicillin IV. The nurse is performing an admission assessment that includes a complete nursing history. What information provided by the client would indicate the need to consult the health care provider before administering the ordered medication?

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a. Had prostate surgery 3 months ago b Takes furosemide, a potent diuretic, daily c. Allergic to peanuts and peanut products d. History of hypothyroidism

28.. The nurse is preparing to contact the physician for an antibiotic order for the client's infection. What information will the nurse be prepared to provide for the physician to choose the proper antibiotic? a. First day of infection symptoms b. Culture and sensitivity test results c. The patient's intake and output for past 2 days d. Results of complete blood count with differential

29. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge with a prescription for sucralfate and teaches the client to take the medication when? a. With meals b. With an antacid before breakfast c. 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals and at bedtime d. After each meal
30. The nurse is caring for a client receiving penicillin. The nurse knows this type of antibiotic works by what mechanism? a. Inhibiting growth and development of the organism b. Inhibiting protein synthesis c. Inhibiting cell wall biosynthesis d. Stimulating bacterial reproduction
31. The nurse is caring for a client receiving IV aminoglycosides for an intractable infection in the leg. What would it be important for the nurse to monitor this client for? a. Visual disturbances b. Liver dysfunction c. Serum glucose levels d. Renal dysfunction

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32. The nurse is admitting a 12-year-old girl to the acute care facility and notices discolored secondary teeth. The mother says she doesn't know why the teeth are discolored because the child is very good about brushing and flossing and sees the dentist regularly. What question would the nurse ask? a. “Has she ever received tetracycline?” b. “Has she ever received gentamicin?” c. “Has she ever received ampicillin?” d. “Has she ever received cephalexin?”
33. The nurse has provided client teaching for a client who will be discharged to home on an anti-infective. What statement made by the client indicates the nurse needs to provide additional teaching concerning the use of anti-infectives? a. “Antibiotics will not help me when I have a viral infection.” b. “A bacterial culture will be done before antibiotics are prescribed for me.” c. “I could develop diarrhea as a result of taking an antibiotic.” d. “ I will stop taking the antibiotic as soon as I feel better.”
34. The nurse administers ranitidine cautiously to clients with evidence of what condition? a. Renal disease b. Diabetes mellitus c. Pulmonary disease d. Migraine headaches
35. The nurse administers psyllium expecting it to have what action? a. Slows peristalsis b. Prevents reabsorption of water into bowel c. Has antibacterial properties d. Adds bulk to the stool
36. A patient has been taking psyllium (Metamucil) 2 to 3 times daily for several days. The patient complains of stomach pain but has not had a stool. What will the nurse do?

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a. Ask the patient to drink a full glass of water. (professors answer) b. Give another dose of the psyllium. c. Request an order for a bisacodyl (Dulcolax) suppository. d. Palpate the patient’s abdomen and auscultate for bowel sound

37. A nurse preparing to administer intravenous gentamicin to a client notes that the dose is half the usual dose for an adult. The nurse suspects that this is because this client has a history of: a. antibiotic resistance. b. interpatient variation.(professors answer) c. liver disease. d. renal disease.
38. A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about local anesthetics. Which statement by a student reflects an understanding of the teaching? a. “Local anesthetics affect large myelinated neurons first.” (professors answer) b. “Local anesthetics affect motor and sensory nerves.” c. “Local anesthetics do not block temperature perception.” d. “Local anesthetics do not cause systemic effects.”
39. A nurse collects a culture sample of infected tissue. What does the result of testing the culture contribute to the client's care? a. Identifies the specific organism causing the infection b. Pinpoints the exact location of the infection c. Identifies all individualized patient factors contributing to infection d. Describes the length of time the patient has experienced infection
    40. A client who is taking metoclopramide has come to the clinic for a follow-up visit. The nurse will be most concerned about a drug-drug interaction when learning the client is taking what other medication? a. Albuterol b. Digoxin

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c. Furosemide d. Aspirin

41. A client receiving a cephalosporin develops severe diarrhea and fever. The nurse suspects a superinfection and possible infection with which of the following? a. Skin rash b. Strep throat c. Oral thrush d. Clostridium difficile
42. A client is given a prescription for gentamycin and asks the nurse why the dose on the first day is twice the amount of the dose on the next 4 days. Which reply by the nurse is correct? a. “ A large initial dose helps to get the drug to optimal levels in the body faster.” b. “The first dose is larger to minimize the first pass effect of the liver.” c. “The four smaller doses help the body taper the amount of drug more gradually.” d. “Tubular reabsorption is faster with initial doses, so more is needed at first.”
43. A 54-year-old client is going on an ocean cruise. What medication would be most effective for motion sickness? a. Ondansetron b. Captopril c. Hydroxyzine d. Cimetidine
44. A student nurse asks her study group how to define a drug allergy. What would be the peer group's best response? a. A second effect of the body to a specific drug b. The formation of antibodies to a drug protein causing an immune response when the person is next exposed to that drug. c. A serum sickness caused by a reaction to a drug d. Immediate systemic reaction to the drug when exposed to the drug the first time.

