NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for NCLEX-RN & NCLEX, Exams of Nursing

Download NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for NCLEX-RN & NCLEX and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW 1. A client has been hospitalized after an automobile accident. A full leg cast was applied in the emergency room. The most important reason for the nurse to elevate the casted leg is to A) Promote the client's comfort B) Reduce the drying time C) Decrease irritation to the skin D) Improve venous return D: Improve venous return. Elevating the leg both improves venous return and reduces swelling. Client comfort will be improved as well. 2. The nurse is reviewing with a client how to collect a clean catch urine specimen. What is the appropriate sequence to teach the client? A) Clean the meatus, begin voiding, then catch urine stream B) Void a little, clean the meatus, then collect specimen C) Clean the meatus, then urinate into container D) Void continuously and catch some of the urine A: Clean the meatus, begin voiding, then catch urine stream. A clean catch urine is difficult to obtain and requires clear directions. Instructing the client to carefully clean the meatus, then void naturally with a steady stream prevents surface bacteria from contaminating the urine specimen. As starting and stopping flow can be difficult, once the client begins voiding it’s best to just slip the container into the stream. Other responses do not reflect correct technique 3. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first? A) 16 year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago B) 20 year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motor cycle accident C) 72 year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago D) 75 year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery. C: Look for the client who has the most imminent risks and acute vulnerability. The client who returned from surgery 2 hours ago is at risk for life threatening hemorrhage and should be seen first. The 16 year-old should be seen next because it is still the first post-op day. The 75 year-old is potentially vulnerable to age-related physical and cognitive consequences in skin traction should be seen next. The client who can safely be seen last is the 20 year-old who is 2 weeks post-injury. 4. A client with Guillain Barre is in a nonresponsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition? A) Comatose, breathing unlabored B) Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular C) Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable D) Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required B: Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular. The Glascow Coma Scale provides a standard reference for assessing or monitoring level of consciousness. Any score less than 13 indicates a neurological impairment. Using the term comatose provides too much room for interpretation and is not very precise. 5. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug? A) Bleeding time B) Coagulation time C) Prothrombin time D) Partial thromboplastin time C: Prothrombin time. Coumadin is ordered daily, based on the client''s prothrombin time (PT). This test evaluates the adequacy of the extrinsic system and common pathway in the clotting cascade; Coumadin affects the Vitamin K dependent clotting factors. 6. A client with moderate persistent asthma is admitted for a minor surgical procedure. On admission the peak flow meter is measured at 480 liters/minute. Post-operatively the client is complaining of chest tightness. The peak flow has dropped to 200 liters/minute. 2 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL What should the nurse do first? A) Notify both the surgeon and provider B) Administer the prn dose of albuterol C) Apply oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula D) Repeat the peak flow reading in 30 minutes B: Administer the prn dose of albuterol. Peak flow monitoring during exacerbations of asthma is recommended for clients with moderate-to-severe persistent asthma to determine the severity of the exacerbation and to guide the treatment. A peak flow reading of less than 50% of the client''s baseline reading is a medical alert condition and a short-acting beta-agonist must be taken immediately. 7. A client had 20 mg of Lasix (furosemide) PO at 10 AM. Which would be essential for the nurse to include at the change of shift report? A) The client lost 2 pounds in 24 hours 5 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL C: HCT of 60. This high hematocrit is indicative of severe dehydration which requires priority attention in diabetic ketoacidosis. Without sufficient hydration, all systems of the body are at risk for hypoxia from a lack of or sluggish circulation. In the absence of insulin, which facilitates the transport of glucose into the cell, the body breaks down fats and proteins to supply energy ketones, a by-product of fat metabolism. These accumulate causing metabolic acidosis (pH < 7.3), which would be the second concern for this client. The potassium and PaO2 levels are near normal. 14. The nurse is preparing a client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test? A) Client should be NPO after midnight B) Client should receive a sedative medication prior to the test C) Discontinue anti-coagulant therapy prior to the test D) No special preparation is necessary D: No special preparation is necessary. This is a non-invasive procedure and does not require preparation other than client education. 15. A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which finding would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition? A) dyspnea B) heart murmur C) macular rash D) Hemorrhage B: heart murmur. Large, soft, rapidly developing vegetations attach to the heart valves. They have a tendency to break off, causing emboli and leaving ulcerations on the valve leaflets. These emboli produce findings of cardiac murmur, fever, anorexia, malaise and neurologic sequelae of emboli. Furthermore, the vegetations may travel to various organs such as spleen, kidney, coronary artery, brain and lungs, and obstruct blood flow. 16. The nurse explains an autograft to a client scheduled for excision of a skin tumor. The nurse knows the client understands the procedure when the client says, "I will receive tissue from A) a tissue bank." B) a pig." C) my thigh." D) synthetic skin." C: my thigh.". Autografts are done with tissue transplanted from the client''s own skin. 17. A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse? A) Diffuse expiratory wheezing B) Loose, productive cough C) No relief from inhalant D) Fever and chills A: Diffuse expiratory wheezing. In asthma, the airways are narrowed, creating difficulty getting air in. A wheezing sound results. 18. A client has been admitted with a fractured femur and has been placed in skeletal traction. Which of the following nursing interventions should receive priority? A) Maintaining proper body alignment B) Frequent neurovascular assessments of the affected leg C) Inspection of pin sites for evidence of drainage or inflammation D) Applying an over-bed trapeze to assist the client with movement in bed B: Frequent neurovascular assessments of the affected leg. The most important activity for the nurse is to assess neurovascular status. Compartment syndrome is a serious complication of fractures. Prompt recognition of this neurovascular problem and early intervention may prevent permanent limb damage. 6 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL 19. The nurse is assigned to care for a client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 2 days ago. The client has many questions about this condition. What area is a priority for the nurse to discuss at this time? A) Daily needs and concerns B) The overview cardiac rehabilitation C) Medication and diet guideline D) Activity and rest guidelines A: Daily needs and concerns. At 2 days post-MI, the client’s education should be focused on the immediate needs and concerns for the day. 20. A 3 year-old child is brought to the clinic by his grandmother to be seen for "scratching his bottom and wetting the bed at night." Based on these complaints, the nurse would initially assess for which problem? A) allergies B) scabies C) regression D) pinworms 7 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL D: pinworms. Signs of pinworm infection include intense perianal itching, poor sleep patterns, general irritability, restlessness, bed-wetting, distractibility and short attention span. Scabies is an itchy skin condition caused by a tiny, eight-legged burrowing mite called Sarcoptes scabiei . The presence of the mite leads to intense itching in the area of its burrows. 21. The nurse is caring for a newborn with tracheoesophageal fistula. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority? A) Risk for dehydration B) Ineffective airway clearance C) Altered nutrition D) Risk for injury B: Ineffective airway clearance. The most common form of TEF is one in which the proximal esophageal segment terminates in a blind pouch and the distal segment is connected to the trachea or primary bronchus by a short fistula at or near the bifurcation. Thus, a priority is maintaining an open airway, preventing aspiration. Other nursing diagnoses are then addressed. 22. The nurse is developing a meal plan that would provide the maximum possible amount of iron for a child with anemia. Which dinner menu would be best? A) Fish sticks, french fries, banana, cookies, milk B) Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk C) Chicken nuggets, macaroni, peas, cantaloupe, milk D) Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, apple slices, milk B: Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk. Iron rich foods include red meat, fish, egg yolks, green leafy vegetables, legumes, whole grains, and dried fruits such as raisins. This dinner is the best choice: It is high in iron and is appropriate for a toddler. 23. The nurse admitting a 5 month-old who vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours should observe for signs of which overall imbalance? A) Metabolic acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Some increase in the serum hemoglobin D) A little decrease in the serum potassium B: Metabolic alkalosis. Vomiting causes loss of acid from the stomach. Prolonged vomiting can result in excess loss of acid and lead to metabolic alkalosis. Findings include irritability, increased activity, hyperactive reflexes, muscle twitching and elevated pulse. Options C and D are correct answers but not the best answers since they are too general. 24. A two year-old child is brought to the provider's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for two days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which statement? A) Place the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours B) Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids C) Give bananas, apples, rice and toast as tolerated D) Place NPO for 24 hours, then rehydrate with milk and water B: Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Current recommendations for mild to moderate diarrhea are to maintain a normal diet with fluids to rehydrate. 25. The nurse is teaching parents about the appropriate diet for a 4 month-old infant with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration. In addition to oral rehydration fluids, the diet should include A) formula or breast milk B) broth and tea C) rice cereal and apple juice D) gelatin and ginger ale A: formula or breast milk. The usual diet for a young infant should be followed. 26. A child is injured on the school playground and appears to have a fractured leg. The first action the school nurse should take is A) call for emergency transport to the hospital B) immobilize the limb and joints above and below the injury 10 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL D) Tomatoes B: Watermelon. Watermelon is high in potassium and will replace potassium lost by the diuretic. The other foods are not high in potassium. 34. While teaching the family of a child who will take phenytoin (Dilantin) regularly for seizure control, it is most important for the nurse to teach them about which of the following actions? A) Maintain good oral hygiene and dental care B) Omit medication if the child is seizure free C) Administer acetaminophen to promote sleep D) Serve a diet that is high in iron A: Maintain good oral hygiene and dental care. Swollen and tender gums occur often with use of phenytoin. Good oral hygiene and regular visits to the dentist should be emphasized. 35. The nurse is offering safety instructions to a parent with a four month-old infant and a four year-old child. Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of appropriate precautions to take with the children? 11 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A) "I strap the infant car seat on the front seat to face backwards." B) "I place my infant in the middle of the living room floor on a blanket to play with my four year-old while I make supper in the kitchen." C) "My sleeping baby lies so cute in the crib with the little buttocks stuck up in the air while the four year-old naps on the sofa." D) "I have the four year-old hold and help feed the four month-old a bottle in the kitchen while I make supper." D: The infant seat is to be placed on the rear seat. Small children and infants are not to be left unsupervised. 36. The nurse admits a 7 year-old to the emergency room after a leg injury. The x-rays show a femur fracture near the epiphysis. The parents ask what will be the outcome of this injury. The appropriate response by the nurse should be which of these statements? A) "The injury is expected to heal quickly because of thin periosteum." B) "In some instances the result is a retarded bone growth." C) "Bone growth is stimulated in the affected leg." D) "This type of injury shows more rapid union than that of younger children." B: "In some instances the result is a retarded bone growth.". An epiphyseal (growth) plate fracture in a 7 year-old often results in retarded bone growth. The leg often will be different in length than the uninjured leg. 37. The parents of a 4 year-old hospitalized child tell the nurse, “We are leaving now and will be back at 6 PM.” A few hours later the child asks the nurse when the parents will come again. What is the best response by the nurse? A) "They will be back right after supper." B) "In about 2 hours, you will see them." C) "After you play awhile, they will be here." D) "When the clock hands are on 6 and 12." A: "They will be back right after supper." Time is not completely understood by a 4 year-old. Preschoolers interpret time with their own frame of reference. Thus, it is best to explain time in relationship to a known, common event. 