Nurs282 Exam Questions with Answers all Correctly Solved, Exams of Nursing

Download Nurs282 Exam Questions with Answers all Correctly Solved and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1. A nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a colonoscopy and whose bowel preparation will include polyethylene glycol electrolyte lavage prior to the procedure. The presence of what health problem would contraindicate the use of this form of bowel preparation? A) Inflammatory bowel disease B) Intestinal polyps C) Diverticulitis D) Colon cancer Ans: A 2. A nurse is promoting increased protein intake to enhance a patients wound healing. The nurse knows that enzymes are essential in the digestion of nutrients such as protein. What is the enzyme that initiates the digestion of protein? A) Pepsin B) Intrinsic factor C) Lipase D) Amylase Ans: A 3. A patient has been brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain and is subsequently diagnosed with appendicitis. The patient is scheduled for an appendectomy but questions the nurse about how his health will be affected by the absence of an appendix. How should the nurse best respond? A) Your appendix doesnt play a major role, so you wont notice any difference after you recovery from surgery. B) The surgeon will encourage you to limit your fat intake for a few weeks after the surgery, but your body will then begin to compensate. C) Your body will absorb slightly fewer nutrients from the food you eat, but you wont be aware of this. D) Your large intestine will adapt over time to the absence of your appendix. Ans: A 4. A patient asks the nursing assistant for a bedpan. When the patient is finished, the nursing assistant notifies the nurse that the patient has bright red streaking of blood in the stool. What is this most likely a result of? A) Diet high in red meat B) Upper GI bleed C) Hemorrhoids D) Use of iron supplements Ans: C 5. An adult patient is scheduled for an upper GI series that will use a barium swallow. What teaching should the nurse include when the patient has completed the test? A) Stool will be yellow for the first 24 hours postprocedure. B) Barium may cause diarrhea for the next 24 hr C) Fluids must be increased to facilitate the evacuation of the stool D) Slight anal bleeding may be noted as the barium is passed. Answer: C 6. A patient has come to the outpatient radiology department for diagnostic testing. Which of the following diagnostic procedures will allow the care team to evaluate and remove polyps? A) Colonoscopy b) Barium Enema c) ERCP d) upper gastrointenstinal fibroscopy Ans: A 7. A nurse is caring for a patient with recurrent hematemesis who is scheduled for upper gastrointestinal fibroscopy (UGF). How should the nurse in the radiology department prepare this patient? A) Insert a nasogastric tube. B)Administer a micro Fleet enema at least 3 hours before the procedure. C) Have the patient lie in a supine position for the procedure. D)Apply local anesthetic to the back of the patients throat. Answer: D 8. The nurse is providing health education to a patient scheduled for a colonoscopy. The nurse should explain that she will be placed in what position during this diagnostic test? A) In a knee-chest position (lithotomy position) B) Lying prone with legs drawn toward the chest C) Lying on the left side with legs drawn toward the chest D) In a prone position with two pillows elevating the buttocks Ans: C 9. A patient has sought care because of recent dark-colored stools. As a result, a fecal occult blood test has been ordered. The nurse should instruct the patient to avoid which of the following prior to collecting a stool sample? A) NSAIDs B) Acetaminophen C) OTC vitamin D supplements D) Fiber supplements Ans: A 10. The nurse is preparing to perform a patients abdominal assessment. What examination sequence should the nurse follow? A) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation B) Inspection, palpation, auscultation, and percussion C) Inspection, percussion, palpation, and auscultation D) Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation B) Lipase C) Amylase D) Trypsin E) Ptyalin Ans: B, C, D 21. The nurse is caring for a patient with a duodenal ulcer and is relating the patients symptoms to the physiologic functions of the small intestine. What do these functions include? Select all that apply. A) Secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl) B) Reabsorption of water Secretion of mucus Absorption of nutrients Movement of nutrients into the bloodstream Answer: C, D, E 22. A nurse is performing an abdominal assessment of an older adult patient. When collecting and analyzing data, the nurse should be cognizant of what age- related change in gastrointestinal structure and function? A) Increased gastric motility B)Decreased gastric pH C) Increased gag reflex D) Decreased mucus secretion Answer: D 23. The nurse educator is reviewing the blood supply of the GI tract with a group of medical nurses. The nurse is explaining the fact that the veins that return blood from the digestive organs and the spleen form the portal venous system. What large veins will the nurse list when describing this system? Select all that apply. A) Splenic vein B) Inferior mesenteric vein C) Gastric vein D) Inferior vena cava E) Saphenous vein Ans: A, B, C 24. The physiology instructor is discussing the GI system with the pre-nursing class. What should the instructor describe as a major function of the GI tract? A) The breakdown of food particles into cell form for digestion B) The maintenance of fluid and acid-base balance C) The absorption into the bloodstream of nutrient molecules produced by digestion D) The control of absorption and elimination of electrolytes Ans: C 25. A nurse is providing preprocedure education for a patient who will undergo a lower GI tract study the following week. What should the nurse teach the patient about bowel preparation? A) Youll need to fast for at least 18 hours prior to your test. B) Starting today, take over-the-counter stool softeners twice daily. C) Youll need to have enemas the day before the test. D) For 24 hours before the test, insert a glycerin suppository every 4 hours. Ans: C 26. A patient presents at the walk-in clinic complaining of recurrent sharp stomach pain that is relieved by eating. The nurse suspects that the patient may have an ulcer. How would the nurse explain the formation and role of acid in the stomach to the patient? A) Hydrochloric acid is secreted by glands in the stomach in response to the actual or anticipated presence of food. B) As digestion occurs in the stomach, the stomach combines free hydrogen ions from the food to form acid. C) The body requires an acidic environment in order to synthesize pancreatic digestive enzymes; the stomach provides this environment. D) The acidic environment in the stomach exists to buffer the highly alkaline environment in the esophagus. Ans: A 27. Results of a patients preliminary assessment prompted an examination of the patients carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels, which have come back positive. What is the nurses most appropriate response to this finding? A) Perform a focused abdominal assessment. B) Prepare to meet the patients psychosocial needs. C) Liaise with the nurse practitioner to perform an anorectal examination. D) Encourage the patient to adhere to recommended screening protocols. Ans: B 28. A clinic patient has described recent dark-colored stools;the nurse recognizes the need for fecal occult blood testing (FOBT). What aspect of the patients current health status would contraindicate FOBT? A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) B) Peptic ulcers C) Hemorrhoids D) Recurrent nausea and vomiting Ans: C 29. A patient will be undergoing abdominal computed tomography (CT) with contrast. The nurse has administered IV sodium bicarbonate and oral acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) before the study as ordered. What would indicate that these medications have had the desired therapeutic effect? A) The patients BUN and creatinine levels are within reference range following the CT. B) The CT yields high-quality images. C) The patients electrolytes are stable in the 48 hours following the CT. D) The patients intake and output are in balance on the day after the CT. Ans: A 30. A medical patients CA 19-9 levels have become available and they are significantly elevated. How should the nurse best interpret this diagnostic finding? A) The patient may have cancer, but other GI disease must be ruled out. B) The patient most likely has early-stage colorectal cancer. C) The patient has a genetic predisposition to gastric cancer. D) The patient has cancer, but the site is unknown. Ans: A 31. A patient has come to the clinic complaining of blood in his stool. A FOBT test is performed but is negative. Based on the patients history, the physician suggests a colonoscopy, but the patient refuses, citing a strong aversion to the invasive nature of the test. What other test might the physician order to check for blood in the stool? A) A laparoscopic intestinal mucosa biopsy B) A quantitative fecal immunochemical test C) Computed tomography (CT) D) Magnetic resonance imagery (MRI) Ans: B 32. A nurse is assessing the abdomen of a patient just admitted to the unit with a suspected GI disease. Inspection reveals several diverse lesions on the patients abdomen. How should the nurse best interpret this assessment finding? A) Abdominal lesions are usually due to age-related skin changes. B) Integumentary diseases often cause GI disorders. C) GI diseases often produce skin changes. D) The patient needs to be assessed for self- harm. Answer: C 33. Probably the most widely used in-office or at-home occult blood test is the Hemoccult II. The patient has come to the clinic because he thinks there is blood in his stool. When you reviewed his medications, you noted he is on antihypertensive drugs and NSAIDs for early arthritic pain. You are sending the patient home with the supplies necessary to perform 2 hemoccult tests on his stool and mail the samples back to the clinic. What instruction would you give this patient? A) Take all your medications as usual. B) Take all your medications except the antihypertensive medications. C) Dont eat highly acidic foods 72 hours before you start the test. D) Avoid vitamin C for 72 hours before you start the test. Ans: D 34. A patients sigmoidoscopy has been successfully completed and the patient is preparing to return home. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse include in the patients discharge education? A) The patient should drink at least 2 liters of fluid in the next 12 hours. B) The patient can resume a normal routine immediately. A) Premature removal of the G tube B) Bowel perforation C) Constipation D) Development of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) Ans: A 5. A nursing educator is reviewing the care of patients with feeding tubes and endotracheal tubes (ET). The educator has emphasized the need to check for tube placement in the stomach as well as residual volume. What is the main purpose of this nursing action? A) Prevent gastric ulcers B) Prevent aspiration Prevent abdominal distention Prevent diarrhea Answ: B 6. The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client who underwent surgery for gastric cancer. Which of the nurses assessments most directly addresses a major complication of TPN? A) Checking the patients capillary blood glucose levels regularly B) Having the patient frequently rate his or her hunger on a 10-point scale C) Measuring the patients heart rhythm at least every 6 hours D) Monitoring the patients level of consciousness each shift Answ: A 7. A critical care nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. The nurse knows that the indications for starting parenteral nutrition (PN) for this patient are what? A) 5% deficit in body weight compared to preillness weight and increased caloric need B) Calorie deficit and muscle wasting combined with low electrolyte levels C) Inability to take in adequate oral food or fluids within 7 days D) Significant risk of aspiration coupled with decreased level of consciousness Answer: C 8. A nurse is preparing to administer a patients intravenous fat emulsion simultaneously with parenteral nutrition (PN). Which of the following principles should guide the nurses action? A) Intravenous fat emulsions may be infused simultaneously with PN through a Y- connector close to the infusion site and should not be filtered. B) The nurse should prepare for placement of another intravenous line, as intravenous fat emulsions may not be infused simultaneously through the line used for PN. C) Intravenous fat emulsions may be infused simultaneously with PN through a Y- connector close to the infusion site after running the emulsion through a filter. D) The intravenous fat emulsions can be piggy-backed into any existing IV solution that is infusing. Ans: A 9. A nurse is participating in a patients care conference and the team is deciding between parenteral nutrition (PN) and a total nutritional admixture (TNA). What advantages are associated with providing TNA rather than PN? A) TNA can be mixed by a certified registered nurse. B) TNA can be administered over 8 hours, while PN requires 24- hour administration. C) TNA is less costly than PN. D) TNA does not require the use of a micron filter. Ans: C 10. A nurse is initiating parenteral nutrition (PN) to a postoperative patient who has developed complications. The nurse should initiate therapy by performing which of the following actions? Starting with a rapid infusion rate to meet the patients nutritional needs as quickly as possible A) B) Initiating the infusion slowly and monitoring the patients fluid and glucose tolerance C) Changing the rate of administration every 2 hours based on serum electrolyte values D) Increasing the rate of