NURS507 FINAL EXAM 2023 UPDATED QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS 100 % CORRECT WITH SUCCESS ASSURED, Exams of Nursing

Download NURS507 FINAL EXAM 2023 UPDATED QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS 100 % CORRECT WITH SUCCESS ASSURED and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! Question 2 2 / 2 pts Nur507 final exam questions with answers correctly tested and verified answers already rated a+ Question 1 Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease? Hemolytic anemia Pernicious anemia Systemic lupus erythematosus Myasthenia gravis Only the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA produce tissue damage in individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s. An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s. Chest wall compliance is higher in infants than it is in adults, particularly in premature infants. Question 3 2 / 2 pts Question 8 2 / 2 pts Question 9 2 / 2 pts Hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment. The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble to water-soluble form. The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth. Hyperbilirubinemia occurs in the neonate after birth because excretion of lipid- soluble unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta is no longer possible. This selection is the only option that accurately explains why HDN causes hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero. Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia? Increasing rate and depth of breathing Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction Hemoglobin holding more firmly onto oxygen Kidneys releasing more erythropoietin Tissue hypoxia creates additional demands and compensatory actions on the pulmonary and hematologic systems. The rate and depth of breathing increase in an attempt to increase the availability of oxygen. This selection is the only option that accurately describes the compensation mechanism in such anemias. An infant has a continuous machine-type murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole, as well as a bounding pulse and a thrill on palpation. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrial septal defect (ASD) Question 10 2 / 2 pts Question 11 2 / 2 pts Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect If pulmonary vascular resistance has fallen, then infants with PDA will characteristically have a continuous machine-type murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole. If the PDA is significant, then the infant also will have bounding pulses, an active precordium, a thrill on palpation, and signs and symptoms of pulmonary overcirculation. The presentations of the other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described the symptoms. Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease? Syphilis Gonorrhea Human papillomavirus Pelvic inflammatory disease Human papillomavirus (HPV) is the most common sexually transmitted virus in the United States. High-risk, or oncogenic, HPVs can cause cancer. A persistence of infection with high-risk HPV is a prerequisite for the development of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) lesions and invasive cervical cancers. No research supports such a link between the remaining options and cancer. When renin is released, it is capable of which action? Inactivation of autoregulation Question 12 2 / 2 pts Question 13 2 / 2 pts Direct activation of angiotensin II Direct release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Formation of angiotensin I When renin is released, it cleaves an α-globulin (angiotensinogen produced by liver hepatocytes) in the plasma to form angiotensin I. What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies? Greater quantities of histamine More histamine receptors Greater quantities of IgE A deficiency in epinephrine Atopic individuals tend to produce higher quantities of IgE and to have more crystalline fragment (Fc) receptors for IgE on their mast cells. The other options do not cause this reaction. What is the primary cause of the symptoms of polycythemia vera? Decreased erythrocyte count Destruction of erythrocytes Question 18 2 / 2 pts Question 19 2 / 2 pts Question 20 2 / 2 pts Only cancers arising from epithelial cells are called carcinomas. Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? Hypokalemia Hyperkalemia Hypocalcemia Hypercalcemia Two clinical signs of hypocalcemia are the Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign. These clinical signs are not indicative of any of the other options. The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as: Infectivity Toxigenicity Pathogenicity Virulence Infectivity is the ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host. The other options do not accurately denote the pathogen’s ability to invade and multiply in the host. Question 21 2 / 2 pts An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Atrial septal defect (ASD) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Because most children with ASD are asymptomatic, diagnosis is usually made during a routine physical examination by the auscultation of a crescendo- decrescendo systolic ejection murmur that reflects increased blood flow through the pulmonary valve. The location of the murmur is between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also characteristic of ASD, reflecting volume overload to the right ventricle and causing prolonged ejection time and a delay of pulmonic valve closure. The presentations of other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described symptoms. Which cancer originates from connective tissue? Osteogenic sarcoma Basal cell carcinoma Multiple myeloma Adenocarcinoma Question 22 2 / 2 pts Question 23 2 / 2 pts Cancers arising from connective tissue usually have the suffix - sarcoma. The remaining options are not cancers that originate in the connective tissue and, in addition, are lacking the common suffix. Which substance is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure? Iron Erythropoietin Cobalamin (vitamin B12) Folate One of the most significant advances in the study of hematopoietic growth factors