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45. What drug is a safe and effective calcium channel blocker only if the nurse administers them as sustained-release or extended-release preparations to treat hypertension? a. Aliskiren (Tekturna) b. Diltiazem (Cardizem) c. Atenolol (Tenormin) d. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
46. While studying the antihypertensive drugs, the nursing students learn that the pressure in the cardiovascular system is determined by three elements. What are they? (Select all that apply.) a. Heart rate b. Stroke volume c. Preload d. Total peripheral resistance e. Pulse pressure
47. The nurse works with the patient, diagnosed with hypertension, and the patient's family to determine the goal of drug therapy for the patient taking an antihypertensive medication is what? a. Maintaining compliance b. Maintaining the blood pressure within normal limits c. Maintaining a fluid volume balance d. Maintaining homeostasis
48. The nurse provides drug teaching to the patient prescribed captopril (Capoten). What statement made by the patient does the nurse interpret to mean teaching has been effective? a. “I will limit my fluid intake to 1,200 mL daily.” b. “I will call my doctor if I bruise easily or become extremely tired.” c. “I will move from a reclining to a standing position slowly.” d. “I will increase my intake of foods high in potassium.”

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49. The nurse is providing drug teaching for a patient who is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). What drug specific adverse effect will the nurse include in the drug teaching? a. Sedation b. Persistent cough c. Tachycardia d. Rash
50. An older adult patient is taking a sustained-release antihypertensive drug. What is the nurse's priority teaching point about this medication? a. “Take your blood pressure only at night.” b. “ Swallow the drug whole and do not cut, crush, or chew it.” c. “Take the drug before bedtime.” d. “Use over-the-counter (OTC) drugs to control headache or cold symptoms.”
51. A patient taking a calcium channel blocker is seen in the clinic and diagnosed with drug toxicity. When collecting the nursing history, what finding would indicate the likely cause of this drug toxicity? a. Intake of alcohol b. The use of eggs in the diet c. The ingestion of grapefruit juice d. Intake of aged cheese
52. A patient taking diltiazem (Cardizem) for hypertension has come to the clinic for a follow- up appointment. What adverse effects would the nurse assess the patient for? a. Chest pain and pale skin b. Shortness of breath and wheezing c. Peripheral edema and bradycardia d. Tachycardia and increased energy level
53. A patient with glaucoma has been prescribed acetazolamide (Diamox). What adverse effects would the nurse caution the patient about? (Select all that apply.)

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a. Paresthesia b. Confusion c. Drowsiness d. Vomiting e. Hyperkalemia

54. A patient has just been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). After reviewing the patient's medication history, what drug would cause the nurse concern when taken with furosemide (Lasix)? a. Acetaminophen b. Ferrous sulfate (Feosol) c. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn) d. Ampicillin
55. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with essential hypertension. The nurse is aware that the health care provider will begin therapy with which classification of diuretics? a. Loop diuretics b. Carbonic anhydrous inhibitor c. Thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics d. potassium-sparing diuretics
56. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of a patient who has been prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL). Which situation would contraindicate the administration of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)? a. Allergy to sulfa drugs b. Allergy to codeine c. BP 160/ d. Blood glucose level of 140 mg/dL
57. A 91-year-old patient is being discharged on the diuretic spironolactone (Aldactone). What is the major adverse effect of this type of medication? a. Hypokalemia

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b. Hyperkalemia c. Gastric irritation d. Hypertension

58. A 64-year-old patient in hypertensive crisis is to receive furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. How will the nurse administer the medication? a. Give 4 mL over 1 to 2 minutes IV. b. Give 4 mL over 10 minutes. c. Flush the line with normal saline, give 1 mL/min, flush again when finished. d. Fix 10 mL in an IV piggyback and deliver it over 30 minutes. e. in 100 mg/10 mL containers.
59. A student asks the pharmacy instructor what the difference is between the diuretics spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix). What would the instructor reply? a. Potassium losses are lower with spironolactone. b. Potassium losses are greater with spironolactone. c. Water losses are greater with spironolactone. d. Sodium losses are greater with spironolactone.
60. The nurse is talking with a group of nursing students. What drug would the nurse tell them, when combined with furosemide (Lasix), is likely to cause hearing loss? a. Codeine b. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) c. Digoxin (Lanoxin) d. Gentamicin (Garamycin)
61. The pharmacology instructor is discussing diuretic drugs with the nursing class. What would the instructor cite as an adverse effect of loop diuretics? a. Hyperkalemia b. Alkalosis c. Hypertension