infusion at mealtimes to mimic the circadian rhythm of the body Ans: B 11. A patients physician has determined that for the next 3 to 4 weeks the patient will require parenteral nutrition (PN). The nurse should anticipate the placement of what type of venous access device? A) Peripheral catheter B) Nontunneled central catheter C) Implantable port D) Tunneled central catheter Ans: B 12. A nurse is caring for a patient who has an order to discontinue the administration of parenteral nutrition. What should the nurse do to prevent the occurrence of rebound hypoglycemia in the patient? Test Bank - Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing 14e (Hinkle 2017) 843 A) Administer an isotonic dextrose solution for 1 to 2 hours after discontinuing the PN. B) Administer a hypertonic dextrose solution for 1 to 2 hours after discontinuing the PN. C) Administer 3 ampules of dextrose 50% immediately prior to discontinuing the PN. D) Administer 3 ampules of dextrose 50% 1 hour after discontinuing the PN. Ans: A 13. A nurse is caring for a patient with a subclavian central line who is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). In preparing a care plan for this patient, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A) Risk for Activity Intolerance Related to the Presence of a Subclavian Catheter B) Risk for Infection Related to the Presence of a Subclavian Catheter Risk for Functional Urinary Incontinence Related to the Presence of a Subclavian Catheter Risk for Sleep Deprivation Related to the presence of a Subclavian Catheter Ans: B 14. A patients health decline necessitates the use of total parenteral nutrition. The patient has questioned the need for insertion of a central venous catheter, expressing a preference for a normal IV. The nurse should know that peripheral administration of high-concentration PN formulas is contraindicated because of the risk for what complication? Chemical phlebitis B) Hyperglycemia C) Dumping syndrome D) Line sepsis Ans: A 15. A nurse is providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of late-stage Alzheimers disease. The patient has just returned to the medical unit to begin supplemental feedings through an NG tube. Which of the nurses assessments addresses this patients most significant potential complication of feeding? A) Frequent assessment of the patients abdominal girth B) Assessment for hemorrhage from the nasal insertion site C) Frequent lung auscultation D) Vigilant monitoring of the frequency and character of bowel movements Ans: C 16. The management of the patients gastrostomy is an assessment priority for the home care nurse. What statement would indicate that the patient is managing the tube correctly? A) I clean my stoma twice a day with alcohol. B) The only time I flush my tube is when Im putting in medications. C) I flush my tube with water before and after each of my medications. D) I try to stay still most of the time to avoid dislodging my tube. Ans: C 17. A nurse is caring for a patient with a nasogastric tube for feeding. During shift assessment, the nurse auscultates a new onset of bilateral lung crackles and notes a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. The patients oxygen saturation is 89% by pulse oximetry. After ensuring the patients immediate safety, what is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Perform chest physiotherapy. B) Reduce the height of the patients bed and remove the NG tube. D) Hyperglycemia E) Line sepsis Ans: B, C, D, E 27. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a gastrointestinal tube in place. Which of the following are indications for gastrointestinal intubation? Select all that apply. A) To remove gas from the stomach B) To administer clotting factors to treat a GI bleed C) To remove toxins from the stomach D) To open sphincters that are closed E) To diagnose GI motility disorders Ans: A, C, E 28. A patient with dysphagia is scheduled for PEG tube insertion and asks the nurse how the tube will stay in place. What is the nurses best response? A) Adhesive holds a flange in place against the abdominal skin. B) A stitch holds the tube in place externally. C) The tube is stitched to the abdominal skin externally and the stomach wall internally. D) An internal retention disc secures the tube against the stomach wall. Ans: D 29. A patient is postoperative day 1 following gastrostomy. The nurse is planning interventions to address the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Infection Related to Presence of Wound and Tube. What intervention is most appropriate? A) Administer antibiotics via the tube as ordered. b) Wash the area around the tube with soap and water daily. C) Cleanse the skin within 2 cm of the insertion site with hydrogen peroxide once per shift. D) Irrigate the skin surrounding the insertion site with normal saline before each use. Answer: B 30. The nurse is preparing to insert a patients ordered NG tube. What factor should the nurse recognize as a risk for incorrect placement? A) The patient is obese and has a short neck. B) The patient is agitated. The patient has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). D) The patient is being treated for pneumonia. Ans: B 31. Prior to a patients scheduled jejunostomy, the nurse is performing the preoperative assessment. What goal should the nurse prioritize during the preoperative assessment? A) Determining the patients nutritional needs B) Determining that the patient fully understands the postoperative care required C) Determining the patients ability to understand and cooperate with the procedure D) Determining the patients ability to cope with an altered body image Ans: C 32. You are caring for a patient who was admitted to have a low-profile gastrostomy device (LPGD) placed. How soon after the original gastrostomy tube placement can an LPGD be placed? A) 2 weeks B) 4 to 6 weeks C) 2 to 3 months D) 4 to 6 months Ans: C 33. A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving parenteral nutrition. When writing this patients plan of care, which of the following nursing diagnoses should be included? A) Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction Related to Catheter Placement B) Ineffective Role Performance Related to Parenteral Nutrition C) Bowel Incontinence Related to Parenteral Nutrition D) Chronic Pain Related to Catheter Placement Ans: B 34. A nurse is aware of the high incidence of catheter-related bloodstream infections in patients receiving parenteral nutrition. What nursing action has the greatest potential to reduce catheter-related bloodstream infections? A) Use clean technique and wear a mask during dressing changes. B) Change the dressing no more than weekly. C) Apply antibiotic ointment around the site with each dressing change. D) Irrigate the insertion site with sterile water during each dressing change. Ans: B 35. A patient who suffered a stroke had an NG tube inserted to facilitate feeding shortly after admission. The patient has since become comatose and the patients family asks the nurse why the physician is recommending the removal of the patients NG tube and the insertion of a gastrostomy tube. What is the nurses best response? A) It eliminates the risk for infection. B) Feeds can be infused at a faster rate. C) Regurgitation and aspiration are less likely. D) It allows caregivers to provide personal hygiene more easily. Ans: C 36. A patient has been discharged home on parenteral nutrition (PN). Much of the nurses discharge education focused on coping. What must a patient on PN likely learn to cope with? Select all that apply. A) Changes in lifestyle B) Loss of eating as a social behavior C) Chronic bowel incontinence from GI changes D) Sleep disturbances related to frequent urination during nighttime infusions E) Stress of choosing the correct PN formulation Ans: A, B, D 37. A patient has a gastrostomy tube that has been placed to drain stomach contents by low intermittent suction. What is the nurses priority during this aspect of the patients care? A) Measure and record drainage. B) Monitor drainage for change in color. Titrate the suction every hour. Feed the patient via the G tube as ordered. Answer: A 38. A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient home on parenteral nutrition. What should an effective home care teaching program address? Select all that apply. A) Preparing the patient to troubleshoot for problems B) Teaching the patient and family strict aseptic technique C) Teaching the patient and family how to set up the infusion D) Teaching the patient to flush the line with sterile water E) Teaching the patient when it is safe to leave the access site open to air Answer: A, B, C 39. The nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative from having a gastrostomy tube placed. What should the nurse do on a daily basis to prevent skin breakdown? A) Verify tube placement. b) Loop adhesive tape around the tube and connect it securely to the abdomen. C) Gently rotate the tube. D) Change the wet-to-dry dressing. Answer: C 40. A nurse is preparing to administer a patients scheduled parenteral nutrition (PN). Upon inspecting the bag, the nurse notices that the presence of small amounts of white precipitate are present in the bag. What is the nurses best action? A) Recognize this as an expected finding. B) Place the bag in a warm environment for 30 minutes. C) Shake the bag vigorously for 10 to 20 seconds. Answer: D Chapter 45: Management of Patients with Oral and Esophageal Disorders 1. A nurse is providing oral care to a patient who is comatose. What action best addresses the patients risk of tooth decay and plaque accumulation? A) Irrigating the mouth using a syringe filled with a bacteriocidal mouthwash B) Applying a water-soluble gel to the teeth and gums C) Wiping the teeth and gums clean with a gauze pad D) Brushing the patients teeth with a toothbrush and small amount of toothpaste Ans: D 11. A nurse who provides care in an ambulatory clinic integrates basic cancer screening into admission assessments. What patient most likely faces the highest immediate risk of oral cancer? A) A 65-year-old man with alcoholism who smokes B) A 45-year-old woman who has type 1 diabetes and who wears dentures C) A 32-year-old man who is obese and uses smokeless tobacco D) A 57-year-old man with GERD and dental caries Ans: A 12. A nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone neck resection with a radial forearm free flap. The nurses most recent assessment of the graft reveals that it has a bluish color and that mottling is visible. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Document the findings as being consistent with a viable graft. B) Promptly report these indications of venous congestion. C) Closely monitor the patient and reassess in 30 minutes. D) Reposition the patient to promote peripheral circulation. Ans: B 13. A nurse is assessing a patient who has just been admitted to the postsurgical unit following surgical resection for the treatment of oropharyngeal cancer. What assessment should the nurse prioritize? A) Assess ability to clear oral secretions. B) Assess for signs of infection. C) Assess for a patent airway. D) Assess for ability to communicate. Answ: C 14. A patient has been diagnosed with achalasia based on his history and diagnostic imaging results. The nurse should identify what risk diagnosis when planning the patients care? A) Risk for Aspiration Related to Inhalation of Gastric Contents B) Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements Related to Impaired Absorption C) Risk for Decreased Cardiac Output Related to Vasovagal Response D) Risk for Impaired Verbal Communication Related to Oral Trauma Ans: A 15. A nurse is providing health promotion education to a patient diagnosed with an esophageal reflux disorder. What practice should the nurse encourage the patient to implement? A) Keep the head of the bed lowered. B) Drinka cup of hot tea before bedtime. C) Avoid carbonated drinks. D) Eat a low-protein diet. Ans: C 16. A staff educator is reviewing the causes of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with new staff nurses. What area of the GI tract should the educator identify as the cause of reduced pressure associated with GERD? Pyloric sphincter B) Lower esophageal sphincter C) Hypopharyngeal sphincter D) Upper esophageal sphincter Ans: B 17. A patient who has had a radical neck dissection is being prepared for discharge. The discharge plan includes referral to an outpatient rehabilitation center for physical therapy. What would the goals of physical therapy for this patient include? A) Muscle training to relieve dysphagia B) Relieving nerve paralysis in the cervical plexus C) Promoting maximum shoulder function D) Alleviating achalasia by decreasing esophageal peristalsis Ans: C 18. A nurse is addressing the prevention of esophageal cancer in response to a question posed by a participant in a health promotion workshop. What action has the greatest potential to prevent esophageal cancer? A) Promotion of a nutrient-dense, low-fat diet B) Annual screening endoscopy for patients over 50 with a family history of esophageal cancer C) Early diagnosis and treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease D) Adequate fluid intake and avoidance of spicy foods Ans: C 19. An emergency department nurse is admitting a 3-year-old brought in after swallowing a piece from a wooden puzzle. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication in order to relax the esophagus to facilitate removal of the foreign body? A) Haloperidol B) Prostigmine C) Epinephrine D) Glucagon Ans: D 20. A nurse in an oral surgery practice is working with a patient scheduled for removal of an abscessed tooth. When providing discharge education, the nurse should recommend which of the following actions? A) Rinse the mouth with alcohol before bedtime for the next 7 days. B) Use warm saline to rinse the mouth as needed. C) Brush around the area with a firm toothbrush to prevent infection. D) Use a toothpick to dislodge any debris that gets lodged in the socket. Ans: B 21. A patient has been diagnosed with a malignancy of the oral cavity and is undergoing oncologic treatment. The oncologic nurse is aware that the prognosis for recovery from head and neck cancers is often poor because of what characteristic of these malignancies? A) Radiation therapy often results in secondary brain tumors. B) Surgical complications are exceedingly common. C) Diagnosis rarely occurs until the cancer is endstage. D) Metastases are common and respond poorly to treatment. Ans: D 22. A patient has undergone surgery for oral cancer and has just been extubated in postanesthetic recovery. What nursing action best promotes comfort and facilitates spontaneous breathing for this patient? A) Placing the patient in a left lateral position B) Administering opioids as ordered C) Placing the patient in Fowlers position D) Teaching the patient to use the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) system Ans: B 23. A nurse is performing health education with a patient who has a history of frequent, serious dental caries. When planning educational interventions, the nurse should identify a risk for what nursing diagnosis? A) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion B) Impaired Skin Integrity C) Aspiration D) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements Ans: D 24. A patient has undergone rigid fixation for the correction of a mandibular fracture suffered in a fight. What area of care should the nurse prioritize when planning this patients discharge education? A) Resumption of activities of daily living B) Pain control C) Promotion of adequate nutrition D) Strategies for promoting communication Ans: C 25. A radial graft is planned in the treatment of a patients oropharyngeal cancer. In order to ensure that the surgery will be successful, the care team must perform what assessment prior to surgery? A) Assessing function of cranial nerves V, VI, and IX B) Assessing for a history of GERD C) Assessing for signs or symptoms of atherosclerosis D) Assessing the patency of the ulnar artery Ans: D 26. A nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative day 1 following neck dissection surgery. The nurse is performing an assessment of the patient and notes 37. A patient with GERD has undergone diagnostic testing and it has been determined that increasing the pace of gastric emptying may help alleviate symptoms. The nurse should anticipate that the patient may be prescribed what drug? A) Metoclopramide (Reglan) B) Omeprazole (Prilosec) C) Lansoprazole (Prevacid) D) Famotidine (Pepcid) Ans: A 38. Results of a patient barium swallow suggest that the patient has GERD. The nurse is planning health education to address the patients knowledge of this new diagnosis. Which of the following should the nurse encourage? A) Eating several small meals daily rather than 3 larger meals B) Keeping the head of the bed slightly elevated C) Drinking carbonated mineral water rather than soft drinks D) Avoiding food or fluid intake after 6:00 p.m. Ans: B 39. A nurse is caring for a patient in the late stages of esophageal cancer. The nurse should plan to prevent or address what characteristics of this stage of the disease? Select all that apply. A) Perforation into the mediastinum B) Development of an esophageal lesion C) Erosion into the great vessels D) Painful swallowing E) Obstruction of the esophagus Ans: A, C, E 40. A patient seeking care because of recurrent heartburn and regurgitation is subsequently diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. Which of the following should the nurse include in health education? A) Drinking beverages after your meal, rather than with your meal, may bring some relief. B) Its best to avoid dry foods, such as rice and chicken, because theyre harder to swallow. C) Many patients obtain relief by taking over-the-counter antacids 30 minutes before eating. D) Instead of eating three meals a day, try eating smaller amounts more often. Ans: D Chapter 46: Management of Patients with Gastric and Duodenal Disorders 1. A nurse is caring for a patient who just has been diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. When teaching the patient about his new diagnosis, how should the nurse best describe a peptic ulcer? A) Inflammation of the lining of the stomach B) Erosion of the lining of the stomach or intestine C) Bleeding from the mucosa in the stomach D) Viral invasion of the stomach wall Ans: B 2. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the epigastric region. What assessment question during the health interview would most help the nurse determine if the patient has a peptic ulcer? A) Does your pain resolve when you have something to eat? B) Do over-the-counter pain medications help your pain? C) Does your pain get worse if you get up and do some exercise? D) Do you find that your pain is worse when you need to have a bowel movement? Ans: A 3. A patient with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease has just been prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). How should the nurse best describe this medications therapeutic action? A) This medication will reduce the amount of acid secreted in your stomach. B) This medication will make the lining of your stomach more resistant to damage. C) This medication will specifically address the pain that accompanies peptic ulcer disease. D) This medication will help your stomach lining to repair itself. Ans: A 4. A nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with late-stage gastric cancer. The patients family is distraught and angry that she was not diagnosed earlier in the course of her disease. What factor contributes to the fact that gastric cancer is often detected at a later stage? A) Gastric cancer does not cause signs or symptoms until metastasis has occurred. B) Adherence to screening recommendations for gastric cancer is exceptionally low. C) Early symptoms of gastric cancer are usually attributed to constipation. D) The early symptoms of gastric cancer are usually not alarming or highly unusual. Ans: D 5. A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient after recovery from gastric surgery. What is an appropriate discharge outcome for this patient? A) The patients bowel movements maintain a loose consistency. B) The patient is able to tolerate three large meals a day. C) The patient maintains or gains weight. D) The patient consumes a diet high in calcium. Ans: C 6. A nurse caring for a patient who has had bariatric surgery is developing a teaching plan in anticipation of the patients discharge. Which of the following is essential to include? A) Drink a minimum of 12 ounces of fluid with each meal. B) Eat several small meals daily spaced at equal intervals. C) Choose foods that are high in simple carbohydrates. D) Sit upright when eating and for 30 minutes afterward. Ans: B 7. A nurse is completing a health history on a patient whose diagnosis is chronic gastritis. Which of the data should the nurse consider most significantly related to the etiology of the patients health problem? A) Consumes one or more protein drinks daily. B) Takes over-the-counter antacids frequently throughout the day. C) Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. D) Reports a history of social drinking on a weekly basis. Ans: C 8. A nurse in the postanesthesia care unit admits a patient following resection of a gastric tumor. Following immediate recovery, the patient should be placed in which position to facilitate patient comfort and gastric emptying? A) Fowlers B) Supine C) Left lateral D) Left Sims Ans: A 9. A community health nurse is preparing for an initial home visit to a patient discharged following a total gastrectomy for treatment of gastric cancer. What would the nurse anticipate that the plan of care is most likely to include? A) Enteral feeding via gastrostomy tube (G tube) B) Gastrointestinal decompression by nasogastric tube C) Periodic assessment for esophageal distension D) Monthly administration of injections of vitamin B12 Ans: D 10. A nurse is assessing a patient who has peptic ulcer disease. The patient requests more information about the typical causes of Helicobacter pylori infection. What would it be appropriate for the nurse to instruct the patient? A) Most affected patients acquired the infection during international travel. B) Infection typically occurs due to ingestion of contaminated food and water. C) Many people possess genetic factors causing a predisposition to H. pylori infection. D) The H. pylori microorganism is endemic in warm, moist climates. Ans: B aspects of the surgery. What intervention is most appropriate to alleviate the patients anxiety? A) Emphasize the fact that bariatric surgery has a low risk of complications. B) Encourage the patient to focus on the benefits of the surgery. C) Facilitate the patients contact with a support group. D) Obtain an order for a PRN benzodiazepine. Ans: C 22. A patient has just been diagnosed with acute gastritis after presenting in distress to the emergency department with abdominal symptoms. What would be the nursing care most needed by the patient at this time? A) Teaching the patient about necessary nutritional modification B) Helping the patient weigh treatment options C) Teaching the patient about the etiology of gastritis D) Providing the patient with physical and emotional support Ans: D 23. A nurse is providing care for a patient who is postoperative day 2 following gastric surgery. The nurses assessment should be planned in light of the possibility of what potential complications? Select all that apply. A) Malignant hyperthermia B) Atelectasis C) Pneumonia D) Metabolic imbalances E) Chronic gastritis Ans: B, C, D 24. A patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for a tumor of the small intestine. What are the most likely symptoms that prompted the patient to first seek care? A) Hematemesis and persistent sensation of fullness B) Abdominal bloating and recurrent constipation C) Intermittent pain and bloody stool D) Unexplained bowel incontinence and fatty stools Ans: C 25. A patient is recovering in the hospital following gastrectomy. The nurse notes that the patient has become increasingly difficult to engage and has had several angry outbursts at various staff members in recent days. The nurses attempts at therapeutic dialogue have been rebuffed. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Ask the patients primary care provider to liaise between the nurse and the patient. B) Delegate care of the patient to a colleague. C) Limit contact with the patient in order to provide privacy. D) Make appropriate referrals to services that provide psychosocial support. Ans: D 26. A patient has been admitted to the hospital after diagnostic imaging revealed the presence of a gastric outlet obstruction (GOO). What is the nurses priority intervention? A) Administration of antiemetics B) Insertion of an NG tube for decompression C) Infusion of hypotonic IV solution D) Administration of proton pump inhibitors as ordered Ans: B 27. A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department (ED) in distress. What assessment finding would lead the ED nurse to suspect that the patient has a perforated ulcer? A) The patient has abdominal bloating that developed rapidly. B) The patient has a rigid, boardlike abdomen that is tender. C) The patient is experiencing intense lower right quadrant pain. D) The patient is experiencing dizziness and confusion with no apparent hemodynamic changes. Ans: B 28. Diagnostic imaging and physical assessment have revealed that a patient with peptic ulcer disease has suffered a perforated ulcer. The nurse recognizes that emergency interventions must be performed as soon as possible in order to prevent the development of what complication? A) Peritonitis B) Gastritis C) Gastroesophageal reflux D) Acute pancreatitis Ans: A 29. A nurse is performing the admission assessment of a patient whose high body mass index (BMI) corresponds to class III obesity. In order to ensure empathic and patient-centered care, the nurse should do which of the following? A) Examine ones own attitudes towards obesity in general and the patient in particular. B) Dialogue with the patient about the lifestyle and psychosocial factors that resulted in obesity. C) Describe ones own struggles with weight gain and weight loss to the patient. D) Elicit the patients short-term and long-term goals for weight loss. Ans: A 30. A patient has been prescribed orlistat (Xenical) for the treatment of obesity. When providing relevant health education for this patient, the nurse should ensure the patient is aware of what potential adverse effect of treatment? A) Bowel incontinence B) Flatus with oily discharge C) Abdominal pain D) Heat intolerance Ans: B 31. A patient who is obese has been unable to lose weight successfully using lifestyle modifications and has mentioned the possibility of using weight-loss medications. What should the nurse teach the patient about pharmacologic interventions for the treatment of obesity? A) Weight loss drugs have many side effects, and most doctors think theyll all be off the market in a few years. B) There used to be a lot of hope that medications would help people lose weight, but its been shown to be mostly a placebo effect. C) Medications can be helpful, but few people achieve and maintain their desired weight loss with medications alone. D) Medications are rapidly become the preferred method of weight loss in people for whom diet and exercise have not worked. Ans: C 32. A patient has been diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease and the nurse is reviewing his prescribed medication regimen with him. What is currently the most commonly used drug regimen for peptic ulcers? A) Bismuth salts, antivirals, and histamine-2 (H2) antagonists B) H2 antagonists, antibiotics, and bicarbonate salts C) Bicarbonate salts, antibiotics, and ZES D) Antibiotics, proton pump inhibitors, and bismuth salts Ans: D 33. A patient who is obese is exploring bariatric surgery options and presented to a bariatric clinic for preliminary investigation. The nurse interviews the patient, analyzing and documenting the data. Which of the following nursing diagnoses may be a contraindication for bariatric surgery? A) Disturbed Body Image Related to Obesity B) Deficient Knowledge Related to Risks and Expectations of Surgery C) Anxiety Related to Surgery D) Chronic Low Self-Esteem Related to Obesity Ans: B 34. A patient has recently received a diagnosis of gastric cancer; the nurse is aware of the importance of assessing the patients level of anxiety. Which of the following actions is most likely to accomplish this? A) The nurse gauges the patients response to hypothetical outcomes. B) The patient is encouraged to express fears openly. The nurse provides detailed and accurate information about the disease. The nurse closely observes the patients body language. Ans: B 35. A patient has received a diagnosis of gastric cancer and is awaiting a surgical date. During the preoperative period, the patient should adopt what dietary guidelines? A) Eat small, frequent meals with high calorie and vitamin content. 