38. The nurse is giving instructions to the parents of a child with cystic fibrosis. The nurse would emphasize that pancreatic enzymes should be taken A) once each day B) 3 times daily after meals C) with each meal or snack D) each time carbohydrates are eaten C: Pancreatic enzymes should be taken with each meal and every snack to allow for digestion of all foods that are eaten. 39. A nurse is providing a parenting class to individuals living in a community of older homes. In discussing formula preparation, which of the following is most important to prevent lead poisoning? A) Use ready-to-feed commercial infant formula B) Boil the tap water for 10 minutes prior to preparing the formula C) Let tap water run for 2 minutes before adding to concentrate D) Buy bottled water labeled "lead free" to mix the formula C: Let tap water run for 2 minutes before adding to concentrate. Use of lead-contaminated water to prepare formula is a major source of poisoning in infants. Drinking water may be contaminated by lead from old lead pipes or lead solder used in sealing water pipes. Letting tap water run for several minutes will diminish the lead contamination. 40. Which of the following manifestations observed by the school nurse confirms the presence of pediculosis capitis in students? A) Scratching the head more than usual B) Flakes evident on a student's shoulders C) Oval pattern occipital hair loss D) Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair D: Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair. Diagnosis of pediculosis capitis is made by observation of the white eggs (nits) firmly 12 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL attached to the hair shafts. Treatment can include application of a medicated shampoo with lindane for children over 2 years of age, and meticulous combing and removal of all nits. 41. When interviewing the parents of a child with asthma, it is most important to assess the child's environment for what factor? A) Household pets B) New furniture C) Lead based paint D) Plants such as cactus A: Household pets. Animal dander is a very common allergen affecting persons with asthma. Other triggers may include pollens, carpeting and household dust. 42. The mother of a 2 month-old baby calls the nurse 2 days after the first DTaP, IPV, Hepatitis B and HIB immunizations. She reports that the baby feels very warm, cries inconsolably for as long as 3 hours, and has had several shaking spells. In addition to referring her to the emergency room, the nurse should document the reaction on the baby's record and expect which immunization to be most associated with the findings the infant is displaying? 15 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL 49. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care? A) hourly urine output B) white blood count C) blood glucose every 4 hours D) temperature every 2 hours A: hourly urine output. Clients who have had an episode of decreased glomerular perfusion are at risk for pre-renal failure. This is caused by any abnormal decline in kidney perfusion that reduces glomerular perfusion. Pre-renal failure occurs when the effective arterial blood volume falls. Examples of this phenomena include a drop in circulating blood volume as in a cardiac arrest state or in low cardiac perfusion states such as congestive heart failure associated with a cardiomyopathy. Close observation of hourly urinary output is necessary for early detection of this condition. 50. A client is admitted to the rehabilitation unit following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) and mild dysphagia. The most appropriate intervention for this client is to A) position client in upright position while eating B) place client on a clear liquid diet C) tilt head back to facilitate swallowing reflex D) offer finger foods such as crackers or pretzels A: position client in upright position while eating. An upright position facilitates proper chewing and swallowing. 51. A 72 year-old client with osteomyelitis requires a 6 week course of intravenous antibiotics. In planning for home care, what is the most important action by the nurse? A) Investigating the client's insurance coverage for home IV antibiotic therapy B) Determining if there are adequate hand washing facilities in the home C) Assessing the client's ability to participate in self care and/or the reliability of a caregiver D) Selecting the appropriate venous access device C: Assessing the client''s ability to participate in self care and/or the reliability of a caregiver. The cognitive ability of the client as well as the availability and reliability of a caregiver must be assessed to determine if home care is a feasible option. 52. A nurse administers the influenza vaccine to a client in a clinic. Within 15 minutes after the immunization was given, the client complains of itchy and watery eyes, increased anxiety, and difficulty breathing. The nurse expects that the first action in the sequence of care for this client will be to A) Maintain the airway B) Administer epinephrine 1:1000 as ordered C) Monitor for hypotension with shock D) Administer diphenhydramine as ordered B: Administer epinephrine 1:1000 as ordered. All the answers are correct given the circumstances, but the priority is to administer the epinephrine, then maintain the airway. In the early stages of anaphylaxis, when the patient has not lost consciousness and is normotensive, administering the epinephrine is first, and applying the oxygen, and watching for hypotension and shock, are later responses. The prevention of a severe crisis is maintained by using diphenhydramine. 53. The nurse instructs the client taking dexamethasone (Decadron) to take it with food or milk. The physiological basis for this instruction is that the medication A) retards pepsin production B) stimulates hydrochloric acid production C) slows stomach emptying time D) decreases production of hydrochloric acid B: stimulates hydrochloric acid production. Decadron increases the production of hydrochloric acid, which may cause gastrointestinal ulcers. 16 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL 54. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what? A) Dystonia B) Akathisia C) Brady dyskinesia D) Tardive dyskinesia D: Tardive dyskinesia. Signs of tardive dyskinesia include smacking lips, grinding of teeth and "fly catching" tongue movements. These findings are often described as Parkinsonian. 55. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose? A) Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity B) Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision C) Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression D) Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema 17 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression. Rash and blood dyscrasias are side effects of anti-psychotic drugs. A history of severe depression is a contraindication to the use of neuroleptics. 56. The nurse is reinforcing teaching to a 24 year-old woman receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) for a Herpes Simplex Virus type 2 infection. Which of these instructions should the nurse give the client? A) Complete the entire course of the medication for an effective cure B) Begin treatment with acyclovir at the onset of symptoms of recurrence C) Stop treatment if she thinks she may be pregnant to prevent birth defects D) Continue to take prophylactic doses for at least 5 years after the diagnosis B: Begin treatment with acyclovir at the onset of symptoms of recurrence. When the client is aware of early symptoms, such as pain, itching or tingling, treatment is very effective. Medications for herpes simplex do not cure the disease; they simply decrease the level of symptoms. 57. A 14 month-old child ingested half a bottle of aspirin tablets. Which of the following would the nurse expect to see in the child? A) Hypothermia B) Edema C) Dyspnea D) Epistaxis D: Epistaxis. A large dose of aspirin inhibits prothrombin formation and lowers platelet levels. With an overdose, clotting time is prolonged. 58. An 80 year-old client on digitalis (Lanoxin) reports nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps and halo vision. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse analyze first? A) Potassium levels B) Blood pH C) Magnesium levels D) Blood urea nitrogen A: Potassium levels. The most common cause of digitalis toxicity is a low potassium level. Clients must be taught that it is important to have adequate potassium intake especially if taking diuretics that enhance the loss of potassium while they are taking digitalis. 59. A 42 year-old male client refuses to take propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) as prescribed. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain his noncompliance? A) "I have problems with diarrhea." B) "I have difficulty falling asleep." C) "I have diminished sexual function." D) "I often feel jittery." C: "I have diminished sexual function." Inderal, a beta-blocking agent used in hypertension, prohibits the release of epinephrine into the cells; this may result in hypotension which results in decreased libido and impotence. 60. The nurse caring for a 9 year-old child with a fractured femur is told that a medication error occurred. The child received twice the ordered dose of morphine an hour ago. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority at this time? A) Risk for fluid volume deficit related to morphine overdose B) Decreased gastrointestinal mobility related to mucosal irritation C) Ineffective breathing patterns related to central nervous system depression D) Altered nutrition related to inability to control nausea and vomiting C: Ineffective breathing patterns related to central nervous system depression. Respiratory depression is a life-threatening risk in this overdose. 61. Lactulose (Chronulac) has been prescribed for a client with advanced liver disease. Which of the following assessments would the nurse use to evaluate the effectiveness of this treatment? 20 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL B) Provide the client with frequent opportunities to interact with other clients C) Assist the client to analyze the meaning of the withdrawn behavior D) Discuss with the client the focus that other clients have similar problems A: Offer the client frequent opportunities to interact with 1 person. The withdrawn client is uncomfortable in social interaction. The nurse-client relationship is a corrective relationship in which the client learns both tolerance and skills for relationships. 69. An important goal in the development of a therapeutic inpatient milieu is to A) provide a businesslike atmosphere where clients can work on individual goals B) provide a group forum in which clients decide on unit rules, regulations, and policies C) provide a testing ground for new patterns of behavior while the client takes responsibility for his or her own actions D) discourage expressions of anger because they can be disruptive to other clients C: provide a testing ground for new patterns of behavior while the client takes responsibility for his or her own actions. A therapeutic milieu is purposeful and planned to provide safety and a testing ground for new patterns of behavior. 21 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL 70. A client with paranoid delusions stares at the nurse over a period of several days. The client suddenly walks up to the nurse and shouts "You think you’re so perfect and pure and good." An appropriate response for the nurse is A) "Is that why you’ve been staring at me?" B) "You seem to be in a really bad mood." C) "Perfect? I don’t quite understand." D) "You seem angry right now." D: "You seem angry right now.". The nurse recognizes the underlying emotion with a matter of fact attitude, but avoids telling the clients how they feel. 71. A client who is a former actress enters the day room wearing a sheer nightgown, high heels, numerous bracelets, bright red lipstick and heavily rouged cheeks. Which nursing action is the best in response to the client’s attire? A) Gently remind her that she is no longer on stage B) Directly assist client to her room for appropriate apparel C) Quietly point out to her the dress of other clients on the unit D) Tactfully explain appropriate clothing for the hospital B: Directly assist client to her room for appropriate apparel. It assists the client to maintain self-esteem while modifying behavior. 72. When teaching suicide prevention to the parents of a 15 year-old who recently attempted suicide, the nurse describes the following behavioral cue as indicating a need for intervention. A) Angry outbursts at significant others B) Fear of being left alone C) Giving away valued personal items D) Experiencing the loss of a boyfriend C: Giving away valued personal items. Eighty percent of all potential suicide victims give some type of indication that self- destructiveness should be addressed. These clues might lead one to suspect that a client is having suicidal thoughts or is developing a plan. 73. Which statement made by a client indicates to the nurse that the client may have a thought disorder? A) "I’m so angry about this. Wait until my partner hears about this." B) "I’m a little confused. What time is it?" C) "I can't find my 'mesmer' shoes. Have you seen them?" D) "I’m fine. It's my daughter who has the problem." C: "I can''t find my ''mesmer'' shoes. Have you seen them?". A neologism is a new word self invented by a person and not readily understood by another. Using neologisms is often associated with a thought disorder. 74. In a psychiatric setting, the nurse limits touch or contact used with clients to handshaking because A) some clients misconstrue hugs as an invitation to sexual advances B) handshaking keeps the gesture on a professional level C) refusal to touch a client denotes lack of concern D) inappropriate touch often results in charges of assault and battery A: some clients misconstrue hugs as an invitation to sexual advances. Touch denotes positive feelings for another person. The client may interpret hugging and holding hands as sexual advances. 75. A client with anorexia is hospitalized on a medical unit due to electrolyte imbalance and cardiac dysrhythmias. Additional assessment findings that the nurse would expect to observe are A) brittle hair, lanugo, amenorrhea B) diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, dental erosion C) hyperthermia, tachycardia, increased metabolic rate D) excessive anxiety about symptoms 22 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A: brittle hair, lanugo, amenorrhea. Physical findings associated with anorexia also include reduced metabolic rate and lower vital signs. 76. Which intervention best demonstrates the nurse's sensitivity to a 16 year-old’s appropriate need for autonomy? A) Alertness for feelings regarding body image B) Allows young siblings to visit C) Provides opportunity to discuss concerns without presence of parents D) Explores his feelings of resentment to identify causes C: Provides opportunity to discuss concerns without presence of parents. This intervention provides the teen with the opportunity to have control and encourages decision making. 