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NURS317 Final Exam Questions and Answers, Exams of Nursing

A list of 33 multiple-choice questions and their corresponding answers related to various medical conditions and treatments. The questions cover topics such as bone diseases, medication side effects, and urinary tract infections. The document could be useful for nursing students studying for their final exam or for healthcare professionals looking to refresh their knowledge on these topics.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 01/10/2024

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Download NURS317 Final Exam Questions and Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! NURS317 final exam questions with answers correctly solved 1. An 80-year-old patient has been brought to the emergency department in shock. The patient is receiving dopamine (Intropin). What potentially serious adverse effect will the nurse monitor for? A)Blood dyscrasia B)Cardiac arrhythmia C)Hepatic toxicity D)Renal insufficiency Answer: B) Cardiac Arrhythmia 2. Disorders that affect cortical bone typically result in: A) Fractures of long bones B) Impaired collagen synthesis C) Infection D) Vertebral fractures Answer: A) Fractures of long bones 3. The condition that contributes to the pathology of all metabolic bone diseases is: A) Impaired Vitamin D synthesis B)Osteosarcomaa C) Infection D) Osteopenia Answer: D) Osteopenia 4.The distinguishing characteristic of chronic osteomyelitis is the presence of: A)sequestrum bone. B)abscess formation. C)severe bone pain. D)external drainage. Answer: A) sequestrum bone 5. The patient has a fractured tibia. After the cast is applied he is at high risk for compartment syndrome caused by: A) inflammation. B) joint immobility. C)muscle atrophy. D)extremity elevation. Answer: A) inflammation 6. A child has been hospitalized for the treatment of hematogenous osteomyelitis. The defining characteristic of this type of osteomyelitis is: A) the presence of dead bone tissue. B) introduction of microorganisms from the bloodstream. C)bacterial proliferation in the absence of the classic signs of infection. D)destruction of the vascular network in the endosteum. Answer: B) introduction of microorganisms from the blood stream 7. For what reason might the nurse administer sildenafil to a woman? A)Pulmonary arterial hypertension B)Endometriosis C)Sexual dysfunction D)Breast cancer Answer: A) Pulmonary arterial hypertension 8. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who will be going home on cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) prescribed for his acute musculoskeletal pain. The nurse will stress that the patient should avoid what? A)Taking antibiotics B)Taking antihistamines C)Drinking alcohol D)Taking antiemetics Answer: C) Drinking alcohol 9. A postmenopausal client has been diagnosed with breast cancer. The client is being treated with methyltestosterone. What assessment finding would the nurse suspect is a complication from the medication? A)Increased blood pressure B)Jaundice C)Weight loss D)High-pitched voice Answer: B) Jaundice 10. A client will begin taking sildenafil for penile erectile dysfunction (ED). What is the nurse's priority teaching point about this drug? A)He will have an erection between 55 and 65 minutes after taking the drug. B)The drug should not be taken by any client who is being treated for hypertension. C)Avoid drinking grapefruit juice for 2 days before and after taking the drug. D) It is important to know the cause of ED because sildenafil does not treat all causes. Answer: B)The drug should not be taken by any client who is being treated for hypertension. 11. Which of the following physiologic process results from the synthesis and release of testosterone? A. Protein catabolism B. Musculoskeletal growth C. Prostatic hyperplasia D. Release of luteinizing horomone 22. A teenager has been diagnosed with failure to thrive. The health care providers suspect a malabsorption syndrome. In addition to having diarrhea and bloating, the client more than likely has what hallmark manifestation of malabsorption? A) Feeling there is incomplete emptying of the bowel B) Abdominal distention C) Esophageal reflux with heartburn D) Fatty, yellow-gray, foul-smelling stools Answer: D) Fatty, yellow-gray, foul-smelling stools 23. The role Kupffer cells play in removing harmful substances or cells from the portal blood as