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d. Hypercalcemia

62. The emergency department (ED) nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing pulmonary edema. The patient is treated with furosemide (Lasix). What will the nurse monitor? a. Sodium levels b. Bone marrow function c. Calcium levels d. Potassium levels
63. The class of diuretics that act to block the chloride pump in the distal convoluted tubules and leads to a loss of sodium and potassium and a minor loss of water is what? a. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor b. Osmotic diuretics c. Potassium-sparing diuretics d. Thiazide diuretics
64. A plan of care formulated by an operating room (OR) nurse includes four nursing diagnoses. Which diagnoses will the nurse include that is directly related to safety? a. Deficient knowledge regarding drug therapy b. Disturbed sensory perception (kinesthetic, tactile) related to anesthesia c. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility d. Risk for injury related to central nervous system (CNS) depressive effects of drugs
    65. The nurse is developing a plan of care for the patient undergoing general anesthesia. What is a priority of care for this patient? a. Reassure the patient that about safety. b. Maintain regular repositioning.
65. The nurse is caring for a patient in a state of hypnosis, which means the patient is in what state? a. state of extreme sedation in which the person no longer senses or reacts to incoming stimuli. b. A state of tranquility in which the person can be made to do whatever is suggested by others. c. A feeling of tension, nervousness, apprehension, or fear with high levels of awareness.

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d. A state in which the brain is no longer sending out signals to the body.

67. For which client would the administration of an epidural block be most appropriate? a. A client who requires suturing of a laceration of the palm of the hand. b. A client who is in the second stage of labor. c. A client who requires neurosurgery for the removal of a brain tumor. d. A client with a humerus fracture needing closed reduction surgery
68. Gas anesthetics such as nitrous oxide must be combined with what element before they can be administered to the client? a. Water b. Oxygen c. Nitrogen d. Helium
69. The nurse is preparing to admit a client that has received conscious sedation. What is the most important area to assess when the client returns from the procedure that uses this type of anesthesia? a. Temperature b. Pulse c. Blood Pressure d. Respiratory Rate
70. Identify this statement as true or false. There are 3 phases of a general anesthetic, administration of a general anesthetics: induction, maintenance, recovery. a. True b. False
71. An 80-year-old patient presents at the clinic for a follow-up appointment. She is taking a macrolide antibiotic and is experiencing tinnitus. The nurse is talking with family members about home care for the patient. What should the nurse include in her instructions regarding home care?

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a. Keep the patient in a prone position when in bed. b. Eliminate salt from the patient's diet. c. Provide protective measures to prevent falling or injury. d. Monitor exposure to sunlight.

72. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving a broad-spectrum anti-infective agent. The nurse would assess the patient for what common adverse effect of broad spectrum anti- infective agents? a. Destruction of pathogens b. Decrease in infection c. Destruction of the normal flora d. Decrease in inflammation
73. The home care nurse is taking care of a patient on IV vancomycin for cellulitis of the left calf. How would the nurse explain how microorganisms develop resistance to anti- infective medications? a. Microorganisms can alter the blood supply to the infection. b. Microorganisms can stop the cell from reproducing. c. Microorganisms produce a chemical that acts as an antagonist to the drug. d. Microorganisms change their cell membrane to make it look like the drug.
74. When conducting patient teaching about using antibiotic medications, what is it critical for the nurse to include to help stop the development of resistant strains of microorganisms? a. Antibiotics should be used quickly to treat colds and other viral infections before the invading organism has a chance to multiply. b. Antibiotic dosage should be reduced and used for shorter periods of time to reduce unnecessary exposure to the drug. c. Prescriptions for antibiotics should be readily available so they can be filled as soon as patients suspect they have an infection. d. It is very important to take the full course of an antibiotic as prescribed and not save remaining drugs for future infection
75. What priority teaching does the nurse include when instructing clients about the use of