77. The nurse's primary intervention for a client who is experiencing a panic attack is to A) develop a trusting relationship B) assist the client to describe his experience in detail 25 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL D: Abdominal mass and weakness. Clinical manifestations of neuroblastoma include an irregular abdominal mass that crosses the midline, weakness, pallor, anorexia, weight loss and irritability. 85. The nurse is preparing the teaching plan for a group of parents about risks to toddlers and is including the proper communication in the event of accidental poisoning. The nurse should tell the parents to first state what substance was ingested and then what information should be the priority for the parents to communicate? A) The parents' name and telephone number B) The currency of the immunization and allergy history of the child C) The estimated time of the accidental poisoning and a confirmation that the parents will bring the containers of the ingested substance D) The affected child's age and weight D: The affected child''s age and weight. All of the above information is important. However, after the substance is identified the age and weight are the priorities. This gives the appropriate health care providers an opportunity to calculate the needed dosage for an antidote while the child is being transported to the emergency department. After this information, the time of the 86. The nurse has admitted a 4 year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would the nurse suspect is relevant to this disease? A) Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago. B) Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month. C) Both ears were infected at 3 months of age. D) Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection. B: Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.. Evidence supports a strong relationship between infection with Group A streptococci and subsequent rheumatic fever (usually within 2 to 6 weeks). Therefore, the history of playmates recovering from strep throat would indicate that the child most likely also had strep throat. Sometimes such an infection has no clinical symptoms. 87. The nurse provides discharge teaching to the parents of a 15 month-old child with Kawasaki disease. The child has received immunoglobulin therapy. Which instruction would be appropriate? A) High doses of aspirin will be continued for some time B) Complete recovery is expected within several days C) Active range of motion exercises should be done frequently D) The measles, mumps and rubella vaccine should be delayed D: The measles, mumps and rubella vaccine should be delayed. Discharge instructions for a child with Kawasaki disease should include the information that immunoglobulin therapy may interfere with the body''s ability to form appropriate amounts of antibodies. Therefore, live immunizations should be delayed. 88. A 10 year-old client is recovering from a splenectomy following a traumatic injury. The clients laboratory results show a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL and a hematocrit of 28 percent. The best approach for the nurse to use is to A) limit milk and milk products B) encourage bed activities and games C) plan nursing care around lengthy rest periods D) promote a diet rich in iron C: plan nursing care around lengthy rest periods. The initial priority for this client is rest due to the inability of red blood cells to carry oxygen. 89. The nurse is planning care for a 14 year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive priority in the plan? A) Antibiotic therapy for 10 days B) Teach client isometric exercises for legs C) Assess movement and sensation of extremities D) Assist to stand up at bedside within the first 24 hours 26 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL C: Assess movement and sensation of extremities. Following corrective surgery for scoliosis, neurological status requires special attention and assessment, especially that of the extremities. 90. The nurse is teaching parents about accidental poisoning in children. Which point should be emphasized? A) Call the Poison Control Center once the situation is identified B) Empty the child's mouth in any case of possible poisoning C) Keep the child as quiet as possible if a toxic substance was inhaled D) Do not induce vomiting if the poison is a hydrocarbon B: Empty the child''s mouth in any case of possible poisoning. Emptying the mouth of poison prevents further ingestion and should be done first to limit damage from the substance. Note that all of the actions are correct, but option B is the priority. 91. The nurse is assessing an 8 month-old infant with a malfunctioning ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which one of the following manifestations would the infant be most likely to exhibit? A) Lethargy 27 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL B) Irritability C) Negative Moro D) Depressed fontanel B: Irritability. Signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) in infants include bulging fontanel, instability, high-pitched cry, and cries when held. Vital sign changes include pulse that is variable, e.g., rapid, slow and bounding, or feeble. Respirations are more often slow, deep, and irregular. 92. The nurse is caring for a 4 year-old two hours after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments must be reported immediately? A) Vomiting of dark emesis B) Complaints of throat pain C) Apical heart rate of 110 D) Increased restlessness D: Increased restlessness. Restlessness and increased respiratory and heart rates are often early signs of hemorrhage. 93. The nurse is caring for a client with sickle cell disease who is scheduled to receive a unit of packed red blood cells. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse when administering the infusion? A) Storing the packed red cells in the medicine refrigerator while starting IV B) Slow the rate of infusion if the client develops fever or chills C) Limit the infusion time of each of the unit to a maximum of 4 hours D) Assess vital signs every 15 minutes throughout the entire infusion C: Limit the infusion time of each of the unit to a maximum of 4 hours. Infuse the specified amount of blood within 4 hours. If the infusion will exceed this time, the blood should be divided into appropriately sized quantities. 94. The nurse is caring for a 17 month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which of the following lab reports should the nurse review first? A) Prothrombin Time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) B) Red blood cell and white blood cell counts C) Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine clearance D) Liver enzymes (AST and ALT) D: Liver enzymes (AST and ALT). Because acetaminophen is toxic to the liver and causes hepatic cellular necrosis, liver enzymes are released into the blood stream and serum levels of those enzymes rise. Other lab values are reviewed as well. 95. A nurse admits a premature infant who has respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). In planning care, nursing actions are based on the fact that the most likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to A) stabilize thermoregulation B) maintain alveolar surface tension C) begin normal pulmonary blood flow D) regulate intracardiac pressure B: maintain alveolar surface tension. RDS is primarily a disease related to a developmental delay in lung maturation. Although many factors may lead to the development of the problem, the central factor is the lack of a normally functioning surfactant system in the alveolar sac from immaturity in lung development since the infant is premature. 96. The nurse is planning care for a 3 month-old infant immediately postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus. The nurse needs to A) assess for abdominal distention B) maintain infant in an upright position C) begin formula feedings when infant is alert D) pump the shunt to assess for proper function A: assess for abdominal distention. The child is observed for abdominal distention because cerebrospinal fluid may cause peritonitis or a postoperative ileus as a complication of distal catheter placement. 30 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A) orientation to time, place and person B) pulse oximetry C) circulation to casted extremity D) blood pressure B: pulse oximetry. Restlessness, confusion, irritability and disorientation may be the first signs of fat embolism syndrome followed by a very high temperature. The nurse needs to confirm hypoxia first. 104. The nurse is assessing a client with a Stage 2 skin ulcer. Which of the following treatments is most effective to promote healing? A) Covering the wound with a dry dressing B) Using hydrogen peroxide soak C) Leaving the area open to dry D) Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing D: Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing. While the previously accepted treatment was a transparent cover, evidence now indicates that the foam (DuoDerm) dressings work best. 31 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL 105. A client is recovering from a thyroidectomy. While monitoring the client's initial post-operative condition, which of the following should the nurse report immediately? A) Tetany and paresthesia B) Mild stridor and hoarseness C) Irritability and insomnia D) Headache and nausea A: Tetany and paresthesia. Because the parathyroid gland may be damaged in this surgery, secondary hypocalcemia may occur. Findings of hypoparathyroidism include tetany, paresthesia, muscle cramps and seizures. 106. A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of the following data from the client’s history indicate a potential hazard for this test? A) Reflex incontinence B) Allergy to shellfish C) Claustrophobia D) Hypertension B: Allergy to shellfish. It is important to know if the client has an allergy to iodine or shellfish. If the client does, they may have an allergic reaction to the IVP contrast dye injected during the procedure. 107. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client? A) The statement of client rights and the client self determination act B) Orders written by the provider C) A notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner D) The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department C: A notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner. This document specifies the client''s wishes. 108. A client diagnosed with hepatitis C discusses his health history with the admitting nurse. The nurse should recognize which statement by the client as the most important? A) I got back from Central America a few weeks ago. B) I had the best raw oysters last week. C) I have many different sex partners. D) I had a blood transfusion 15 years ago. D: I had a blood transfusion 15 years ago.. The client who was transfused prior to blood screening for hepatitis C may show findings many years later. Options B and C are associated with risk of hepatitis B. 109. Which of these children at the site of a disaster at a child day care center would the triage nurse put in the "treat last" category? A) An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes B) A toddler with severe deep abrasions over 98% of the body C) A preschooler with a lower leg fracture on one side and an upper leg fracture on the other D) A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms B: A toddler with severe deep abrasions over 98% of the body. This child has the least chance of survival. Severe deep abrasions should be thought of as second and third degree burns. The child has great risk of both shock and infection combined. 110. A client has returned to the unit following a renal biopsy. Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate? A) Ambulate the client 4 hours after procedure B) Maintain client on NPO status for 24 hours C) Monitor vital signs 32 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL D) Change dressing every 8 hours C: Monitor vital signs. The potential complication of this procedure is internal hemorrhage. Monitoring vital signs is critical to detect early indications of bleeding. 111. The nurse is providing instructions for a client with asthma. Which of the following should the client monitor on a daily basis? A) Respiratory rate B) Peak air flow volumes C) Pulse oximetry D) Skin color B: Peak air flow volumes. The peak airflow volume decreases about 24 hours before clinical manifestations of exacerbation of asthma. 112. A client with a documented pulmonary embolism has the following arterial blood gases: PO2 - 70 mm hg, PCO2 - 32 mm hg, pH - 7.45, SaO2 - 87%, HCO3 - 22. Based on these data, what is the first nursing action? 35 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL C) Make all necessary accommodations for disabled individuals D) Consider both mental and physical disabilities B: Provide reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals. The law is designed to permit persons with disabilities access to job opportunities. Employers must evaluate an applicant’s ability to perform the job and not discriminate on the basis of a disability. Employers also must make "reasonable accommodations." 120. Upon completing the admission documents, the nurse learns that the 87 year-old client does not have an advance directive. What action should the nurse take? A) Record the information on the chart B) Give information about advance directives C) Assume that this client wishes a full code D) Refer this issue to the unit secretary B: Give information about advance directives. For each admission, nurses should request a copy of the current advance directive. If there is none, the nurse must offer information about what an advance directive implies. It is then the client’s choice to sign it. In option 1 just recording the information is not sufficient. In option 3 the nurse should not assume that the client has been informed of choices for emergency care. In option 4 this represents an inappropriate delegation approach. 121. A client with a diagnosis of Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has died. Which type of precautions is appropriate to use when performing postmortem care? A) Airborne precautions B) Droplet precautions C) Contact precautions D) Compromised host precautions C: Contact precautions. The resistant bacteria remain alive for up to 3 days after the client dies. Therefore, contact precautions must still be implemented. The body should also be labeled as MRSA-contaminated so that the funeral home staff can protect themselves as well. Gown and gloves are required. 