it moves through the venous sinusoids is known as: A) Filters B) Channels C) Phagocytes D) Cytotoxic cells Answer: C) Phagocytes 24. The nurse teaches the patient to best maintain optimal GI function by including what in the daily routine? A) Exercise, adequate sleep, and avoiding caffeine B) Proper diet, fluid intake, and exercise C) Proper diet, avoiding alcohol, and cautious use of laxatives D) Avoiding prescription medications, increased fluid intake, and vigorous exercise Answer: B) Proper diet, fluid intake, and exercise 25. The nurse provides drug teaching to the patient who will begin taking polycarbophil (FiberCon). What is the nurses priority teaching point? A) Do not eat or drink anything for 2 hours after taking the medication. B) Drink lots of water when taking the drug. C) Take at night before bedtime. D) The drug can be taken up to six times per day. Answer: B) Drink lots of water when taking the drug. 26. A drug abuser was found unconscious after shooting up heroin 2 days prior. Because of the pressure placed on the hip and arm, the client has developed rhabdomyolysis. The nurse knows this can: A) Obstruct the renal tubules with myoglobin and damage tubular cells B) Be cured by administering an anticoagulant immediately C) Cause the kidney to develop renal stones due to stasis D) Cause compartment syndrome in the lower extremities Answer: A) Obstruct the renal tubules with myoglobin and damage tubular cells 27. A client is beginning to recover from acute tubular necrosis. The nurse would likely be assessing which of the following manifestations of the recovery phase of ATN? A) Edema B) Diuresis C) Proteinuria D) Hypokalemia Answer: B) Diuresis 28. A client with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) may require the administration of which of the following drugs to treat coexisting conditions that carry a high mortality? A) Antihypertensive medications B) Antiarrhythmic medications C) Opioid analgesics D) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) Answer: A) Antihypertensive medications 29. A businesswoman who is leaving on a business trip the next day tells the nurse she knows she has cystitis and does not want to have to "mess" with medicine while she is gone. What drug would be a good choice for this patient? A) Fosfomycin (Monurol) B) Methenamine (Hiprex) C) Nitrofurantoin (Furadantin) D) Norfloxacin (Noroxin) Answer: A) Fosfomycin (Monurol) 30. The nurse is caring for a patient with a bladder infection. What symptoms are most common with this type of infection? (Select all that apply.) A) Frequency B) Urgency C) Dysuria D) Flank pain E) Temperature elevation over 102°F Answer: A,B,C 31.Which of the following signs and symptoms most clearly suggests the need for endoscopy to rule out esophageal cancer? A) Heartburn after an individual consumes high-fat meals B) Dysphagia in an individual with no history of neurologic disease C) A new onset of gastroesophageal reflux in a previously healthy individual D) Recurrent episodes of gastritis that do not respond to changes in diet Ans Dysphagia in an individual with no history of neurologic disease 32. After reviewing the 24-hour intake and output of a hospital client, the nurse suspects that the client may be experiencing flaccid bladder dysfunction. Which of the following diagnostic methods is most likely to confirm or rule out whether the client is retaining urine? Answer: Measurement of postvoid residual (PVR) by ultrasound 33. The nurse is preparing patient teaching for a diabetic patient who is to begin pramlintide acetate (Symlin) therapy, which will be taken in addition to insulin. What is the priority nursing instruction to include in this teaching plan? A) The drug is injected subcutaneously immediately before a major meal. B) The drug has a rapid onset of action. C) Inject the drug at least 2 inches away from any insulin injection site. D) Do not combine the drug with insulin in the same syringe. Answer: A) The drug is injected subcutaneously immediately before a major meal. 34. More complex patterns of movements, such as throwing a ball or picking up a fork, are controlled by which portion of the frontal lobe? A) Premotor cortex B) Primary motor cortex C) Reflexive circuitry D) Supplementary motor cortex Answer: A) Premotor cortex 35. Disorder of the pyramidal tracts, such as stroke, are characterized by: A) Paralysis B) Hypotonia C) Muscle Rigidity D) Involuntary movements Answer: A) Paralysis