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antacids? A. Reduce calorie intake to reduce acid production B. Take before each meal and before bed C. Be aware of risk of acid rebound with long-term use D. Consider liquid diet if diarrhea occurs. ALL of these are from the four lectures Module 5 - 8 (module 5 doesnt seem to be right but I did pull from the lecture)

1. Which of the following has been found to be as important as drug therapy when treating infections in the immunosuppressed? A. Maintaining standard precautions B. Proper nutrition C. Good hand washing D. Exercise
2. You are caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with a pseudomonas infection. You know that in deciding what medication to order for this patient the physician will take what into account? A. The patient's age B. The patient's gender C. The drug that causes the least complication D. The drug that has the longest half-life
3. T or F Because of the adverse effects of the aminoclycosides, it is important to teach the patient to restrict fluids and eat 6 small meals daily False
4. You are writing a plan of care for a patient receiving Cefaclor. What would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient? A. Deficient fluid volume and imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements, related to diarrhea B. Chronic pain related to GI, CNS effects of drug

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C. Monitor renal function test values D. Perform culture and sensitivity tests at the site of infection

5. What is a contraindication to receiving a fluoroquinolone? A. Over 65 years B. Weight under 100 pounds C. Allergy to Cipro D. History of cancer
6. T or F Sulfonamides should not be given with thiazide diuretics because of a cross sensitivity of the drugs True
7. T or F: There are three phases of a general anesthetic. True
8. What important assessment should the nurse make before a patient receives a general anesthesia? A. Assess pulse pressure B. Assess skin lesions C. Assess family support D. Assess preoperative teaching Assess skin lesions
9. T or F The GI system is controlled by the nerve plexus which maintains basic electrical rhythm. True
10. t or F When the renal capsule becomes irritated the gastrointestinal tract shuts down. True

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11. Drugs act in several ways on the secretions of the GI tract. Which action affects the GI secretions least? A. Decreases secretory activity B. Blocks secretions C. Replaces secretions D. Prevents erosions
12. T or F There is a drug-drug interaction between the antipeptides and penicillin. False
13. What H2 antagonist has been associated with antiandrongenic effects? A. Famotidine B. Cimetidine C. Nizatidine D. Ranitidine
14. Which of the following is a very popular OTC laxative? A. Cascara B. Magnesium citrate C. Bisacodyl D. Polycarbophil
15. t or f ; Pepto-Bismol can be involved in salicylate toxicity. True
16. Why should laxatives be taken only on a short-term basis? A. To prevent a fluid volume deficit B. To prevent cathartic dependence C. To obtain relief of abdominal distention D. To obtain relief of intestinal cramping
17. Hormones function within the body in two ways. One way is for it to enter the cell and react with what? A. Estrogen B. ACTH

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C. Cellular DNA D. Messenger RNA

18. The release of which hormone prepares the body for "fight or flight?" A. ADHD B. ACTH C. Aldosterone D. ADH
19. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hyperglycemia? A. Edema B. Lack of thirst C. Itchy skin D. Hyperexcitability
20. T or F; Second generation sulfonylureas have several advantages over first generation sulfonylureas including the fact that they interact with more protein bound drugs. False
21. Which of the following is a primary action of glucose lowering agents? A. Accelerate the breakdown of glycogen B. Increase insulin release C. Improve binding to insulin receptors D. Decrease use of incretins
22. What does Starlings law of the heart address? a. Automatic properties of the heart b. Conductive properties of the heart c. Contractile properties of the heart d. Pressure properties of the heart
23. T or F; When reading an EKG a nurse knows that the P-R interval represents the normal delay of conduction at the AV node. True
24. A premature atrial contraction signifies a change in focus in which of the following?

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A. Automaticity B. SA node C. AV node D. Contractility

25. T or F; The use of a loop diuretic is the first drug used in the Step Care Management program to treat hypertension. False
26. The mechanism of action of an ACE inhibitor is the blocking of ACE from converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II. What does this cause? A. Decrease in serum potassium levels B. Decrease in aldosterone production C. Sodium and fluid loss D. Increase in blood pressure
27. The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old African American woman who was just prescribed an ACE inhibitor for management of her hypertension. What should be advised related to contraception? A. The use of spermicidal jellies is recommended. B. The mini pill is the contraception method of choice. C. Use barrier contraceptives to prevent pregnancy while taking these drugs. D. No special precautions need to be taken. 28 What is the action of thiazide diuretics? A. Blocks the chloride pump B. Blocks the sodium pump C. Blocks the potassium pump D. Blocks the carbonic anhydrase pump
28. T or F; The loop diuretics cause the body to excrete a copious amount of potassium-rich urine. False

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