122. An 8 year-old client is admitted to the hospital for surgery. The child’s parent reports the allergies listed below. Which of these allergies should all health care personnel be aware of? A) Shellfish B) Molds C) Balloons D) Perfumed soap C: Balloons. Allergy to balloons indicates a latex allergy. All personnel in contact with the child will need to be aware of this condition and use non-latex gloves. 123. A nurse is stuck in the hand by an exposed used hypodermic needle. What immediate action should the nurse take? A) Look up the policy on needle sticks B) Contact employee health services C) Immediately wash the hands with vigor D) Notify the supervisor and risk management C: Immediately wash the hands with vigor. The immediate action of vigorously washing will help remove possible contamination. Then the sequence would be options D, A, B. 124. The nurse is having difficulty reading the health care provider's written order that was left just before the shift change. What action should be taken? A) Leave the order for the oncoming staff to follow-up on B) Contact the charge nurse for an interpretation C) Ask the pharmacy for assistance in the interpretation 36 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL D) Call the provider for clarification D: Call the provider for clarification. Relying on anyone else''s interpretation is very risky. When in doubt, check it out with the person who wrote the difficult-to-read order. Order entry systems help to minimize this problem. 125. When admitting a client to an acute care facility, an identification bracelet is sent up with the admission form. In the event these do not match, the nurse’s best action is to A) change whichever item is incorrect to the correct information B) use the bracelet and admission form until a replacement is supplied C) notify the admissions office and wait to apply the bracelet D) make a corrected identification bracelet for the client C: notify the admissions office and wait to apply the bracelet. The Admissions Office has the responsibility to verify the client’s identity and keep all the records in the system consistent. Making the changes puts the client at risk for misidentification. Using an incorrect identification bracelet is unsafe. 37 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL 126. The nurse is planning discharge for a 90 year-old client with musculo-skeletal weakness. Which intervention should be included in the plan that would be most effective for the prevention of falls? A) Place nightlights in the bedroom B) Wear eyeglasses at all times C) Install grab bars in the bathroom D) Teach muscle strengthening exercises A: Place nightlights in the bedroom. Because more falls occur in the bedroom than any other location, begin there. However, work in partnership with the client and family so they are willing to move furniture, lamp cords, and storage areas, add lighting, remove throw rugs, and eliminate other environmental hazards. 127. An 8 year-old child is hospitalized during the edema phase of minimal change nephrotic syndrome. The nurse is assisting in choosing the lunch menu. Which menu is the best choice? A) Bologna sandwich, pudding, milk B) Frankfurter, baked potato, milk C) Chicken strips, corn on the cob, milk D) Grilled cheese sandwich, apple, milk C: Chicken strips, corn on the cob, milk. This menu is lowest in sodium. Ideally, low fat milk would be available. 128. The nurse is teaching a client with non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus about the prescribed diet. The nurse should teach the client to A) maintain previous calorie intake B) keep a candy bar available at all times C) reduce carbohydrates intake to 25% of total calories D) keep a regular schedule of meals and snacks D: keep a regular schedule of meals and snacks. Currently, calorie-controlled diets with strict meal plans are rarely suggested for clients who have diabetes. Try to incorporate schedule or food changes into clients'' existing dietary patterns. Help clients learn to read labels and identify specific canned foods, frozen entrees, or other foods which are acceptable and those which should be avoided. 129. A depressed client in an assisted living facility tells the nurse that "life isn't worth living anymore." What is the best response to this statement? A) "Come on, it is not that bad." B) "Have you thought about hurting yourself?" C) "Did you tell that to your family?" D) "Think of the many positive things in life." B: "Have you thought about hurting yourself?". It is appropriate and necessary to determine if someone who has voiced thoughts about death is considering a suicidal act. This response is most therapeutic in the circumstances. Options A and D deny the validity of the client’s statement, and the purpose of option C is unclear and it lacks client focus. 130. The nurse is observing a client with an obsessive-compulsive disorder in an inpatient setting. Which behavior is consistent with this diagnosis? A) Repeatedly checking that the door is locked B) Verbalized suspicions about thefts C) Preference for consistent caregivers D) Repetitive, involuntary movements A: Repeatedly checking that the door is locked. Behaviors that are repeated are symptomatic of obsessive-compulsive disorders. These behaviors, performed to reduced feelings of anxiety, often interfere with normal function and employment. 131. A female client is admitted for a breast biopsy. She says, tearfully to the nurse, "If this turns out to be cancer and I have to have my breast removed, my partner will never come near me." The nurse's best response would be which of these statements? 40 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A) Why don’t we now have the client turn back to the left side. B) That was done correctly. Did you have any problems with the insertion? C) Let’s check to see if the suppository is in far enough. D) Did you feel any stool in the intestinal tract? B: That was done correctly. Did you have any problems with the insertion?. Left side-lying position is the optimal position for the client receiving rectal medications. Due to the position of the descending colon, left side-lying allows the medication to be inserted and move along the natural curve of the intestine and facilitates retention of the medication. After a short time it will not hurt the client to turn in any manner. The suppository should be somewhat melted after 10 to 15 minutes. The other responses are incorrect since no data are in the stem to support such comments. 138. As the nurse observes the student nurse during the administration of a narcotic analgesic IM injection, the nurse notes that the student begins to give the medication without first aspirating. What should the nurse do? A) Ask the student: "What did you forget to do?” B) Stop. Tell me why aspiration is needed. C) Loudly state: “You forgot to aspirate.” 41 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL D) Walk up and whisper in the student’s ear “Stop. Aspirate. Then inject.” D: Walk up and whisper in the student’s ear “Stop. Aspirate. Then inject.”. This action is a direct threat to the client if the medication enters into the blood stream instead of the muscle. The purpose of aspiration with IM injections is to prevent the injection of the drug directly into the blood stream. Option 4 protects the client and is the most professional. 139. An adult client is found to be unresponsive on morning rounds. After checking for responsiveness and calling for help, the next action that should be taken by the nurse is to: A) check the carotid pulse B) deliver 5 abdominal thrusts C) give 2 rescue breaths D) ensure an open airway D: ensure an open airway. According to the ABCs of CPR the first step in rescuing an unresponsive victim after checking responsiveness and calling for help is to open the victims airway. The airway must be opened appropriately before the need for rescue breaths can be determined. The pulse is assessed, after breathing is evaluated. The need for abdominal thrusts is determined by inability to achieve chest rise when ventilation is attempted. 140. A practical nurse (PN) is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse? A) Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment B) Moist sterile nonadherent dressing C) Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive D) Sterile occlusive pressure dressing B: Moist sterile nonadherent dressing. Before surgical closure, the sac is prevented from drying by the application of a sterile, moist, nonadherent dressing over the defect. Dressings are changed frequently to keep them moist. 141. A parent brings her 3 month-old into the clinic, reporting that the child seems to be spitting up all the time and has a lot of gas. The nurse expects to find which of the following on the initial history and physical assessment? A) increased temperature and lethargy B) restlessness and increased mucus production C) increased sleeping and listlessness D) diarrhea and poor skin turgor B: restlessness and increased mucus production. This infant could be experiencing gastroesophageal reflux, or could be allergic to the formula. Restlessness, irritability and increased mucus production can develop if an allergy is present. Soy based formula is often recommended. 142. The nurse manager hears a provider loudly criticize one of the staff nurses within the hearing range of others. The nurse manager's next action should be to A) Walk up to the provider and quietly state: "Stop this unacceptable behavior." B) Allow the staff nurse to handle this situation without interference C) Notify the of the other administrative persons of a breech of professional conduct D) Request an immediate private meeting with the provider and staff nurse D: Request an immediate private meeting with the provider and staff nurse. Assertive communication respects the needs of all parties to express themselves, but not at the expense of others. The nurse manager needs first to protect clients and other staff from this display and come to the assistance of the nurse employee. 143. The charge nurse is planning assignments on a medical unit. The client with should be assigned to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). A) d ifficulty swallowing after a mild stroke B) an order of enemas until clear prior to colonoscopy 42 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL C) an order for a post-op abdominal dressing change D) transfer orders to a long term facility B: an order of enemas until clear prior to colonoscopy. The UAP can be assigned routine tasks which have predictable outcomes. 144. The nurse manager has been using a block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will A) Improve the quality of care B) Decrease staff turnover C) Minimize the amount of overtime payouts D) Improve team morale D: Improve team morale. Nurses are more satisfied when opportunities exist for autonomy and control. The nurse manager becomes the facilitator of scheduling rather than the decision-maker of the schedule when self-scheduling exists. 145. A client is admitted to a voluntary hospital mental health unit due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for 2 days and now states “I demand to be released now!” The appropriate from the nurse is 45 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL Management of Care 1. The nurse receives a report on an older adult client with middle stage dementia. What information suggests the nurse should do immediate follow up rather than delegate care to the nursing assistant? The client A) has had a change in respiratory rate by an increase of 2 breaths B) has had a change in heart rate by an increase of 10 beats C) was minimally responsive to voice and touch D) has had a blood pressure change by a drop in 8 mmHg systolic C: was minimally responsive to voice and touch. A change in level of consciousness indicates delirium related to acute illness. This would require the assessment of a nurse. The other changes could occur within the range of normal fluctuations. 2. A client tells the nurse, "I have something very important to tell you if you promise not to tell." The best response by the nurse is A) "I must document and report any information." B) "I can’t make such a promise." C) "That depends on what you tell me." D) "I must report everything to the treatment team." B: "I can’t make such a promise." Secrets are inappropriate in therapeutic relationships and are counter productive to the therapeutic efforts of the interdisciplinary team. Secrets may be related to risk for harm to self or others. The nurse honors and helps clients to understand rights, limitations, and boundaries regarding confidentiality. 3. The nurse is caring for a 69 year-old client with a diagnosis of hyperglycemia. Which tasks could the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A) Test blood sugar every 2 hours by Accu-Check B) Review with family and client signs of hyperglycemia C) Monitor for mental status changes D) Check skin condition of lower extremities A: Test blood sugar every 2 hours by Accu-Check. The UAP can do standard, unchanging procedures. 4. A nurse from the maternity unit is floated to the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to assign to this nurse? A client with A) a Dopamine drip IV with vital signs monitored every 5 minutes B) a myocardial infarction that is free from pain and dysrhythmias C) a tracheotomy of 24 hours in some respiratory distress D) a pacemaker inserted this morning with intermittent capture B: A myocardial infarction that is free from pain and dysrhythmias. This client is the most stable with minimal risk of complications or instability. The nurse can utilize basic nursing skills to care for this client. 5. Which task could be safely delegated by the nurse to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A) Be with a client who self-administers insulin 46 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL B) Cleanse and dress a small decubitus ulcer C) Monitor a client's response to passive range of motion exercises D) Apply and care for a client's rectal pouch D: Apply and care for a client''s rectal pouch. The RN may delegate the application and care of rectal pouches to a UAP. This is an uncomplicated, routine task. 6. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a sudden increase in temperature to 101 degrees Fahrenheit for a post surgical client. The nurse checks on the client’s condition and observes a cup of steaming coffee at the bedside. What instructions are appropriate to give to the UAP? 47 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A) Encourage oral fluids to prevent dehydration B) Recheck temperature 15 minutes after removing hot liquids from the bedside C) Ask the client to drink only cold water and juices D) Chart this temperature elevation on the flow sheet B: Recheck temperature 15 minutes after removing hot liquids from the bedside. Recheck temperature to eliminate possible artificial elevation of temperature. Hot liquids, smoking, eating, chewing gum, and talking can all elevate temperature. Waiting to take the temperature for 15 minutes will help the temperature return to its normal, in order to get an accurate reading. Avoid premature assumptions about explanations for findings. The other options are incorrect. 