5. Which statement made by a pregnant client about food is concerning to the nurse? 1. “I eat 1 slice of bread, 1 apple, and a cup of milk for breakfast.” 2. “I eat 2 cups of cereal with sugar, 2 bananas, and 2 cups of milk every morning.” 3. “I ate a piece of salmon, a cup of blueberries, and a cup of carrots for lunch today.” 4. “I’m eating for two now, so I had a cup of kidney beans and a cup of milk.” 6. In order to make suitable recommendations about carbohydrate intake, which diagnostic criteria during assessment would show the client needs to speak with a registered dietician? 1. Elevated ketones in urine sample 2. A capillary blood sugar of 75 3. A food diary and interview 4. A body mass index (BMI) of 20 7. The nurse is teaching a class about nutrition. Which statement by the students about dietary fiber is correct? 1. “I am so hungry after I eat fiber!” 2. “I should decrease my fiber intake.” 3. “I eat enough fiber; 10 grams a day.” 4. “I feel full when I eat salad.” 8. A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the emergency department (ED). When the nurse learns that the client has been consuming too much fiber, which diagnosis does the nurse suspect? 1. Diabetes 2. Osteoporosis 3. Crohn disease 4. Gastrointestinal bleeding 9. Which statement made by a nurse is true regarding the formation of dental caries? our teeth. Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. 10. A nurse is caring for a pediatric client diagnosed with morbid obesity. When teaching the client about a new diet, which functions of carbohydrates will aid in weight loss? Select all that apply. 1. We cannot control the length of time carbohydrate-containing foods are exposed to 2. Dental caries are caused by bacteria not normally present in the mouth. 3. Some people are more predisposed to developing dental caries than others. 4. Consuming aged cheese may encourage tooth decay. 1. Providing an adequate supply of carbohydrates versus protein 2. Providing a low carbohydrate or ketogenic diet 3. Providing a regular breakfast high in fiber, total carbs, and low fat 4. Providing a smaller breakfast high in carbohydrates and sugars 5. Providing a diet composed of 45% to 65% carbohydrates 11. When discharging a 15-month-old pediatric client who had gastritis, a nurse tells the parents that dental caries result from the interaction between which of the following factors? Select all that apply. 1. Genetically susceptible tooth 2. Bacteria 3. Carbohydrates 4. Time 5. Inflammation 12. Which are ways to counteract the effects of dental cavity formation? Select all that apply. 1. Eating cheese 2. Chewing fibrous foods 3. Using maltose 4. Eating fiber 5. Eliminating bacteria 13. A nurse knows that teaching is successful when the client learning about food groups states which of the following? Select all that apply. ” e.” 14. Based on the Food and Nutrition Board of the National Academy of Sciences, Institute of Medicine (2005), which carbohydrate (CHO) Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) would the nurse manager follow for pregnant and/or breast-feeding mothers? Select all that apply. 1. RDA of 175 grams of CHO 2. 10% of sugars for total calories eaten 3. 45% to 65% of calories from CHO 4. RDA of 130 grams of CHO per day 1. “In order to receive 15 grams of carbohydrates from grains, I can eat a baked potato. 2. “One cup of soy milk contains no carbohydrates; only cow’s milk because of lactos 3. “One serving of beans is significant for protein and has 15 grams of carbohydrate.” 4. “Plant-based foods do not have significant sources of minerals, just fiber.” 5. RDA of 210 grams of CHO per day 15. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for carbohydrates. For which group of clients is 130 grams of CHO recommended? Select all that apply. 1. A 2-year-old 2. A 45-year-old 3. A 15-month-old 4. A 76-year-old 5. A 65-year-old 16. Which signs are some of the undesirable consequences of ketosis? Select all that apply. 1. Fatigue 2. Nausea 3. Lack of appetite 4. Weight gain 5. High blood sugar 17. A nurse is reviewing the urine of a 45-year-old client with ketosis. What does the nurse expect to see in the client’s urine? Select all that apply. 1. Acetone 2. Diacetic acid 3. Glucose 4. Fiber 5. Cholesterol 18. Which is an accurate characteristic of sugar alcohols? Select all that apply. 1. They do not promote tooth decay. 2. They have a cooling effect on tongue. 3. They have a laxative effect. 4. They are 200 times sweet as sugar. 5. They add only sweetness to recipes. 19. Which types of complex carbohydrates are of nutritional importance? Select all that apply. 1. Starch 2. Glycogen 3. Fiber 4. Sucrose Page: 29 Heading: Health and Carbohydrates Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Remembering Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate ducing ke of lower risk ry may lower PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 5. ANS: 2 Chapter: Chapter 2, Carbohydrates Objective: B. List the major functions of carbohydrates and methods through which the body stores them. Page: 32 Heading: Food Groups Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate as only ily ant snacks. ith lunch; can Feedback 1 This is correct. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans, 2015–2020 recommends re the calories consumed from added sugars. 2 This is incorrect. Epidemiological data support the association between a high inta vegetables and fruits and low risk of chronic disease. 3 This is incorrect. Studies have linked regular consumption of whole grains with a of certain cancers and heart disease, but this is not a recommendation of the Dieta Guidelines for Americans, 2015–2020. 4 This is incorrect. Increasing the amount of protein found in fruits and vegetables certain risks of disease, but just increasing protein is not recommended. Feedback 1 This is incorrect. This statement is within the client’s RDA of 175 grams of CHO, 42 grams were consumed with breakfast. 2 This is correct. This statement conveys a misunderstanding of the recommended da allowance. This client had ~115 grams of CHO for breakfast and the RDA for pregn clients is 175 grams; she will be over the RDA once she eats lunch, dinner, and an 3 This is incorrect. This statement indicates the client only had 35 grams of CHO w the client can have a RDA of 175 grams of CHO. 4 This is incorrect. This statement indicates that the client had 30 grams of CHO. She have a total of 175 grams as per the RDA. PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 6. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 2, Carbohydrates Objective: B. List the major functions of carbohydrates and methods through which the body stores them. Page: 29 Heading: Functions of Carbohydrates: Help Prevent Ketosis Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Metabolism Difficulty: Moderate body is ored fat. m of serum or criterion PTS: 1 CON: Metabolism 7. ANS: 4 Chapter: Chapter 2, Carbohydrates Objective: C. Discuss dietary fiber and list its functions. Page: 28 Heading: Basic Terminology: Dietary Fiber Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate tributes of grains 14 Feedback 1 This is correct. The client is not taking in enough carbohydrates for energy, and the breaking down stored fats. The body cannot handle the excessive breakdown of st As a result, partially broken-down fats accumulate in the blood and urine in the for ketones. 2 This is incorrect. Normal fasting blood sugar (FBS) is 70 to 100 mg per 100 mL of plasma. 3 This is incorrect. This information is subjective only and is not suitable as the sole to determine CHO status and intake. 4 This is incorrect. BMI of 18.5 to 24.9 is considered normal. Feedback 1 This is incorrect. Bulk fills the stomach and most experts believe a full stomach con to a feeling of satiety, so further eating ceases. 2 This is incorrect. The 2015–2020 Dietary Guidelines recommend that at least half consumed are whole grain, to help attain the goal of increasing fiber in the diet. 3 This is incorrect. The recommended daily adequate intake (AI) for fiber is based on grams of fiber per 1,000 kilocalories consumed. 4 This is correct. Fiber adds almost no fuel or energy value to the diet, but it does add volume; a full stomach contributes to a feeling of satiety. PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 8. ANS: 2 Chapter: Chapter 2, Carbohydrates Objective: C. Discuss dietary fiber and list its functions. Page: 28 Heading: Basic Terminology: Dietary Fiber Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Metabolism Difficulty: Moderate Feedback 1 This is incorrect. Diabetes mellitus does not occur due to eating too much fiber. 2 This is correct. Evidence suggests that eating more than 50 grams of fiber per day interfere with mineral absorption, which can lead to conditions such as anemia and osteoporosis. 3 This is incorrect. Crohn disease does not result from eating too much fiber. 4 This is incorrect. Too much fiber per day can interfere with mineral absorption, bu not cause GI bleeding. PTS: 1 CON: Metabolism 9. ANS: 3 Chapter: Chapter 2, Carbohydrates Objective: D. Describe the relationship between carbohydrates and dental health. Page: 30 Heading: Genomic Gem 2-1 Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Evidence-Based Practice can t it does ng foods as raisins r mouths. given ies than Feedback 1 This is incorrect. We can control the amount of time certain carbohydrate-containi and sugar-containing foods remain in the mouth. For example, sticky foods, such and caramels, adhere to the tooth for longer periods of time than other foods. 2 This is incorrect. Dental caries are caused by bacteria that are always present in ou 3 This is correct. Genetic susceptibility is an individual’s likelihood of developing a trait. Some individuals may be more genetically predisposed to forming dental car 4. This is incorrect. Eating fiber does not counteract the effects of dental cavity formation 5. This is incorrect. We cannot control our genetic susceptibility for cavities, and bacteri always present in our mouths and difficult to eliminate. PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 13. ANS: 1, 3, 5 Chapter: Chapter 2, Carbohydrates Objective: E. List the carbohydrate content (in grams) of each appropriate food group. Page: 32 Heading: Food Groups Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate . a are hydrates. grams of and esauce PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 14. ANS: 1, 5 Chapter: Chapter 2, Carbohydrates Objective: 6. Discuss dietary recommendations related to fiber, added sugar, and total carbohydrate intake. Page: 32 Heading: Dietary Recommendations Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate more than Feedback 1. This is correct. A 3-ounce baked potato is considered a grain and is 15 grams of carbo 2. This is incorrect. Soy milk, though plant-based, contains 12 grams of carbohydrates. 3. This is correct. Beans are a significant source of protein, and one serving contains 15 carbohydrate. 4. This is incorrect. Plant-based foods are significant sources of protein, fiber, vitamins, minerals. 5. This is correct. Many fruits are excellent sources of fiber. A cup of unsweetened appl has 15 grams of carbohydrate. Feedback 1. This is correct. The RDA is 175 grams of CHO per day for pregnant women. 2. This is incorrect. According to the 2015–2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans, no zing risk r of age PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 15. ANS: 1, 2, 3, 5 Chapter: Chapter 2, Carbohydrates Objective: B. List the major functions of carbohydrates and methods through which the body stores them. Page: 29 Heading: Functions of Carbohydrates: Provide Fuel Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Comprehension Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate ed 70 years ed 70 years ended 70 years ed 70 years PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 16. ANS: 1, 2, 3 Chapter: Chapter 2, Carbohydrates Objective: B. List the major functions of carbohydrates and methods through which the body stores them. 10% of total calories eaten should comprise added sugars. 3. This is incorrect. To meet the body’s daily energy and nutritional needs while minimi for chronic disease, adults and children should get 45% to 65% of their calories from carbohydrates. 