has been the development of erythropoietin for individuals with chronic renal failure. The other options are not associated with the treatment of chronic anemia. Which of the following are formed elements of the blood that are not cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments essential for blood clotting? Monocytes Platelets Macrophages Erythrocytes Platelets (thrombocytes) are not true cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments that are essential for blood coagulation and control of bleeding. This description is not accurate for any of the other options. Question 29 2 / 2 pts Question 30 2 / 2 pts Parietal lobe Thalamus Hypothalamus The limbic and reticular tracts are involved in alerting the body to danger, initiating arousal of the organism, and emotionally processing the perceived afferent signals, not just as stimuli, but also as pain. The remaining options do not fulfill this objective. The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is: Posterior Inferior Anterior Superior Only the posterior pituitary secretes oxytocin. Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities? Paroxysmal Tardive Hyperkinesia Question 31 2 / 2 pts Question 32 2 / 2 pts Cardive Tardive dyskinesia is the involuntary movement of the face, trunk, and extremities. The other terms do not describe involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities. Which term is also used to refer to paradoxic sleep? Non-REM Light REM Delta wave REM sleep is also known as paradoxic sleep because the electroencephalographic (EEG) pattern is similar to the normal awake pattern. None of the other terms are used to identify paradoxic sleep. Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome? Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90 Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness Individuals with this disease are mentally retarded, with IQs usually ranging from 25 to 70. The facial appearance is distinctive and exhibits a low nasal bridge, Question 38 2 / 2 pts Question 39 2 / 2 pts Question 37 2 / 2 pts What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language? Agnosia Aphasia Akinesia Dysphasia Aphasia is the loss of the comprehension or production of language. The remaining options are not terms used to describe this loss of function. Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of: Decreased production of aqueous humor Increased production of vitreous humor Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor Excessive destruction of vitreous humor Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of an obstruction of the outflow of aqueous humor at trabecular meshwork or Schlemm canal. The remaining options fail to accurately describe the cause of open-angle glaucoma. What is the most common malignant bone tumor diagnosed during childhood? Question 40 2 / 2 pts Question 41 2 / 2 pts Chondrosarcoma Fibrosarcoma Ewing Sarcoma Osteosarcoma Of the options available, osteosarcoma is the most common bone tumor that occurs during childhood; it originates from bone-producing mesenchymal cells. What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)? Diet high in saturated fats Increased production of cholesterol by the liver Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces Abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood A reduction in the number of functional LDL receptors on cell surfaces causes FH. Lacking the normal number of LDL receptors, cellular cholesterol uptake is reduced and circulating cholesterol levels increase (see Box 5-3). The other options are not the basis for developing familial FH. Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle? Sodium intake Physical inactivity Question 42 2 / 2 pts Question 43 2 / 2 pts Psychosocial stress Obesity The most important environmental risk factors for hypertension are increased sodium intake, decreased physical activity, psychosocial stress, and obesity. However, obesity is, itself, influenced by genes and the environment. Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone? Thyroxine Aldosterone Follicle-stimulating hormone Insulin Peptide or protein hormones, such as insulin, pituitary, hypothalamic, and parathyroid, are water soluble and circulate in free (unbound) forms. All the remaining options are fat-soluble hormones. When does the male body begin to produce sperm? Before birth Shortly after birth At puberty Question 49 2 / 2 pts Question 50 2 / 2 pts NSAIDs Estrogen SSRIs Progesterone A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) (an antidepressant) relieves symptoms in approximately 60% to 90% of women and may be continually administered or only prescribed during the premenstrual period. Oral contraceptive pills that contain estrogen and progesterone also can be continuously used for up to 3 months to decrease the frequency of menstrual periods, PMS, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Nonsteriodal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) would not be continually administered. What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation? Down syndrome Fragile X syndrome Klinefelter syndrome Turner syndrome The fragile X syndrome is the second most common genetic cause of mental retardation (after Down syndrome). The correct option is not observed with enough frequency to be recognized as the second most common cause of mental retardation. Question 51 2 / 2 pts Question 52 2 / 2 pts Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell? Potassium Calcium Sodium Phosphorus Insulin facilitates the intracellular transport of potassium, phosphate, and magnesium. Insulin does not facilitate the transport of the other electrolytes. Which hormone stimulates gonads to produce both male and female hormones? Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Estrogen Extrahypothalamic factors cause the hypothalamus to secrete GnRH, which stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete gonadotropins—FSH and LH. These hormones, in turn, stimulate the gonads (ovaries or testes) to secrete female or male sex hormones. The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone? Thyroxine Question 53 2 / 2 pts Question 54 2 / 2 pts Insulin Cortisol. Antidiuretic hormone Psychologic and physiologic stress (e.g., hypoxia, hypoglycemia, hyperthermia, exercise) increases ACTH secretion, leading to increased cortisol levels. Only cortisol describes the appropriate feedback loop. Antipsychotic drugs block which neurotransmitter receptor? Norepinephrine Gamma-aminobutyric acid Serotonin Dopamine The dopamine hypothesis initially suggested that abnormal elevation in dopaminergic transmission contributes to the onset of schizophrenia. This hypothesis was based on pharmacologic studies showing that antipsychotic drugs are potent blockers of brain dopamine receptors; therefore the other options are incorrect. In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by: Disruption in the hypothalamus Question 59 2 / 2 pts Question 60 2 / 2 pts Nonunion Dislocation is the temporary displacement of a bone from its normal position in a joint. If the contact between the two surfaces is only partially lost, then the injury is referred to as a subluxation. This selection is the only option that identifies the temporary displacement of two bones, causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact. What is the basic structural unit in compact bone? Small channels called canaliculi Osteocytes within the lacunae Tiny spaces within the lacunae Haversian system The basic structural unit in compact bone is the haversian system (see Figure 43-4). This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the basic structure of compact bone. What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone? Sharpey fibers Collagen fibers Glycoproteins Elastin fibers Question 61 2 / 2 pts Question 62 2 / 2 pts Collagen fibers are important components of the cartilage matrix because they anchor the cartilage securely to underlying bone. This statement is not true of the other options. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of: Positive feedback Negative feedback Neural regulation Physiologic regulation Feedback systems provide precise monitoring and control of the cellular environment. Negative feedback occurs because the changing chemical, neural, or endocrine response to a stimulus negates the initiating change that triggered the release of the hormone. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus stimulates TSH secretion from the anterior pituitary. Secretion of TSH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of THs. Increasing levels of T4 and triiodothyronine (T3) then generate negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus to inhibit TRH and TSH synthesis. The described example is not accurately identified by any of the other options. Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis? Premenstrual syndrome Dysfunctional uterine bleeding Polycystic ovary syndrome Question 63 2 / 2 pts Question 64 2 / 2 pts Primary dysmenorrhea Unpredictable and variable bleeding, in terms of amount and duration, characterize dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Especially during perimenopause, dysfunctional bleeding also may involve flooding and the passage of large clots, which often indicate excessive blood loss. Excessive bleeding can lead to iron- deficiency anemia. This option is the only answer that demonstrates the clinical manifestations described. The absence of which major hormone is a determinant of sexual differentiation (wolffian system) in utero? Estrogen Progesterone Growth hormone Testosterone In the absence of testosterone, a loss of the wolffian system occurs and the two gonads develop into ovaries at 6 to 8 weeks’ gestation. Between 6 and 7 weeks’ gestation, the male embryo differentiates under the influence of TDF. The presence of estrogen is a determinating factor. None of the other options function as a major determinant to sexual differentiation in utero. Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by: Reducing the amount of insulin the pancreas produces Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells Obstructing the outflow of insulin from the pancreas Question 70 2 / 2 pts Question 71 2 / 2 pts Distal femurs Heads of the humerus Distal tibias A recurrent interruption of the blood supply to only the femoral heads presumably produces Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, which is a self- limited disease of the hip. An individual’s genetic makeup is referred to as his or her: Phenotype Genotype Heterozygous locus Homozygous locus An individual’s genotype is his or her genetic makeup. The correct option is the only one that accurately defines a person’s genetic makeup. What term is used to identify the calcium crystals that are associated with chronic gout? Stones Spurs Question 72 2 / 2 pts Question 73 2 / 2 pts Tophi Nodes With time, crystal deposition in subcutaneous tissues causes the formation of small white nodules, or tophi, that are visible through the skin. Crystal aggregates deposited in the kidneys can form urate renal stones and lead to renal failure. None of the other options are associated with the calcium crystals resulting from chronic gout. Which gastric cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor? Parietal Chief G H Of the available options, only the parietal cells (oxyntic cells) secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor. A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months? 3 6 9 Question 74 2 / 2 pts Question 75 2 / 2 pts 12 GAD is diagnosed when an individual spends at least 6 months worrying excessively and exhibits at least three of the six symptoms. Although 3 months is not sufficient time, the remaining options are excessive. A major characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus is that there is: Partial insulin secretion An autoimmune cause factor Insulin resistance Obesity as a common risk factor A strong association between type 1 diabetes and the presence of several human leukocyte antigen (HLA) class II alleles indicate that type 1 diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune disease. The remaining options are associated with type 2 diabetes. Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)? Optic (CN I) Abducens (CN VI) Oculomotor (CN III) Trochlear (CN IV)