7. A client has a nasogastric tube after colon surgery. Which one of these tasks can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A) To observe the type and amount of nasogastric tube drainage B) Monitor the client for nausea or other complications C) Irrigate the nasogastric tube with the ordered irrigant D) Perform nostril and mouth care D: Perform nostril and mouth care. Skin care around a nasogastric tube is a routine task that is appropriate for UAPs. The other tasks would be appropriate for a PN or RN to do since they are advanced skills or require evaluation. 8. A client asks the nurse to call the police and states: “I need to report that I am being abused by a nurse.” The nurse should first A) focus on reality orientation to place and person B) assist with the report of the client’s complaint to the police C) obtain more details of the client’s claim of abuse D) document the statement on the client’s chart with a report to the manager C: Obtain more details of the client’s claim of abuse. The advocacy role of the professional nurse as well as the legal duty of the reasonable prudent nurse requires the investigation of claims of abuse or violation of rights. The nurse is legally accountable for actions delegated to others. The application of the nursing process requires that the nurse gather more information, further assessment, before documentation or the reporting of the complaint. 9. When assessing a client, it is important for the nurse to be informed about cultural issues related to the client's background because A) normal patterns of behavior may be labeled as deviant, immoral, or insane B) the meaning of the client's behavior can be derived from conventional wisdom C) personal values will guide the interaction between persons from 2 cultures D) the nurse should rely on her knowledge of different developmental mental stages A: Normal patterns of behavior may be labeled as deviant, immoral, or insane. Culture is an important variable in the assessment of individuals. To work effectively with clients, the nurse must be aware of a cultural distinctive qualities. 10. The nursing student is discussing with a preceptor the delegation of tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Assigning which of these tasks to a UAP indicates the student needs further teaching about the delegation process? A) Assist a client post cerebral vascular accident to ambulate B) Feed a 2 year-old in balanced skeletal traction C) Care for a client with discharge orders D) Collect a sputum specimen for acid fast bacillus C: Care for a client with discharge orders. A registered nurse (RN) is the best person to do teaching or evaluation that is needed at time of discharge. 11. The nurse is responsible for several elderly clients, including a client on bed rest with a skin tear and hematoma from a fall 2 days ago. What is the best care assignment for this client? A) Assign an RN to provide total care of the client B) Assign a nursing assistant to help the client with self-care activities C) Delegate complete care to an unlicensed assistive personnel 50 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL C) "Assist the client to the bathroom at least twice on this shift." D) "After you assist him to the chair, let me know how he feels." A: Give clear information to the UAP about what is expected for client safety. 19. After working with a client, an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the nurse, "I have had it with that demanding client. I just can’t do anything that pleases him. I’m not going in there again." The nurse should respond by saying A) "He has a lot of problems. You need to have patience with him." B) "I will talk with him and try to figure out what to do." C) "He may be scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do." D) "Ignore him and get the rest of your work done. Someone else can take care of him for the rest of the day." C: "He may be scared and taking it out on you. Let''s talk to figure out what to do." This response explains the client''s behavior without belittling the UAP’s feelings. The UAP is encouraged to contribute to the plan of care to help solve the problem. 20. A nurse is working with one licensed practical nurse (PN), a student nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which newly admitted clients would be most appropriate to assign to the UAP? 51 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A) A 76-year-old client with severe depression B) A middle-aged client with an obsessive compulsive disorder C) An adolescent with dehydration and anorexia D) A young adult who is a heroin addict in withdrawal with hallucinations B: A middle-aged client with an obsessive compulsive disorder. The UAP can be assigned to care for a client with a chronic condition after an initial assessment by the nurse. This client has minimal risk of instability of condition. Delegation 1. Which statement by the nurse is appropriate when giving an assignment to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to help a client ambulate for the first time after a colon resection? A) "Have the client sit on the side of the bed before helping the client to walk." B) "If the client is dizzy ask the client to take some slow, deep breaths." C) "Help the client to walk in the room as often as the client wishes." D) "When you help the client to walk, ask if any pain occurs." A: This statement gives clear directions to the UAP about the task and is most closely associated with the information provided in the stem that this is the client''s first time out of bed after surgery. 2. The home care nurse has been managing a client for 6 weeks. What is the best method to determine the quality of care provided by a home health care aide assigned to assist with the care of this client? A) Ask the client and family if they are satisfied with the care given B) Determine if the home health aide's care is consistent with the plan of care C) Investigate if the home health aide is prompt and stays an appropriate length of time for care D) Check the documentation of the aide for appropriateness and comprehensiveness B: Although the nurse must complete all of the above responsibilities, evaluation of an adherence to the plan of care is the first priority. The plan of care is based on the reason for referral, provider''s orders, the initial nursing assessment, the client’s responses to the planned interventions, and the client''s and family''s feedback or inquires. The other possible answers represent aspects of accomplishing “B”. 3. Which task for a client with anemia and confusion could the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A) Assess and document skin turgor and color changes B) Test stool for occult blood and urine for glucose and report results C) Suggest foods high in iron and those easily consumed D) Report mental status changes and the degree of mental clarity B: Test stool for occult blood and urine for glucose and report results. The UAP can do standard, unchanging procedures that require no decision making. 4. The care of which of the following clients can the nurse safely delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A) A client with peripheral vascular disease and an ulceration of the lower leg. 52 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL B) A pre-operative client awaiting adrenalectomy with a history of asthma C) An elderly client with hypertension and self-reported non-compliance D) A new admission with a history of transient ischemic attacks and dizziness A: A client with peripheral vascular disease and an ulceration of the lower leg. This client is stable with no risk of instability as compared to the other clients. And this client has a chronic condition, needs supportive care. 5. A practical nurse (PN) from the pediatric unit is assigned to work in a critical care unit. Which client assignment would be appropriate? A) A client admitted with multiple trauma with a history of a newly implanted pacemaker B) A new admission with left-sided weakness from a stroke and mild confusion C) A 53 year-old client diagnosed with cardiac arrest from a suspected myocardial infarction D) A 35 year-old client in balanced traction admitted 6 days ago after a motor vehicle accident 55 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A) "I will arrange for a conference with you and the UAP within the next week" B) "I can assure you that I will look into the matter" C) "I would like for you to approach the UAP about the problem the next time it occurs" D) I will add this concern to the agenda for the next unit meeting C: Helping staff manage conflict is part of the manager''s role. It is appropriate to urge the nurse to confront the other staff member to work out problems without a manager''s intervention when possible. 14. A client has had a tracheostomy for 2 weeks after a motor vehicle accident. Which task could the RN safely delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A) Teach the client how to cough up secretions B) Changes the tracheostomy trach ties C) Monitor if client has shortness of breath D) Perform routine tracheostomy dressing care D: Unlicensed assistive personnel should be able to perform routine tracheostomy care. 15. An RN from the women’s health clinic is temporarily reassigned to a medical-surgical unit. Which of these client assignments would be most appropriate for this nurse? A) A newly diagnosed client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is learning foot care B) A client from a motor vehicle accident with an external fixation device on the leg C) A client admitted for a barium swallow after a transient ischemic attack D) A newly admitted client with a diagnosis of pancreatic cancer B: This client is the most stable, requires basic safety measures and has a predictable outcome. 16. The nurse in a same-day surgery unit assigns the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to provide a hernia patient with a lunch tray. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate? A) "Tell the family they can bring in a pizza if the patient would prefer that." B) "Make sure the patient gets at least 2 cartons of milk." C) "Stop the IV if the patient is able to eat solid food." D) "Encourage the patient to eat slowly to prevent gas." D: The professional nurse can delegate tasks with an expected outcome. The UAP is given adequate information about the task and how to promote the best outcome. 17. Which one of these tasks can be safely delegated to a practical nurse (PN)? A) Assess the function of a newly created ileostomy B) Care for a client with a recent complicated double barrel colostomy C) Provide stoma care for a client with a well functioning ostomy D) Teach ostomy care to a client and their family members C: Provide stoma care for a client with a well functioning ostomy. The care of a mature stoma and the application of an ostomy appliance may be delegated to a PN. This client has minimal risk of instability of the situation. 18. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), who usually works in pediatrics is assigned to work on a medical-surgical unit. Which one of the questions by the charge nurse would be most appropriate prior to making delegation decisions? A) "How long have you been a UAP?” B) "What type of care did you give in pediatrics?” C) "Do you have your competency checklist that we can review?” D) "How comfortable are you to care for adult clients?” C: "Do you have your competency checklist that we can review?”. The UAP must be competent to accept the delegated task. Further assessment of the qualifications of the UAP is important in order to assign the right task. 19. During the interview of a prospective employee who just completed the agency orientation, which approach would be the 56 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL best for the nurse manager to use to assess competence? A) "What degree of supervision for basic care do you think you need?" B) "Let’s review your skills check-list for type and level of skill" C) "Are you comfortable working independently?" D) "What client care tasks or assignments do you prefer?" B: The nurse needs to know that the employee has competence in certain tasks. One way to do this is to do mutual review of documented skills. 20. A charge nurse working in a long term care facility is making out assignments. Which assignment made by a registered nurse to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) requires intervention by the supervisor? A) Provide decubitus ulcer care and apply a dry dressing B) Bathe and feed a client on bed rest C) Oral suctioning of an unresponsive elderly client D) Teaching a family intermittent (bolus) feedings via G-tube before discharge 57 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL D: Teaching a family intermittent (bolus) feedings via G-tube before discharge. Initial teaching can not be delegated to a UAP or a PN and must be done by RNs. 21. Which of these clients would be most appropriate to assign to a practical nurse (PN)? A) A trauma victim with quadriplegia and a client 1 day post-op radical neck dissection B) A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus and a client with a history of AIDS admitted for pneumonia C) A client with hemiplegia is fed by a nasogastric tube and client with a left leg amputation in rehabilitation D) A client with a history of schizophrenia in alcohol withdrawal and a client with chronic renal failure C: A client with hemiplegia is fed by a nasogastric tube and client with a left leg amputation in rehabilitation This client requires supportive care and interventions within the scope of practice of a PN. This client is stable with little risk of complications or instability. 