4. This is incorrect. The Recommended Dietary Allowance for children older than 1 yea and most adults younger than 70 years of age is 130 grams of CHO/day. 5. This is correct. The RDA is 210 grams of CHO per day for lactating women. Feedback 1. This is correct. A 2-year-old is within the recommended aged group. The Recommend Dietary Allowance for children older than 1 year of age and most adults younger than of age is 130 grams of CHO/day. 2. This is correct. A 45-year-old is within the recommended aged group. The Recommend Dietary Allowance for children older than 1 year of age and most adults younger than of age is 130 grams of CHO/day. 3. This is correct. A 15-month old is within the recommended aged group. The Recomm Dietary Allowance for children older than 1 year of age and most adults younger than of age is 130 grams of CHO/day. 4. This is incorrect. A 76-year-old is outside of the range for 130 grams of CHO/day recommendation. 5. This is correct. A 65-year-old is within the recommended aged group. The Recommend Dietary Allowance for children older than 1 year of age and most adults younger than of age is 130 grams of CHO/day. Page: 29 Heading: Functions of Carbohydrates: Help Prevent Ketosis Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Patient-Centered Care Difficulty: Moderate death ath ma and break ate intake PTS: 1 CON: Patient-Centered Care 17. ANS: 1, 2 Chapter: Chapter 2, Carbohydrates Objective: A. Describe the types of carbohydrates, identify food sources of each, and indicate their functions in the body. Page: 29 Heading: Functions of Carbohydrates: Help Prevent Ketosis Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Elimination Difficulty: Moderate d by ined by ine. . he urine. Feedback 1. This is correct. Fatigue is one of the undesirable consequences of ketosis. Coma and have occurred in severe cases. 2. This is correct. Nausea is one of the undesirable consequences of ketosis. Coma and de have occurred in severe cases. 3. This is correct. Lack of appetite is one of the undesirable consequences of ketosis. Co death have occurred in severe cases. 4. This is incorrect. Weight loss may occur when a client is in a state of ketosis due to the down of stored fats and internal protein. 5. This is incorrect. High blood sugar is not a consequence of ketosis because carbohydr is too low. Feedback 1. This is correct. Acetone is a ketone body. The presence of ketosis is easily determine testing for the presence of acetone or diacetic acid in the urine. 2. This is correct. Diacetic acid is a ketone body. The presence of ketosis is easily determ testing for the presence of acetone or diacetic acid in the urine. 3. This is incorrect. Glucose is not a ketone body and does not determine ketosis in the ur 4. This is incorrect. Fiber is not a ketone body and does not determine ketosis in the urine 5. This is incorrect. Cholesterol is not a ketone body and does not determine ketosis in t 4. The backbone of all nutrients in the body. 2. A nurse knows that the energy requirements of fats are measured in kilocalories and compare to carbohydrates in which of the following ways? 1. Fats have a greater potential for release of energy. 2. Carbohydrates have twice more kilocalories. 3. Fats have less carbon and more hydrogen bonds. 4. Carbohydrates are a vehicle for vitamins A, D, E, and K. 3. A nurse is caring for a client with Crohn disease. The nurse notes that the health-care provider has ordered the addition of omega-3 fatty acids to the diet. The nurse suspects the health-care provider ordered these fatty-acids to help this client minimize which process from this diagnosis? 1. Diarrhea 2. Pain 3. Inflammation 4. Clotting time 4. Which is the main focus of the 2015–2020 Dietary Guidelines? 1. A healthy eating pattern that limits saturated fats to decrease cholesterol 2. Provide specific guidelines for preventing foods that yield high cholesterol. 3. Monitor dietary intake by reducing the risk of cholesterol by eating more fruits. 4. Increase the number of meats from mammals to decrease cholesterol levels. 5. Which statement made by the client about cholesterol is concerning? 1. “My mom cooks a balanced meal for me every day.” 2. “We often eat out at least 5 days a week.” 3. “I often eat two boiled eggs with every meal.” 4. “I love to cook. I often cook with high-grade olive oil.” 6. In order to make suitable recommendations about nutritional status, which criteria must a nurse gather during assessment from a client diagnosed with cardiovascular disease (CVD)? 1. Cholesterol level 2. Hormone levels 3. Food diary 4. Dietary recall 7. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed as overweight. Which question asked during nutritional assessment is most appropriate for the nurse to ask? 1. “Do you consume meat at most of your meals?” 2. “Do you feel satisfied when you eat?” 3. “What comfort foods do you enjoy?” 4. “How much fruit do you consume regularly?” 8. A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the emergency department (ED). When the nurse learns that the client has a slow healing wound, which deficiency does the nurse suspect? 1. Vitamin C 2. Vitamin K 3. Vitamin E 4. Omega-6 9. When taking caring for a client with familial hypercholesterolemia (FH), a nurse knows that there is a 90-fold increase in atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) mortality if this genetic disorder is left untreated. Which treatment does the nurse suspect the health-care provider will order to help reduce ASCVD mortality? 1. Linoleic acid 2. Vitamin C 3. Atorvastatin 4. Exercise 10. When caring for a 3-year-old pediatric client that is slightly overweight, a nurse knows that there is an associated risk of developing a chronic disease if there is no intervention. Which does the nurse teach the client’s parents is an acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) of fats for children? 1. An AMDR of 25% to 35% 2. An AMDR of 45% to 55% 3. An AMDR of 30% to 40% 4. An AMDR of 20% to 30% 11. A nurse is reviewing polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fatty acid guidelines from the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2015–2020 and the American Heart Association with a client diagnosed with obesity. What food does the nurse expect the client to incorporate into the diet if teaching is successful? 1. Fruit 2. Nuts 3. Butter 4. Fiber Multiple Response Identify one or more choices that best complete the statement or answer the question. 12. A nurse is caring for a pediatric client diagnosed with morbid obesity. When teaching the client, which elements should the nurse note comprise both fats and carbohydrates? Select all that apply. 1. Carbon 2. Nitrogen 3. Hydrogen 4. Glucose 5. Oxygen 13. When discharging a 25-year-old obese client diagnosed with diabetes, a nurse teaches the client which characteristics of saturated fats? Select all that apply. 1. Solid at room temperature 2. Become rancid slowly. 3. Long shelf life 4. Liquid at room temperature 5. Become rancid quickly. 14. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes. The client is being discharged, so the nurse is teaching the client about appropriate diets. Teaching is successful if the client recognizes which products as being not generally recognized as safe (GRAS) by the FDA? Select all that apply. 1. Crackers 2. Frozen waffles 3. Hard margarines 4. Microwave popcorn 5. Coconut butter 15. A nurse knows that teaching is successful when the client learning about trans-fatty acids states which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. “In June 2018, the FDA is stopping manufacturers from using trans-fats in foods.” 2. “Trans-fats are generally recognized as safe by the Food and Drug Administration.” 3. “Trans-fats are detrimental to our health. I have to stop eating fast food!” 4. “Plant-based oils do not have significant amounts of trans-fat, just saturated fats.” 5. “All spreadable margarines are considered hydrogenated and, therefore, trans-fats.” 16. Based on the Food and Nutrition Board of the National Academy of Sciences, Institute of Medicine (2005), which fat Recommended Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) for macronutrients would a nurse less m, as gen than , and K. PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 3. ANS: 3 Chapter: Chapter 3, Fats Objective: B. List the major functions of fats both in the diet and in the body. Page: 39 Heading: Fats in Food: Sources of Essential Fatty Acids Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Patient-Centered Care Difficulty: Moderate sease. e to ime is not PTS: 1 CON: Patient-Centered Care 4. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 3, Fats Objective: B. List the major functions of fats both in the diet and in the body. Page: 41 Heading: Food Sources Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Evidence-Based Practice Difficulty: Moderate Feedback Feedback 1 This is correct. Because fats have proportionately more carbon and hydrogen and oxygen than carbohydrates, fats have a greater potential for the release of energy. 2 This is incorrect. Fats furnish more than twice as many kilocalories, gram for gra carbohydrates. 3 This is incorrect. Fats have proportionately more carbon and hydrogen and less ox carbohydrates. 4 This is incorrect. In foods, fats act as a vehicle for the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E Feedback 1 This is incorrect. Omega-3 or linoleic acid does not minimize diarrhea in Crohn di 2 This is incorrect. Pain is not minimized with omega-3 fatty acids. 3 This is correct. The recommendation is to obtain omega-3 fatty acids from foods du their anti-inflammatory role. 4 This is incorrect. Bleeding is not a symptom of Crohn disease; therefore, clotting t a factor. althy lories, ideline and esterol, is are , saturated rities eds. PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice 5. ANS: 2 Chapter: Chapter 3, Fats Objective: C. Discuss the relationships to health of cholesterol, saturated fat, polyunsaturated fat, trans-fatty acids, and monounsaturated fat. Page: 39 Heading: Food Sources Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate and s tty acids. but not thy eating and ated and have a PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 6. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 3, Fats 1 This is correct. The 2015–2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends a he eating pattern which limits the amount of saturated fat to less than 10% of total ca and, therefore, a decreased level of cholesterol. 2 This is incorrect. The Dietary Guidelines no longer make a specific quantitative gu for cholesterol, citing the need for more evidence. 3 This is incorrect. An overall healthy eating pattern that includes fruits, vegetables, whole grains are important for risk reduction. No one food, even if it contains chol unhealthy if eaten in appropriate amounts. 4 This is incorrect. Saturated fats, which are likely to be solid at room temperature, usually found in animal products such as meat, poultry, and whole milk. However fats have been targeted for reduction in the average American’s diet by health autho because these fats have unhealthful effects when ingested in excess of the body’s ne Feedback 1 This is incorrect. An overall healthy eating pattern that includes fruits, vegetables, whole grains is important for risk reduction. 2 This is correct. Commercial food processing (as in restaurants) frequently involve hydrogenation. A health consequence of hydrogenation is the formation of trans-fa Evidence indicates that the trans-fats are detrimental to health. 3 This is incorrect. Some foods, such as eggs and shellfish, are higher in cholesterol saturated fats, and may be consumed with a variety of other foods as part of a heal pattern. 4 This is incorrect. Monounsaturated fats are found in nuts, avocado, canola, olive, peanut oil. Evidence suggests that individuals with a higher intake of monounsatur polyunsaturated fats, a low intake of saturated fats, and a low total fat intake may decreased risk of coronary heart disease. Objective: B. List the major functions of fats both in the diet and in the body. Page: 41 Heading: Food Sources Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Evidence-Based Practice Difficulty: Moderate dence of CVD. secreted l secretion erion to riterion PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice 7. ANS: 2 Chapter: Chapter 3, Fats Objective: B. List the major functions of fats both in the diet and in the body. Page: 39 Heading: Functions of Fats: Satiety Value Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate to being . Fat ly than erweight, and esterol, is Feedback 1 This is correct. According to the 2015–2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans, evi suggests that a lower intake of dietary cholesterol is associated with a reduced risk 2 This is incorrect. A hormone is a substance produced by the endocrine glands and directly into the bloodstream. Cholesterol is necessary for the production of severa hormones. Hormones stimulate functional activity of organs and cells or stimulate of other hormones to do so, but do not influence nutritional status or CVD. 3 This is incorrect. A food diary is subjective only and is not suitable as the sole crit determine nutritional status and intake. 4 This is incorrect. A dietary recall is subjective only and is not suitable as the sole c to determine nutritional status and intake. Feedback 1 This is incorrect. Consuming meats at most meals does not necessarily contribute overweight. 2 This is correct. Satiety is a person’s feeling of fullness and satisfaction after eating contributes to the sensation of satisfaction because it leaves the stomach more slow carbohydrates. 