22. The nurse assigns an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to care for a client with a musculoskeletal disorder. The client ambulates with a leg splint. Which task requires supervision of the UAP? A) Report signs of redness overlying a joint B) Monitor the client's response to ambulatory activity C) Encouragement for the independence in self-care D) Assist the client to transfer from a bed to a chair B: Monitor the client''s response to ambulatory activity. Monitoring the client’s response to interventions requires assessment, a task to be performed by an RN. 23. When walking past a client’s room, the nurse hears 1 unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) talking to another UAP. Which statement requires follow-up intervention? A) "If we work together we can get all of the client care completed." B) "Since I am late for lunch, would you do this one client's glucose test?" C) "This client seems confused, we need to watch monitor closely." D) "I’ll come back and make the bed after I go to the lab." B: Only the RN and PN can delegate to UAPs. One UAP can not delegate a task to another UAP. The RN or PN is legally accountable for the nursing care. 24. A client is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion for pain control. When caring for this client, which one of these actions can the RN safely assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A) Ask the client the degree of relief and document the client’s response B) Decrease the set rate on the pump by 2 ml/minute C) Check the IV site for drainage and loose tape D) Assist the client with ambulation and a gown change with supervision D: When directing the UAP, communicate clearly and specifically what the task is and what should be reported to the nurse. Implementation of routine tasks should be delegated since they do not require independent judgment. 25. Which client data should the nurse act upon when a home health aide calls the nurse from the client's home to report these items? A) "The client has complaints of not sleeping well for the past week" B) "The family wants to discontinue the home meal service, meals on wheels" C) "The urine in the urinary catheter bag is of a deeper amber, almost brown color" D) "The partner says the client has slower days every other day" C: Home health aides need to report diverse information to nurses through phone calls and documentation. The nurse who develops the plan of care for a specific client, and supervises the aide, must identify potential danger signs which require immediate action and follow-up. The color of the urine requires follow-up evaluation. 60 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL C: A temperature of 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit or higher on 2 successive days, not counting the first 24 hours after birth, indicates a post partum infection. 6. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. On the second postoperative day, the chest tube accidentally disconnects from the drainage tube. The first action the nurse should take is A) reconnect the tube B) raise the collection chamber above the client's chest C) call the health care provider D) clamp the chest tube D: clamp the chest tube. Immediate steps should be taken to prevent air from entering the chest cavity. Lung collapse may occur if air enters the chest cavity. Clamping the tube close to the client’s chest is the first action to take, followed by health care provider notification. 7. A client is placed on sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim) for a recurrent urinary tract infection. Which of the following is appropriate reinforcement of information by the nurse? A) "Drink at least 8 glasses of water a day." B) "Be sure to take the medication with food." C) "It is safe to take with oral contraceptives." D) "Stop the medication after 5 days." A: "Drink at least 8 glasses of water a day." Bactrim is a highly insoluble drug and requires a large volume of fluid intake. It is not necessary to take it with food. Options C and D are incorrect instructions for those taking Bactrim. 8. A client calls the evening health clinic to state “I know I have a severely low sugar since the Lantus insulin was given 3 hours ago and it peaks in 2 hours.” What should be the nurse’s initial response to the client? A) What else do you know about this type of insulin? B) What are you feeling at this moment? C) Have you eaten anything today? D) Are you taking any other insulin or medication? B: What are you feeling at this moment? When a client has changed from stable to unstable, the nurse’s initial response should be to do further assessment of the client. 9. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) (hyperalimentation and lipids). What is the priority nursing action on every 8 hour shift? A) Monitor blood pressure, temperature and weight B) Change the tubing under sterile conditions C) Check urine glucose, acetone and specific gravity D) Adjust the infusion rate to provide for total volume C: Check urine glucose, acetone and specific gravity. Because of the high dextrose and protein content in parenteral nutrition, the nurse should assess the urine at least every 8 hours. 10. The nurse reviews an order to administer Rh (D) immune globulin to an Rh negative woman following the birth of an Rh positive baby. Which assessment is a priority before the nurse gives the injection? A) Newborn's blood type B) Coombs' test results C) Previous RhoGAM history D) Gravida and parity B: Coombs'' test results. Rh (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is given only if antibody formation has not occurred. A negative Coombs'' test confirms this. 11. A client has been on antibiotics for 72 hours for cystitis. Which report from the client requires priority attention by the 61 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL nurse? A) foul smelling urine B) burning on urination C) elevated temperature D) nausea and anorexia C: elevated temperature. Elevated temperature after 72 hours on an antibiotic indicates the antibiotic has not been effective in eradicating the offending organism. The provider should be informed immediately so that an appropriate medication can be prescribed, and complications such as pyelonephritis are prevented. Options A and B are expected with cystitis. Option D may be related to the antibiotics as a side effect and should also be reported to the provider. 12. The nurse is caring for a school-aged child with a diagnosis of secondary hyperparathyroidism following treatment for chronic renal disease. Which of the following lab data should receive priority attention? A) Calcium and phosphorus levels B) Blood sugar C) Urine specific gravity 62 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL D) Blood urea nitrogen A: Calcium and phosphorus levels. Calcium and phosphorous levels will be elevated until the client is stabilized. 13. When caring for a client with urinary incontinence, which content should be reinforced by the nurse? A) hold the urine to increase bladder capacity B) avoid eating foods high in sodium C) restrict fluid to prevent elimination accidents D) avoid taking antihistamines D: avoid taking antihistamines. Antihistamines can aggravate urinary incontinence and should be avoided by these clients. Holding the urine, avoiding sodium, and restricting fluids have not been shown to reduce urinary incontinence. 14. A client returns from the operating room after a right orchiectomy. For the immediate post-operative period the nursing priority would be to A) maintain fluid and electrolyte balance B) manage post-operative pain C) ambulate the client within 1 hour of surgery D) control bladder spasms B: manage post-operative pain. Due to the location of the incision, pain management is the priority. Bladder spasms are more related to prostate surgery. 15. A client with a fracture of the radius had a plaster cast applied 2 days ago. The client complains of constant pain and swelling of the fingers. The first action of the nurse should be A) elevate the arm no higher than heart level B) remove the cast C) assess capillary refill of the exposed hand and fingers D) apply a warm soak to the hand C: assess capillary refill of the exposed hand and fingers. A deterioration in neurovascular status indicates the development of compartment syndrome (elevated tissue pressure within a confined area) which requires immediate pressure-reducing interventions. 16. A client is 2 days post operative. The vital signs are: BP - 120/70, HR -- 110 BPM, RR - 26, and Temperature - 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit (38 degrees Celsius). The client suddenly becomes profoundly short of breath, skin color is gray. Which assessment would have alerted the nurse first to the client's change in condition? A) Heart rate B) Respiratory rate C) Blood pressure D) Temperature B: Respiratory rate. Tachypnea is one of the first clues that the client is not oxygenating appropriately. The compensatory mechanism for decreased oxygenation is increased respiratory rate. 17. A client is waiting to have an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). The most important information to be obtained by the nurse prior to the procedure is A) time of the client's last meal B) client's allergy history C) assessment of the peripheral pulses D) results of the blood coagulation studies 65 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL order to question. Option A should also be questioned, although it is not a priority since the client would not be harmed by this action. This lab test gives the average glucose on the hemoglobin molecule for the past 2 to 3 months. There would be no need to repeat it at this time. A fasting glucose in the morning would be a more appropriate assessment. The other orders are within expected actions in this situation. 25. The nurse performs an assessment during a fluid exchange for the client who is 48 hours post-insertion of an abdominal Tenckhoff catheter for peritoneal dialysis. The nurse knows that the appearance of which of the following needs to be reported to the provider immediately? A) slight pink-tinged drainage B) abdominal discomfort C) muscle weakness D) cloudy drainage D: cloudy drainage. Cloudy drainage is a sign of infection that can lead to peritonitis (inflammation of the peritoneum). The other options are expected side effects of peritoneal dialysis. 66 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL Safety and Infection Control 1. After an explosion at a factory one of the employees approaches the nurse and says “I am an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) at the local hospital.” Which of these tasks should the nurse assign first to this worker who wants to help care for the wounded workers? A) Get temperatures B) Take blood pressure C) Palpate pulses D) Check alertness C: Palpate pulses. The heart rates would indicate if the client is in shock or has potential for shock. If the pulses could not be palpated, those clients would need to be seen first. 2. A client is diagnosed with methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus pneumonia (MRSA). What type of isolation is most appropriate for this client? A) Reverse B) Airborne C) Standard precautions D) Contact D: Contact. Contact precautions or Body Substance Isolation (BSI) involves the use of barrier protection (e.g. gloves, mask, gown, or protective eyewear as appropriate) whenever direct contact with any body fluid is expected. When determining the type of isolation to use, one must consider the mode of transmission. The hands of personnel continue to be the principal mode of transmission for methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Because the organism is limited to the sputum in this example, precautions are taken if contact with the patient''s sputum is expected. A private room and contact precautions , along with good hand washing techniques, are the best defenses against the spread of MRSA pneumonia. 3. A newly admitted adult client has a diagnosis of hepatitis A. The charge nurse should reinforce to the staff members that the most significant routine infection control strategy, in addition to handwashing, is which of these? A) Place appropriate signs outside and inside the room B) Use a mask with a shield if there is a risk of fluid splash C) Wear a gown to change soiled linens from incontinence D) Have gloves on while handling bedpans with feces D: Have gloves on while handling bedpans with feces. The specific measure to prevent the spread of hepatitis A is careful handling and protection while working with fecal material. All of the other actions are correct but not the most significant specific approach used with hepatitis A. 67 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL 4. The nurse is assigned to a client newly diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of these interventions would be a priority for the nurse to implement? A) Have the client cough into a tissue and dispose in a separate bag B) Instruct the client to cover the mouth with a tissue when coughing C) Reinforce that everyone should wash their hands before and after entering the room D) Place client in a negative pressure private room and have all who enter the room use masks with shields 70 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL D) "Drink plenty of water and empty your bladder often during the initial 3 days of therapy." A: "In the initial 48 hours, avoid contact with children and pregnant women, and flush the commode twice after urination or defecation." The client's urine and saliva are radioactive for 24 hours after ingestion, and vomitus is radioactive for 6 to 8 hours. The client should drink 3 to 4 liters of fluid a day for the initial 48 hours to help remove the ( 131I) from the body. Staff should limit contact with hospitalized clients to 30 minutes per day per person. 11. The nurse is to administer a new medication to a client. Which of these actions best demonstrate awareness of safe, proficient nursing practice? A) Verify the order for the medication. Prior to giving the medication the nurse should say, "Please state your name." B) Upon entering the room the nurse should ask: "What is your name? What allergies do you have?" and then check the client's name band and allergy band. C) As the room is entered say "What is your name?" then check the client's name band. D) Verify the client's allergies on the admission sheet and order. Verify the client's name on the nameplate outside the room then as the nurse enters the room ask the client "What is your first, middle and last name?" B: Upon entering the room the nurse should ask: "What is your name? What allergies do you have?" and then check the client''s name band and allergy band. A dual check is always done for a client''s name. This would involve verbal and visual checks. Since this is a new medication an allergy check is appropriate. 12. The school nurse is teaching the faculty the most effective methods to prevent the spread of lice (Pediculus Humanus Capitis) in the school. The information that would be most important to include is reflected in which of these statements? A) "The treatment medication requires reapplication in 8 to 10 days." B) "Bedding and clothing can be boiled or steamed to kill lice." C) "Children should not share hats, scarves and combs." D) "Nit combs are necessary to comb lice eggs (nits) out of children's hair." C: "Children should not share hats, scarves and combs." Head lice live only on human beings and can be spread easily by sharing hats, combs, scarves, coats and other items of clothing that touch the hair. All of the options are correct statements, however they do not best answer the question of how to prevent the spread of lice in a school setting. 13. Which approach is the best way to prevent infections when providing care to clients in the home setting? A) Handwashing before and after examination of clients B) Wearing nonpowdered latex-free gloves to examine the client C) Using a barrier between the client's furniture and the nurse's bag D) Wearing a mask with a shield during any eye/mouth/nose examination A: Handwashing before and after examination of clients. Handwashing remains the most effective way to avoid spreading infection. However, too often nurses do not practice good handwashing techniques and do not teach families to do so. Nurses need to wash their hands before and after touching the client and before entering the nursing bag. All of the options are correct, and the sequence of priorities would be options A, C, B, and D. 14. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about compromised host precautions. The client is receiving filgrastim (Neupogen) for neutropenia. Which lunch selection suggests the client has learned about necessary dietary changes? A) grilled chicken sandwich and skim milk B) roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans C) peanut butter sandwich, banana, and iced tea D) barbeque beef, baked beans, and cole slaw B: roast beef, mashed potatoes, and green beans. The client has correctly selected an appropriate lunch and appears to know the dietary restrictions. Low granulocyte counts and susceptibility to infection are expected. Compromised host precautions require that foods are either cooked or canned. Options A, C and D do not demonstrate learning, as raw fruits, vegetables, and milk are to be avoided. 15. A school nurse has a 10 year-old child with a history of epilepsy with tonic-clonic seizures attending classes regularly. The school nurse should inform the teacher that if the child experiences a seizure in the classroom, the most important action to take during the seizure would be to 71 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A) move any chairs or desks at least 3 feet away from the child B) note the sequence of movements with the time lapse of the event C) provide privacy as much as possible to minimize frightening the other children D) place the hands or a folded blanket under the head of the child D: place the hands or a folded blanket under the head of the child. The priority during seizure activity is to protect the person from physical injury. Place a pillow, folded blanket or your hands under the child''s head to prevent concussion or other head trauma. The other body parts are at less risk for injury, consequently the prioritized sequence of the actions above would be options D, A, B, and C. 16. A parent calls the hospital hot line and is connected to the triage nurse. The caller proclaims: “I found my child with odd stuff coming from the mouth and an unmarked bottle nearby.” Which of these comments would be the best tool for the nurse to determine if the child has swallowed a corrosive substance? A) "Ask the child if the mouth is burning or throat pain is present." B) "Take the child’s pulse at the wrist and see if the child is has trouble breathing lying flat." C) "What color is the child’s lips and nails and has the child voided today?" 72 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL D) "Has the child had vomiting, diarrhea or stomach cramps?" A: "Ask the child if the mouth is burning or throat pain is present." Local irritation of tissues indicates a corrosive poisoning. The other comments may be helpful in determining the child’s overall condition, however the question concerns evaluation for ingesting a caustic substance. 17. Which of these clients would the nurse recommend keeping in the hospital during an internal disaster at that facility? A) An adolescent diagnosed with sepsis 7 days ago and whose vital signs are maintained within low normal limits. B) A middle-aged woman known to have had an uncomplicated myocardial infarction 4 days ago C) An elderly man admitted 2 days ago with an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis D) A young adult in the second day of treatment for an overdose of acetometaphen D: A young adult in the second day of treatment for an overdose of acetometaphen. An overdose of Tylenol requires close observation for 3 to 4 days as well as Mucomyst PO during that time . A strong risk of liver failure exists immediately following Tylenol overdose. 18. When an infant car seat is properly installed, the infant should face A) forward, so child may look out window B) backward, so child faces the seat C) the side window, to increase sensory stimulation D) upward, as child lies on back with seat installed sideways B: backward, so child faces the seat. Nurses are now responsible for promoting the continued safety of infants and children outside of the hospital. Emergency Department and Women’s Services staff are trained in child seat placement. Growth and development data indicate that infants still require support of the head. Therefore, they should be positioned reclining and facing the rear until their leg muscles are strong enough to kick away from the backseat (about 10-12 months-old) for the greatest protection. 19. Which of these clients is the priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours? A) An infant with a positive culture of stool for Shigella B) An elderly factory worker with a lab report that is positive for acid-fast bacillus smear C) A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination from an induced sputum for Pneumocystis carinii D) A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella zoster virus and with crops of vesicles on an erythematous base that appear on the skin B: An elderly factory worker with a lab report that is positive for acid-fast bacillus smear. Tuberculosis is a reportable disease because persons who had contact with the client must be traced and often must be treated with chemoprophylaxis for a designated time. Options A and D may need contact isolation precautions. Option C -- findings may indicate the initial stage of autoimmune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). 20. Which of these actions is the primary nursing intervention designed to limit transmission of a client’s Salmonella infection? A) Wash hands thoroughly before and after client contact B) Wear gloves when in contact with body secretions C) Double glove when in contact with feces or vomitus D) Wear gloves when disposing of contaminated linens A: Wash hands thoroughly before and after client contact. Gram-negative bacilli cause Salmonella infection, and lack of sanitation is the primary means of contamination. Two million new cases appear each year. Thorough handwashing can prevent the spread of salmonella. Note that all of the options are appropriate activities, but handwashing is primary. 75 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL 5. A 64 year-old client scheduled for surgery with a general anesthetic refuses to remove a set of dentures prior to leaving the unit for the operating room. What would be the most appropriate intervention by the nurse? A) Explain to the client that the dentures must come out as they may get lost or broken in operating room B) Ask the client if there are second thoughts about having the procedure C) Notify the anesthesia department and the surgeon of the client's refusal D) Ask the client if the preference would be to remove the dentures in the operating room receiving area D: Ask the client if the preference would be to remove the dentures in the operating room receiving area Clients anticipating surgery may experience a variety of fears. This choice allows the client control over the situation and fosters the client''s sense of self-esteem and self-concept. 6. When teaching a 10 year-old child about their impending heart surgery, which form of explanation meets the developmental needs of this age child? A) Provide a verbal explanation just prior to the surgery B) Provide the child with a booklet to read about the surgery C) Introduce the child to another child who had heart surgery 3 days ago D) Explain the surgery using a model of the heart D: Explain the surgery using a model of the heart. According to Piaget, the school age child is in the concrete operations stage of cognitive development. Using something concrete, like a model will help the child understand the explanation of the heart surgery. 7. When screening children for scoliosis, at what time of development would the nurse expect early signs to appear? A) Prenatally on ultrasound B) In early infancy C) When the child begins to bear weight D) During the preadolescent growth spurt D: During the preadolescent growth spurt. Idiopathic scoliosis is seldom apparent before 10 years of age and is most noticeable at the beginning of the preadolescent growth spurt. It is more common in females than in males. 8. A client is admitted to the hospital with a history of confusion. The client has difficulty remembering recent events and becomes disoriented when away from home. Which statement would provide the best reality orientation for this client? A) "Good morning. Do you remember where you are?" B) "Hello. My name is Elaine Jones and I am your nurse for today." C) "How are you today? Remember, you're in the hospital." D) "Good morning. You’re in the hospital. I am your nurse Elaine Jones." D: "Good morning. You’re in the hospital. I am your nurse Elaine Jones." As cognitive ability declines, the nurse provides a calm, predictable environment for the client. This response establishes time, location and the caregiver’s name. 9. The nurse is assessing a 4 month-old infant. Which motor skill would the nurse anticipate finding? A) Hold a rattle B) Bang two blocks C) Drink from a cup D) Wave "bye-bye" A: Hold a rattle. The age at which a baby will develop the skill of grasping a toy with help is 4 to 6 months. 10. An appropriate treatment goal for a client with anxiety would be to A) ventilate anxious feelings to the nurse B) establish contact with reality C) learn self-help techniques D) become desensitized to past trauma C: learn self-help techniques. Exploring alternative coping mechanisms will decrease present anxiety to a manageable level. 76 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL Assisting the client to learn self-help techniques will assist in learning to cope with anxiety. 11. The family of a 6 year-old with a fractured femur asks the nurse if the child's height will be affected by the injury. Which statement is true concerning long bone fractures in children? A) Growth problems will occur if the fracture involves the periosteum B) Epiphyseal fractures often interrupt a child's normal growth pattern C) Children usually heal very quickly, so growth problems are rare D) Adequate blood supply to the bone prevents growth delay after fractures B: Epiphyseal fractures often interrupt a child''s normal growth pattern. The epiphyseal plate in children is where active bone growth occurs. Damage to this area may cause growth arrest in either longitudinal growth of the limb or in progressive deformity if the plate is involved. An epiphyseal fracture is serious because it can interrupt and alter growth. 12. While caring for a client, the nurse notes a pulsating mass in the client's periumbilical area. Which of the following assessments is appropriate for the nurse to perform? A) Measure the length of the mass 77 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL B) Auscultate the mass C) Percuss the mass D) Palpate the mass B: Auscultate the mass. Auscultation of the abdomen and finding a bruit will confirm the presence of an abdominal aneurysm and will form the basis of information given to the provider. The mass should not be palpated because of the risk of rupture. 13. While the nurse is administering medications to a client, the client states "I do not want to take that medicine today." Which of the following responses by the nurse would be best? A) "That's OK, its all right to skip your medication now and then." B) "I will have to call your doctor and report this." C) "Is there a reason why you don't want to take your medicine?" D) "Do you understand the consequences of refusing your prescribed treatment?" C: When a new problem is identified, it is important for the nurse to collect accurate assessment data. This is crucial to ensure that client needs are adequately identified in order to select the best nursing care approaches. The nurse should try to discover the reason for the refusal which may be that the client has developed untoward side effects. 14. The nurse is teaching the parents of a 3 month-old infant about nutrition. What is the main source of fluids for an infant until about 12 months of age? A) Formula or breast milk B) Dilute nonfat dry milk C) Warmed fruit juice D) Fluoridated tap water A: Formula or breast milk. Formula or breast milk are the perfect food and source of nutrients and liquids up to 1 year of age. 15. A client states, "People think I’m no good, you know what I mean?" Which of these responses would be most therapeutic? A) "Well people often take their own feelings of inadequacy out on others." B) "I think you’re good. So you see, there’s one person who likes you." C) "I’m not sure what you mean. Tell me a bit more about that." D) "Let's discuss this to see the reasons you create this impression on people." C: "I’m not sure what you mean. Tell me a bit more about that." This therapeutic communication technique elicits more information, especially when delivered in an open, non-judgmental fashion. 16. When teaching effective stress management techniques to a client 1 hour before surgery, which of the following should the nurse recommend? A) Biofeedback B) Deep breathing C) Distraction D) Imagery B: Deep breathing. Deep breathing is a reliable and valid method for reducing stress, and can be taught and reinforced in a short period pre-operatively. 17. The nurse is planning care for an 18 month-old child. Which action should be included in the child's care? A) Hold and cuddle the child frequently B) Encourage the child to feed himself finger food C) Allow the child to walk independently on the nursing unit D) Engage the child in games with other children B: Encourage the child to feed himself finger food. According to Erikson, the toddler is in the stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt. The nurse should encourage increasingly independent activities of daily living that allow the toddler to assert his budding sense of control. 80 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A) Cheese sandwich with a glass of 2% milk B) Sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple C) Cheeseburger and baked potato D) Mushroom pizza and ice cream B: Sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple. Sliced turkey sandwich is appropriate since it is not a highly processed food and canned fruits are low in sodium. All of the other choices contain one or more high-sodium foods. 