3 This is incorrect. Comfort foods may lead to a person overeating and becoming ov but it depends on the nutritive value of the food. 4 This is incorrect. An overall healthy eating pattern that includes fruits, vegetables, whole grains are important for risk reduction. No one food, even if it contains chol lthful et. PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice MULTIPLE RESPONSE 12. ANS: 1, 3, 5 Chapter: Chapter 3, Fats Objective: A. Identify how fats are classified. Page: 36 Heading: Basic Terminology Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate three s lower in three er in ee rogen is PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 13. ANS: 1, 2, 3 Chapter: Chapter 3, Fats Objective: A. Identify how fats are classified. Page: 38 Heading: Physical Properties and Food Sources Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate in the average American’s diet by health authorities because these fats have unhea effects when ingested in excess of the body’s needs. 4 This is incorrect. Nuts contribute to dietary fiber, but fiber does not add fat to the di Feedback 1. This is correct. Carbon is an element that lipids are made of, and it is one of the same elements that make up carbohydrates. However, the proportion of oxygen to carbon i fats. 2. This is incorrect. Nitrogen is not an element that makes up lipids. 3. This is correct. Hydrogen is an element that lipids are made of and is one of the same elements that make up carbohydrates, but the proportion of oxygen to hydrogen is low fats. 4. This is incorrect. Glucose is not an element that makes up lipids. 5. This is correct. Oxygen is an element that lipids are made of and is one of the same thr elements that make up carbohydrates, but the proportion of oxygen to carbon and hyd lower in fats. een the fat in ant fats. PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 14. ANS: 1, 2, 3, 4 Chapter: Chapter 3, Fats Objective: A. Identify how fats are classified. Page: 39 Heading: Physical Properties and Food Sources: Hydrogenation Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Evidence-Based Practice Difficulty: Moderate ed by the (FDA) GRAS). oduced stration s safe produced stration s safe ed by the (FDA) GRAS). urated ties ds. Feedback 1. This is correct. Saturated fats are solid at room temperature. 2. This is correct. Saturated fats become rancid slowly because the chemical bond betw carbon and hydrogen is stable. 3. This is correct. Products made with saturated fats have a fairly long shelf life because the product is fairly stable. 4. This is incorrect. Unsaturated fats are likely to be liquid at room temperature and of pl origin. 5. This is incorrect. Unsaturated fats tend to become rancid more quickly than saturated Feedback 1. This is correct. Crackers are made with trans-fatty acids. Trans-fatty acids are produc partial hydrogenation of unsaturated vegetable oils. The Food and Drug Administration has determined that partially hydrogenated fats are not generally recognized as safe ( 2. This is correct. Frozen waffles are made with trans-fatty acids. Trans-fatty acids are pr by the partial hydrogenation of unsaturated vegetable oils. The Food and Drug Admini (FDA) has determined that partially hydrogenated fats are not generally recognized a (GRAS). 3. This is correct. Hard margarines are made with trans-fatty acids. Trans-fatty acids are by the partial hydrogenation of unsaturated vegetable oils. The Food and Drug Admini (FDA) has determined that partially hydrogenated fats are not generally recognized a (GRAS). 4. This is correct. Microwave popcorn has trans-fatty acids. Trans-fatty acids are produc partial hydrogenation of unsaturated vegetable oils. The Food and Drug Administration has determined that partially hydrogenated fats are not generally recognized as safe ( 5. This is incorrect. Coconut butter is considered a vegetable source of saturated fat. Sat fats have been targeted for reduction in the average American’s diet by health authori because these fats have unhealthful effects when ingested in excess of the body’s nee Because of this, they are GRAS. PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice 15. ANS: 1, 3, 5 Chapter: Chapter 3, Fats Objective: C. Discuss the relationships to health of cholesterol, saturated fat, polyunsaturated fat, trans-fatty acids, and monounsaturated fat. Page: 39 Heading: Physical Properties and Food Sources: Hydrogenation Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Evidence-Based Practice Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate ly 18, urated ly -fats. ly to be red trans- ted to PTS: 1 CON: Evidence-Based Practice 16. ANS: 1, 5 Chapter: Chapter 3, Fats Objective: D. List three current recommendations of the Food and Nutrition Board of the National Research Council that pertain to fat. Page: 41 Heading: Dietary Recommendations Concerning Fat Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Evidence-Based Practice Difficulty: Moderate Feedback 1. This is correct. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has determined that partial hydrogenated fats are not generally recognized as safe (GRAS). Beginning in June 20 manufacturers must stop using these fats in foods (FDA.gov). 2. This is incorrect. Trans-fatty acids are produced by the partial hydrogenation of unsat vegetable oils. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has determined that partial hydrogenated fats are not generally recognized as safe (GRAS). 3. This is correct. During hydrogenation, many of the fatty acids are converted into trans Evidence indicates that the trans-fats are detrimental to health. 4. This is incorrect. Plant-based oils are considered unsaturated fats because they are like liquid at room temperature. 5. This is correct. Spreadable margarines are partially hydrogenated fats and are conside fats. All vegetable spreads, such as corn oil margarine, have been partially hydrogena some extent. Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Comprehension Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate he raw or althiest the PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition COMPLETION 20. ANS: 31 Chapter: Chapter 3, Fats Objective: C. Discuss the relationships to health of cholesterol, saturated fat, polyunsaturated fat, trans-fatty acids, and monounsaturated fat. Page: 42 Heading: Clinical Calculation 3-1 Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Nutrition Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate Feedback: Food labeling regulations require manufacturers to list both the number of kilocalories in a serving and the number of kilocalories from fat. The following formula can be used to determine the percentage of kilocalories from fat in many packaged foods: kcal/serving from fat  100 = % kcal from fat per serving total kcal/serving 72  100 = 31% 230 Feedback 1. This is correct. The cashews are unsalted; unsalted and raw or roasted without oil is t healthiest option for consumption. 2. This is correct. The almonds are roasted; unsalted and raw or roasted without oil is the healthiest option for consumption. 3. This is incorrect. Although soybeans are recommended, these are salted. Unsalted and roasted without oil is the healthiest option for consumption. 4. This is correct. These seeds are raw. Unsalted and raw or roasted without oil is the he option for consumption. 5. This is incorrect. These peanuts are salted. Unsalted and raw or roasted without oil is healthiest option for consumption. PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition Chapter 4. Protein Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. A nurse is leading a seminar about healthy food choices. The nurse teaches that proteins are: 1. Detrimental to a healthy nutritional diet. 2. A major source of fuel for the body. 3. An alternative source of energy in the body. 4. The backbone of all nutrients in the body. 2. A nurse knows that the energy requirements of proteins are measured in grams and are distinguished from carbohydrates and fats in which of the following ways? 1. Proteins have nitrogen as a building-block element. 2. Carbohydrates have twice more carbon molecules. 3. Fats have less nitrogen and more hydrogen bonds. 4. Proteins have amino acids that breakdown vitamins. 3. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with obesity. Which nutrient, when eaten in excess, does the nurse tell the client can contribute to fat stores in the body? 1. Fiber 2. Vitamins 3. Protein 4. Cholesterol 4. A nurse is teaching clients about healthy living and obtaining adequate protein from the foods in our diets. Which statement by the clients shows an understanding of an essential amino acid? 1. “A great source of protein that I enjoy is dried pumpkin seeds.” 2. “When I’m sick, I take l-glutamine to help my body make more so I heal.” 3. “I know my doctor monitors my alanine level along with my liver function.” 4. “We don’t need to add protein to our diets. Our bodies make their own.” 5. Which statement made to the nurse about nonessential protein indicates that more teaching is necessary? 1. “All protein we eat is absorbed in our gut for the body to use.” 2. “All peas contain the complete proteins I need to adequate protein intake.” 3. “I often eat two boiled eggs with meals as a source of protein.” 4. “Even though I’m a vegetarian, I love to cook all types of food.” 6. Which conditional essential amino acid is necessary for organ growth and development? 1. Proline 2. Myosin 3. Collagen 4. Elastin 7. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with cirrhosis. Which conditionally essential protein does the nurse know becomes an essential protein due to the client’s condition? 1. Proline 2. Cysteine 3. Actin 4. Myosin 8. A nurse is caring for an elderly client admitted to the emergency department (ED). When the nurse learns that the client has muscle wasting, which does the nurse suspect? 1. Positive nitrogen balance 2. Negative nitrogen balance 3. Gluconeogenesis 4. Ketosis 9. When taking care of a client diagnosed with a broken leg from a car accident, a nurse notes that the client is healing fast. The client states, “I was a marathon runner prior to the accident.” Which process does the nurse suspect as the reason? 1. Catabolism 2. Ketosis 3. Anabolism 4. Gluconeogenesis 10. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a broken pelvis after a skiing accident. The client has been in the ICU on bedrest for the past 2 weeks. What does the nurse expect to assess in this critically ill client due to immobility? 1. Muscle wasting 2. Dehydration 3. Anorexia 4. Malnutrition 11. A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed as status post-gastric bypass who is on a vegetarian diet. 3. The body utilizes body protein when carbohydrates are insufficient. 4. Adequate fat intake is necessary to spare protein contribution for cells. 5. Sufficient fat intake spares the consequence of muscle loss from diabetes. Chapter 4. Protein Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: 3 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: A. Distinguish protein from the other energy nutrients. Page: 49 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Understanding Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate es and ot be ntake is PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 2. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: A. Distinguish protein from the other energy nutrients. Page: 49 Heading: Composition of Proteins Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate from that Feedback 1 This is incorrect. Proteins are essential to a healthy nutrition. 2 This is incorrect. Proteins are not a major source of fuel for body like carbohydrat fats; however, proteins do make unique contributions to the body’s health that cann duplicated by carbohydrate or fat. 3 This is correct. Protein can be used as an auxiliary source of energy if kilocaloric i inadequate. 4 This is incorrect. Proteins are not the backbone of all nutrients in the body. Feedback 1 This is correct. Nitrogen is the element that distinguishes the structure of proteins PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 3. ANS: 3 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: A. Distinguish protein from the other energy nutrients. Page: 49 Heading: Introduction Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate blocks from of PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 4. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: B. Contrast essential and nonessential amino acids. Page: 49 Heading: Essential Amino Acids Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate ke it in ilable in ns. of carbohydrates and fats; carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen are the building for amino acids or proteins. 2 This is incorrect. Nitrogen is the element that distinguishes the structure of proteins that of carbohydrates and fats. 3 This is incorrect. Fats do not have nitrogen bonds. 4 This is incorrect. Amino acids do not break down vitamins. Feedback 1 This is incorrect. Fiber does not contribute to body fat stores. 2 This is incorrect. Vitamins do not contribute to body fat stores. 3 This is correct. Protein eaten in excess can contribute to body fat stores, as is true carbohydrates and fats. 4 This is incorrect. Cholesterol does not contribute to body fat stores. Feedback 1 This is correct. An amino acid is classified as essential if the body is unable to ma sufficient amounts to meet metabolic needs. All essential amino acids must be ava the body simultaneously and in sufficient quantity for the synthesis of body protei cid. ously y come n down PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 5. ANS: 2 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: B. Contrast essential and nonessential amino acids. Page: 50 Heading: Nonessential Amino Acids Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate the body ho is d ome from cook. PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 6. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: C. Define and give two examples of conditionally essential amino acids. Page: 49 Heading: Conditionally (Acquired) Essential Amino Acids Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Understanding Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate nd on 2 This is incorrect. The body does not make l-glutamine; it is a nonessential amino a 3 This is incorrect. Alanine levels are not monitored; it is a nonessential amino acid. 4 This is incorrect. All essential amino acids must be available in the body simultane and in sufficient quantity for the synthesis of body proteins These amino acids ma from recently ingested food or from the body’s own cells as they age and are broke and replaced. Feedback 1 This is incorrect. Amino acids, which are in excess of needs, are broken down by and converted to carbohydrate for energy needs. 2 This is correct. Although legumes are an important source of protein for anyone w limiting animal protein, it would be important for the client to consume other, complementary plant-based proteins to be sure all essential amino acids are obtaine 3 This is incorrect. With few exceptions, single foods containing complete protein c animal sources such as meat, poultry, fish, eggs, milk, and cheese. 4 This is incorrect. Vegetarians can cook anything; they do not have to eat what they Feedback 1 This is correct. Conditionally essential amino acids are those amino acids that depe Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate ase in onditions the y are ss e of food PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 11. ANS: 3 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: E. Explain the difference between complete and incomplete proteins and give examples of food sources of each. Page: 55 Heading: Limiting Amino Acids and Complementation Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate ates to iding it mentation cid with source, limiting foods acid. e relates oviding Feedback 1 This is correct. One of the most consistent effects of prolonged bed rest is an incre nitrogen excretion derived from skeletal muscle. Prolonged bed rest for multiple c results in decreased muscle mass, strength, and function predominantly caused by decreased muscle protein synthesis. 2 This is incorrect. Clients are at risk of dehydration with high-protein diets because kidneys must excrete large amounts of nitrogenous waste products. 3 This is incorrect. Institutionalized clients are susceptible to malnutrition when the unable to feed themselves, their meal schedule is interrupted by tests, or their illne prevents or inhibits eating (i.e., cancers and/or treatments may cause anorexia). 4 This is incorrect. Clients who receive inadequate food, sometimes for days, becaus insecurity, medical treatments, or diagnostic tests are at risk for malnutrition. Feedback 1 This is incorrect. Yogurt is a complete protein. The complementation principle rel balancing the intake of plant foods lacking a particular amino acid with foods prov but lacking another amino acid. 2 This is incorrect. A salad does not have all the nutrients a body needs. The comple principle relates to balancing the intake of plant foods lacking a particular amino a foods providing it but lacking another amino acid. 3 This is correct. Legumes contain incomplete proteins and are an important protein but not all beans are legumes and must be paired with a grain to supply the other’s amino acid. The complementation principle relates to balancing the intake of plant lacking a particular amino acid with foods providing it but lacking another amino 4 This is incorrect. This depends on the type of soup. The complementation principl to balancing the intake of plant foods lacking a particular amino acid with foods pr it but lacking another amino acid. PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 12. ANS: 4 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: B. Contrast essential and nonessential amino acids. Page: 49 Heading: Amino Acids Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate pair, and althy n balance body’s d) PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 13. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: 7. Describe how protein is essential to circulation. Page: 53 Heading: Circulation Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Tissue Integrity Difficulty: Moderate m the s for e of Feedback 1 This is incorrect. Proteins do not regenerate cells, but are important for growth, re metabolism. 2 This is incorrect. Not all protein foods provide essential amino acids as part of a he diet. 3 This is incorrect. Positive nitrogen balance builds tissue, whereas negative nitroge breaks it down. 4 This is correct. Twenty-three amino acids have been identified as important to the metabolism. These amino acids are classified as essential, conditionally (or acquire essential, and nonessential. Feedback 1 This is correct. The major protein in the blood, albumin, aids the return of fluid fro cells and tissues to the bloodstream to maintain blood volume and pressure. 2 This is incorrect. The muscles use free fatty acids and the brain uses ketone bodie energy after starvation, but they do not help maintain blood volume and pressure. 3 This is incorrect. LFTs measure the function of the liver in the absence or presenc s the PTS: 1 CON: Tissue Integrity MULTIPLE RESPONSE 14. ANS: 1, 2, 3 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: E. Explain the difference between complete and incomplete proteins and give examples of food sources of each. Page: 53 Heading: Complete Protein Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate from are foods support from are foods support from are foods support teins. teins. PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 15. ANS: 2, 3 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: E. Explain the difference between complete and incomplete proteins and give examples of food sources of each. Page: 54 proteins. 4 This is incorrect. The globin part of hemoglobin is a simple protein. Hemoglobin i oxygen-carrying part of a red blood cell. Feedback 1. This is correct. With few exceptions, single foods containing complete protein come animal sources such as meat, poultry, fish, eggs, milk, and cheese. Complete proteins that supply all nine essential amino acids in sufficient quantity to maintain tissue and growth. 2. This is correct. With few exceptions, single foods containing complete protein come animal sources such as meat, poultry, fish, eggs, milk, and cheese. Complete proteins that supply all nine essential amino acids in sufficient quantity to maintain tissue and growth. 3. This is correct. With few exceptions, single foods containing complete protein come animal sources such as meat, poultry, fish, eggs, milk, and cheese. Complete proteins that supply all nine essential amino acids in sufficient quantity to maintain tissue and growth. 4. This is incorrect. Grains, vegetables, legumes, nuts, and seeds contain incomplete pro 5. This is incorrect. Grains, vegetables, legumes, nuts, and seeds contain incomplete pro Difficulty: Moderate s the part of relating . tion ion PTS: 1 CON: Tissue Integrity 19. ANS: 1, 2 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: 8. Explain the principle of complementation and its application to meal planning. Page: 55 Heading: Limiting Amino Acids and Complementation Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate ntation ential teins ntation ential teins ant he PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition Feedback 1. This is correct. Wound healing requires proteins. Many blood-clotting factors, such a protein prothrombin, form a blood clot. 2. This is correct. As cells of the body wear out, they must be replaced. Protein is a large this process. 3. This is correct. In addition to carrying substances to body cells, albumin has functions to water balance and plays a significant role in medication absorption and metabolism 4. This is incorrect. Catabolism does not have important implications for protein circula within the body. 5. This is incorrect. Anabolism does not have important implications for protein circulat within the body. Feedback 1. This is correct. On the basis of animal and human studies, the principle of compleme recommends every meal contain a combination of plant foods that provide all the ess amino acids and that adults are adequately nourished by consuming assorted plant pro throughout the day. 2. This is correct. On the basis of animal and human studies, the principle of compleme recommends every meal contain a combination of plant foods that provide all the ess amino acids and that adults are adequately nourished by consuming assorted plant pro throughout the day. 3. This is incorrect. Although many legumes contain proteins, not all legumes are import sources of protein. 5. This is incorrect. Many nuts are low in fat but also high in fiber. 5. This is incorrect. Using a journal to chart response to each meal does not implement t complementation principle for this client. 20. ANS: 1, 2, 3 Chapter: Chapter 4, Protein Objective: A. Distinguish protein from the other energy nutrients. Page: 53 Heading: Energy Source Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Metabolism Difficulty: Moderate ein can be s glucose energy rgy re id PTS: 1 CON: Metabolism Chapter 6. Vitamins Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which statement explains the nature of vitamins? fats and Feedback 1. This is correct. Glucose is the most efficiently used source of energy, but fat and prot adapted as backup sources. 2. This is correct. The brain is the most energy-demanding organ in the body, and utilize as an energy source. 3. This is correct. When the body has insufficient glucose available for nervous system needs (as in an overnight fast), the body will utilize body protein tissue to meet the ene needs of the brain and spinal cord. 4. This is incorrect. Adequate carbohydrate and overall caloric intake is necessary to spa protein for its unique contribution to tissue building. 5. This is incorrect. Adequate carbohydrate and overall caloric intake is necessary to avo ketosis, which may lead o muscle loss. 1. Vitamins are inorganic substances needed by the body as sources of energy and for metabolism. 2. Vitamins are coenzymes that aid proteins in the process of energy maintenance and metabolism. 3. Vitamins are organic substances needed by the body for metabolism, growth, and maintenance. 4. Vitamins serve as regulators or adjusters of the enzymatic system that help support CHOs. 2. A nurse teaches a client that the functions of vitamins are specific. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching is necessary? o take t I can e vitamins cannot 3. A nurse is teaching clients about healthy diets. During the processing of foods, which type of vitamins are retained? 1. B-complex vitamins only 2. Water-soluble vitamins 3. Fat-soluble vitamins 4. Preformed vitamins 4. A nurse is teaching a client about healthy living and obtaining adequate nutrition and energy from one’s diet. Which statement by the client shows the teaching has been understood? 1. “Water-soluble vitamins are unstable, and none of the vitamins are energy sources.” 2. “Vitamins are measured in international units based on units of energy in the body.” 3. “My nutritionist measures energy content of vitamins by the solubility of each.” 4. “Energy, whether stored in vitamins or the body, is measured in international units.” 5. Which statement about dietary reference intakes indicates that more teaching is necessary? .” s.” 6. A nurse is working with a nutritionist regarding the amounts of recommended vitamins for a client that had a gastric bypass. In addition to physiological status, which criteria will help make the correct dietary decision for this client? 1. Age 2. Weight 3. Gender 4. Height 1. “Vitamin C prevents scurvy, which affects bones. Vitamin D does too, so it’s okay vitamin D if my vitamin C intake is too low.” 2. “The B vitamins, along with vitamin C and biotin, are all water-soluble vitamins tha take and dissolve in water.” 3. “I could die if I take too much vitamin A or vitamin D, because those are fat- solubl that have varying lengths of absorption in the gut.” 4. “Even though vitamins E and K are fat-soluble, they have different functions, and I substitute one for another.” 1. “The amount of vitamins needed in the body is based on age and physiological status 2. “The recommended amounts of vitamins are the same for every individual.” 3. “Most vitamins are measured using the metric system of micrograms and milligram 4. “Vitamins A, D, and E are measured in international units that are specific for each.” 5. Collards 17. A nurse received a report from the gastrointestinal department and is waiting to admit a client diagnosed with vitamin A and C deficiencies. Which foods does the nurse suspect the client does not eat? Select all that apply. 1. Broccoli 2. Red pepper 3. Salmon 4. Cantaloupe 5. Coffee 18. A nurse is teaching a class on diet and nutrition. Which two forms of vitamin D are metabolically active? Select all that apply. 1. Ergocalciferol 2. Cholecalciferol 3. Tocopherol 4. Menaquinone 5. Phytonadione 19. A nurse is teaching a class about fortified foods, specifically vitamins B9 and B1B. Which clients especially benefit from the fortification of these nutrients? Select all that apply. 1. Clients with alcoholism 2. Pregnant women 3. Infants 4. Clients with COPD 5. Vegans 20. A nurse teaches about vitamin supplementation to a client thinking about gastric-bypass surgery. Which vitamins should be noted as causing toxicity from excessive supplemental usage? Select all that apply. 1. Vitamin D 2. Vitamin E 3. Vitamin A 4. Vitamin K 5. Vitamin C Chapter 6. Vitamins Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: 3 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: A. Define vitamins. Page: 71 Heading: The Nature of Vitamins Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Comprehension Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate rgy. as nts for of the PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 2. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: A. Define vitamins. Page: 71 Heading: The Nature of Vitamins Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate the , taking nd the B ntothenic way as the Feedback 1 This is incorrect. Vitamins are organic substances, and they are not sources of ene 2 This is incorrect. Vitamins act as regulators or adjusters of metabolic processes and coenzymes in enzymatic systems. 3 This is correct. Vitamins are organic substances needed by the body in small amou normal metabolism, growth, and maintenance. 4 This is incorrect. Vitamins do not support fats and CHOs as regulators or adjusters enzymatic system. Feedback 1 This is correct. Vitamin functions are specific. Overall, one vitamin cannot perform functions of another. If a person does not consume enough vitamin C, for instance vitamin D will not correct the deficiency. 2 This is incorrect. Vitamins that dissolve in water are vitamin C, or ascorbic acid, a vitamins (thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, vitamin B6, folate, vitamin B12), as well as pa acid, biotin, and choline. 3 This is incorrect. Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed from the intestine in the same fats, and like fats, they can be stored in the body for varying lengths of time, giving potential for health problems due to excessive intake. esses do PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 3. ANS: 3 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: B. Differentiate between fat- and water-soluble vitamins. Page: 72 Heading: Fat-Soluble Vitamins Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate and . ss of a oring. ds. t be rs once PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 4. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: B. Differentiate between fat- and water-soluble vitamins. Page: 80 Heading: Water-Soluble Vitamins Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate during y become its (IUs), 4 This is incorrect. Vitamin functions are specific. With few exceptions, bodily proc not permit substitutes. Feedback 1 This is incorrect. The eight B-complex vitamins and vitamin C are water- soluble, water-soluble vitamins are more unstable in processing than others. 2 This is incorrect. Water-soluble vitamins are not all retained during food processing 3 This is correct. Fat-soluble vitamins are more stable during processing. More or le vitamin may be retained in a food, depending on the methods of processing and st 4 This is incorrect. A preformed vitamin is already in a complete state in ingested foo Vitamin A and niacin come in preformed states; however, preformed vitamin mus accompanied by at least 10 grams of fat and preformed niacin has a half-life of hou metabolized by the body. Feedback 1 This is correct. Water-soluble vitamins are more unstable than fat-soluble vitamins the processing and storing of foods. Vitamins are not sources of energy, nor do the part of the structure of the body. 2 This is incorrect. Formerly, fat-soluble vitamins were measured in international un 3 This is incorrect. Vitamin A deficiency is not associated with muscle injury. 4 This is incorrect. Osteomalacia is associated with vitamin D deficiency. PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 9. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: 7. Differentiate enrichment from fortification. Page: 77 Heading: DRIs and Sources Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate ing food to s are PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 10. ANS: 3 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: 7. Differentiate enrichment from fortification. Page: 74 Heading: Vitamin A Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate r the D is not ven food Feedback 1 This is correct. Enrichment is the replacement of nutrients lost in processing or dur storage. 2 This is incorrect. Fortification is the addition of nutrients not normally present in a increase its nutritional value. 3 This is incorrect. Carbohydrates are not added as nutrient replacement. 4 This is incorrect. Not all nutrients can be replaced; therefore, whole-grain product recommended. Feedback 1 This is incorrect. Diet exclusion, or the exclusion of foods, is not recommended fo prevention of vitamin deficiency. 2 This is incorrect. Although vitamins may perform some similar functions, Vitamin vitamin A. One vitamin cannot be substituted for all the functions of another. 3 This is correct. Fortification is the addition of nutrients not normally present in a gi to increase its nutritional value, for example, vitamins A and D in milk. 4 This is incorrect. Fat increase is not a strategy to prevent vitamin A deficiency. PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 11. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: 8. Distinguish two vitamins with associated toxicities from natural or fortified foods, emphasizing persons with increased risk. Page: 75 Heading: Toxicity Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate much dice, cted. es n which s. liver rmed and PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 12. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: 8. Distinguish two vitamins with associated toxicities from natural or fortified foods, emphasizing persons with increased risk. Page: 75 Heading: Toxicity Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate Feedback 1 This is correct. A common cause of carotenemia in infants is consumption of too squash and carrots. The person’s skin becomes yellow, similar to that shown in jaun but with carotenemia, the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet are also affe Also, unlike jaundice, the whites of the eyes remain white in carotenemia. 2 This is incorrect. Although jaundice does lead to yellowing of the skin, it also caus yellowing of the sclera (the whites of the eye). This is in contrast to carotenemia, i the whites of the eye remain clear. 3 This is incorrect. Hypervitaminosis does not cause yellowing of the skin and palm Symptoms of hypervitaminosis A can include ataxia, pain in the bones and joints, failure, dry skin, and poor appetite. 4 This is incorrect. Scurvy does not cause yellowing of the skin and palms. Signs and symptoms of scurvy include the ends of long bones softening and becoming malfo painful, fractures appearing, teeth loosening in their sockets and falling out, and hemorrhaging about the joints, stomach, and heart. y skin, PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 13. ANS: 1 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: D. Describe the diseases caused by deficiencies of vitamins A and D. Page: 75 Heading: Vitamin D Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Comprehension Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate sources s as an es and he rmation. intenance PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition MULTIPLE RESPONSE 14. ANS: 1, 2, 3, 5 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: E. List four diseases caused by specific water-soluble vitamin deficiencies. Page: 81 Heading: Water-Soluble Vitamins Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Feedback 1 This is correct. Vitamin A toxicity is called hypervitaminosis A. Symptoms of hypervitaminosis A can include ataxia, pain in the bones and joints, liver failure, dr and poor appetite. 2 This is incorrect. Nausea is not a symptom of hypervitaminosis A. 3 This is incorrect. Vomiting is not a symptom of hypervitaminosis A. 4 This is incorrect. Dysphagia is not a symptom of hypervitaminosis A. Feedback 1 This is correct. Vitamin D is not a true vitamin because it can be attained through other than diet. Instead, this key nutrient is a pro-hormone. 2 This is incorrect. Vitamin C contributes to wound, burn, and fracture healing; serve antioxidant; enhances the absorption of iron; and assists in the synthesis of hormon neurotransmitters. 3 This is incorrect. Vitamin B12, also called cobalamin, is an essential coenzyme in t synthesis of DNA, RNA, and myelin, and is necessary for normal red blood cell fo 4 This is incorrect. Vitamin A, or retinol is essential for vision, bone growth, and ma of epithelial tissue. Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate both PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 18. ANS: 1, 2 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: 10. Describe the prudent use of vitamin supplements. Page: 75 Heading: Vitamin D Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate t. kin of PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 19. ANS: 1, 2, 3, 5 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: 1A. Relate two large population groups for whom supplements or fortified foods are recommended to the specified vitamin for each group. Page: 88 Heading: B12 Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Feedback 1. This is correct. Broccoli is a good source of vitamins A and C. 2. This is correct. Red pepper is a good source of vitamins A and C. 3. This is incorrect. Although salmon may provide vitamin D, it is not a good source of vitamins A and C. 4. This is correct. Cantaloupe is considered a good source of vitamins A and C. 5. This is incorrect. Coffee and tea contain niacin and can prevent pellagra. Feedback 1. This is correct. Two forms of vitamin D are metabolically active; one vitamin D2, ergocalciferol, is formed when ergosterol (provitamin) in plants is irradiated by sunligh 2. This is correct. Two forms of vitamin D are metabolically active; one is vitamin D3, cholecalciferol. It is formed when 7-dehydrocholesterol (another provitamin) in the s animals or humans is irradiated by ultraviolet light or sunlight. 3. This is incorrect. Tocopherol is a source of vitamin E. 4. This is incorrect. Menaquinone is a form of vitamin K (vitamin K2). 5. This is incorrect. Phytonadione is a form of vitamin K (vitamin K1). Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate mended, mended, such as B mended, PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition 20. ANS: 1, 2 Chapter: Chapter 6, Vitamins Objective: 8. Distinguish two vitamins with associated toxicities from natural or fortified foods, emphasizing persons with increased risk. Page: 72 Heading: Fat-Soluble Vitamins Integrated Processes: Teaching and Learning Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance Cognitive Level: Application Concept: Nutrition Difficulty: Moderate ments is ting, n D s, muscle on, taken. n C are Feedback 1. This is correct. For certain groups of people, fortified foods or supplements are recom such as those with alcoholism (B6). 2. This is correct. For certain groups of people, fortified foods or supplements are recom such as women capable of becoming pregnant (folic acid). 3. This is correct. For certain groups, fortified foods or supplements are recommended, infants (vitamin D). 4. This is incorrect. COPD is a respiratory disease that does not necessarily benefit from B12 fortification of foods or supplements. 5. This is correct. For certain groups of people, fortified foods or supplements are recom such as vegans (vitamin B12). Feedback 1. This is correct. More than any other vitamin, a high consumption of vitamin D supple likely to cause toxicity from excess. Symptoms include loss of appetite, nausea, vomi polyuria, muscular weakness, and constipation. More serious consequences of vitami overdose result from calcium deposits in the heart, kidneys, and brain. 2. This is correct. Excessive supplemental vitamin E can cause gastrointestinal symptom weakness, double vision, and increased bleeding tendencies. 3. This is incorrect. Although most other vitamin toxicities are a result of supplementati hypervitaminosis A can be caused by foods. 4. This is incorrect. The naturally occurring forms of vitamins K1 and K2 have not been associated with adverse effects, but caution is warranted, particularly if high doses are 5. This is incorrect. The most common side effects of large amounts (2 grams) of vitami PTS: 1 CON: Nutrition Chapter 7. Minerals Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which statement explains the nature of minerals? colon. lism. tabolism . health. 2. A nurse teaches a client that most functions of minerals in the body are specific to regulatory and metabolic processes. Which statement by the client indicates teaching has been successful? e.” 3. What is the daily intake requirement for a major mineral? 1. 1 gram 2. 1 teaspoonful 3. 10 milligrams 4. 1/50 teaspoonful 4. A nurse is teaching clients about healthy living and the contributions of minerals to the growth and maintenance of the body’s health. Which statement by the clients shows an understanding of the importance of minerals in the body? dy’s mineral.” ain 5. Which statement made to a nurse about how calcium is used by the human body indicates that more abdominal pain and osmotic diarrhea from bacterial metabolism of the vitamin in the 1. They are organic substances needed by the body as sources of energy and for metabo 2. They are coenzymes that aid vitamins in the process of energy maintenance and me 3. They are inorganic substances that become part of the body and are essential to good 4. They are regulators of the enzymatic system that help support metabolic processes. 1. “A change in my sodium is not a critical problem. I should just drink some Gatorad 2. “Potassium and phosphorus are significant in maintaining my acid–base balance.” 3. “Alterations in mineral balance are not life threatening.” 4. “When calcium and phosphorus combine, they may soften my teeth.” 1. “Even though we have less than a teaspoon of trace minerals, they are vital to the bo functioning.” 2. “An ultratrace of minerals is not even worth counting; we don’t have any daily requirements.” 3. “My nutritionist measures mineral content by the level of solubility of each known 4. “Minerals are so minute within the body, that taking supplements is enough to maint balance.”