4. The nurse is caring for a 7 year-old with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN). Findings include moderate edema and oliguria. Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are elevated. What dietary modifications are most appropriate? A) Decreased carbohydrates and fat B) Decreased sodium and potassium C) Increased potassium and protein D) Increased sodium and fluids B: Decreased sodium and potassium. Children with AGN who have edema, hypertension oliguria, and azotemia have dietary restrictions limiting sodium, potassium, fluids, and protein. 81 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL 5. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate to suggest? A) 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, ½ cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk B) 3 oz. canned salmon, fresh broccoli, 1 biscuit, tea, and 1 apple C) A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice D) 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange D: 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange. Canned fish and vegetables and cured meats are high in sodium. This meal does not contain any canned fish and/or vegetables or cured meats. 6. What finding of the nursing assessment of a paralyzed client would indicate the probable presence of a fecal impaction? A) Presence of blood in stools B) Oozing liquid stool C) Continuous rumbling flatulence D) Absence of bowel movements B: Oozing liquid stool. When the bowel is impacted with hardened feces, there is often a seepage of liquid feces around the obstruction. This is often mistaken for uncontrolled diarrhea. 7. The nurse is teaching the client to select foods rich in potassium to help prevent digitalis toxicity. Which choice indicates the client understands dietary needs? A) three apricots B) medium banana C) naval orange D) baked potato D: baked potato. A baked potato contains 610 milligrams of potassium. 8. When administering enteral feeding to a client via a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula A) every four to six hours B) continuously C) in a bolus D) every hour B: continuously. Usually gastrostomy and jejunostomy feedings are given continuously to ensure proper absorption. However, initial feedings may be given by bolus to assess the client''s tolerance to formula. 9. An 86 year-old nursing home resident who has impaired mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next? A) Add a thickening agent to the fluids B) Check the client’s gag reflex C) Feed the client only solid foods D) Increase the rate of intravenous fluids B: Check the client’s gag reflex. When a new problem emerges, the nurse should perform appropriate assessment so that suitable nursing interventions can be planned. Aspiration pneumonia follows aspiration of material from the mouth into the trachea and finally the lung. A loss or an impairment of the protective cough reflex can result in aspiration. 10. An 85 year-old client complains of generalized muscle aches and pains. The first action by the nurse should be A) assess the severity and location of the pain B) obtain an order for an analgesic C) reassure him that this is not unusual for his age D) encourage him to increase his activity 82 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A: assess the severity and location of the pain. Most older adults have 1 or more chronic painful illnesses, and in fact, they often must be asked about discomfort (rather than "pain") to reveal the presence of pain. There is no evidence that pain of older adults is less intense than younger adults. It is important for the nurse to assess the pain thoroughly before implementing pain relief measures. 11. A client was just taken off the ventilator after surgery and has a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. Which nursing measure will provide the most comfort to the client? A) Allow the client to melt ice chips in the mouth B) Provide mints to freshen the breath C) Perform frequent oral care with a tooth sponge D) Swab the mouth with glycerin swabs C: Perform frequent oral care with a tooth sponge. Frequent cleansing and stimulation of the mucous membrane is important for a client with a nasogastric tube to prevent development of lesions and to promote comfort. Ice chips or mints could be contraindicated, and do not stimulate the tissue. Glycerin swabs do not cleanse since they only moisturize. 85 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A) orange juice B) tuna C) eggs D) macaroni A: Orange juice is contraindicated for a client with diarrhea because it increases the motility of the gastrointestinal tract. 19. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values? A) bleeding time B) platelet count C) activated PTT D) clotting time C: activated PTT. Heparin is used to prevent further clots from being formed and to prevent the present clot from enlarging. The Activated Prothromboplastin Time (APTT) test is a highly sensitive test to monitor the client on heparin. 20. A client in a long term care facility complains of pain. The nurse collects data about the client’s pain. The first step in pain assessment is for the nurse to A) have the client identify coping methods B) get the description of the location and intensity of the pain C) accept the client’s report of pain D) determine the client’s status of pain C: accept the client’s report of pain. Although all of the options above are correct, the first and most important piece of information in this client’s pain assessment is what the client is telling you about the pain --“the client’s report.” Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 1. A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy. What medication should the nurse have available in the event of an overdose of heparin? A) Protamine B) Amicar C) Imferon D) Diltiazem A: Protamine. Protamine binds heparin, making it ineffective. 2. Although nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen (Motrin) are beneficial in managing arthritis pain, the nurse should caution clients about which of the following common side effects? A) Urinary incontinence B) Constipation C) Nystagmus D) Occult bleeding D: Occult bleeding. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) taken for long periods of time may cause serious side effects, including bleeding in the gastrointestinal track. 3. A client is being discharged with a prescription for chlorpromazine (Thorazine). Before leaving for home, which of these findings should the nurse teach the client to report? 86 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A) Change in libido, breast enlargement B) Sore throat, fever C) Abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea D) Dyspnea, nasal congestion B: A sore throat and fever may be findings of agranulocytosis, a serious side effect of chlorpromazine (Thorazine). 4. The nurse receives an order to give a client iron by deep injection. The nurse know that the reason for this route is to A) enhance absorption of the medication B) ensure that the entire dose of medication is given C) provide more even distribution of the drug D) prevent the drug from causing tissue irritation D: prevent the drug from causing tissue irritation. Deep injection or Z-track is a special method of giving medications via the intramuscular route. Use of this technique prevents irritating or staining medications from being tracked through tissue. Use of Z- track does not affect dose, absorption, or distribution of the drug. 87 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL 5. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares elimination of which element? A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Phosphate D) Albumin B: Potassium. If ascites is present in the client with cirrhosis of the liver, potassium-sparing diuretics such as Aldactone should be administered because it inhibits the action of aldosterone on the kidneys. 6. Discharge instructions for a client taking alprazolam (Xanax) should include which of the following? A) Sedative hypnotics are effective analgesics B) Sudden cessation of alprazolam (Xanax) can cause rebound insomnia and nightmares C) Caffeine beverages can increase the effect of sedative hypnotics D) Avoidance of excessive exercise and high temperature is recommended B: Sudden cessation of any medication, unless medically necessary, is ill-advised. 7. A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely? A) Bleeding time B) Hemoglobin and hematocrit C) White blood cells D) Platelets B: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. The post-transfusion hematocrit provides immediate information about red cell replacement and about continued blood loss. 8. The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops urticaria one-half hour after the transfusion has begun. What is the first action the nurse should take? A) Stop the infusion B) Slow the rate of infusion C) Take vital signs and observe for further deterioration D) Administer Benadryl and continue the infusion A: Stop the infusion. This is an indication of an allergy to the plasma protein. The priority action of the nurse is to stop the transfusion. 9. A nurse is providing care to a 63 year-old client with pneumonia. Which intervention promotes the client’s comfort? A) Increase oral fluid intake B) Encourage visits from family and friends C) Keep conversations short D) Monitor vital signs frequently C: Keep conversations short. Keeping conversations short will promote the client’s comfort by decreasing demands on the client’s breathing and energy. Increased intake is not related to comfort. While the presence of family is supportive, demands on the client to interact with the visitors may interfere with the client’s rest. Monitoring vital signs is an important assessment but not related to promoting the client’s comfort. 10. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2 year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml. The correct action is to A) administer the medication in 2 separate injections B) give the medication in the dorsal gluteal site C) call to get a smaller volume ordered D) check with pharmacy for a liquid form of the medication 90 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL D) Avoid walking without assistance A: Avoid chocolate and cheese. Foods high in tryptophan, tyramine and caffeine, such as chocolate, wine and cheese may precipitate hypertensive crisis. 18. The nurse has been teaching a client with Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? A) "I use a sliding scale to adjust regular insulin to my sugar level." B) "Since my eyesight is so bad, I ask the nurse to fill several syringes." C) "I keep my regular insulin bottle in the refrigerator." D) "I always make sure to shake the NPH bottle hard to mix it well." D: "I always make sure to shake the NPH bottle hard to mix it well." The bottle should by rolled gently, not shaken. 19. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for the administration of feedings and medications. Which nursing action is appropriate? 91 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A) Pulverize all medications to a powdery condition B) Squeeze the tube before using it to break up stagnant liquids C) Cleanse the skin around the tube daily with hydrogen peroxide D) Flush adequately with water before and after using the tube D: Flush adequately with water before and after using the tube. Flushing the tube before and after use not only provides for good flow and keeps the tube patent, it also provides water to maintain hydration. While medications should be crushed to pass through the tube, it is flushing that moves them through. Not all medications should be crushed, for example sustained release preparations should not be cut or pulverized. Stagnant liquids are reduced by flushing after tube use. Cleansing is important, but soap and water are sufficient without the added irritation of hydrogen peroxide 20. While providing home care to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is asked how long diuretics must be taken. What is the nurse’s best response? A) "As you urinate more, you will need less medication to control fluid." B) "You will have to take this medication for about a year." C) "The medication must be continued so the fluid problem is controlled." D) "Please talk to your health care provider about medications and treatments." C: "The medication must be continued so the fluid problem is controlled." This is the most therapeutic response and gives the client accurate information. Q&A Pharmacology 1. A post-operative client has a prescription for acetaminophen with codeine. What should the nurse recognizes as a primary effect of this combination? A) Enhanced pain relief B) Minimized side effects C) Prevention of drug tolerance D) Increased onset of action A: Enhanced pain relief. Combination of analgesics with different mechanisms of action can afford greater pain relief. 2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving methyldopa hydrochloride (Aldomet) intravenously. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate to the nurse that the client may be having an adverse reaction to the medication? A) Headache B) Mood changes C) Hyperkalemia D) Palpitations B: Mood changes. The nurse should assess the client for alterations in mental status such as mood changes. These symptoms should be reported promptly. 3. When providing discharge teaching to a client with asthma, the nurse will warn against the use of which of the following over-the-counter medications? A) Cortisone ointments for skin rashes B) Aspirin products for pain relief C) Cough medications containing guaifenesin D) Histamine blockers for gastric distress B: Aspirin products for pain relief. Aspirin is known to induce asthma attacks. Aspirin can also cause nasal polyps and rhinitis. Warn individuals with asthma about signs and symptoms resulting from complications due to aspirin ingestion. 4. The nurse practicing in a long term care facility recognizes that elderly clients are at greater risk for drug toxicity than younger adults because of which of the following physiological changes of advancing age? 92 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL A) Drugs are absorbed more readily from the GI tract B) Elders have less body water and more fat C) The elderly have more rapid hepatic metabolism D) Older people are often malnourished and anemic B: Elders have less body water and more fat. Because elderly persons have decreased lean body tissue/water in which to distribute medications, more drug remains in the circulatory system with potential for drug toxicity. Increased body fat results in greater amounts of fat-soluble drugs being absorbed, leaving less in circulation, thus increasing the duration of action of the drug. 5. In providing care for a client with pain from a sickle cell crisis, which one of the following medication orders for pain control should be questioned by the nurse? A) Demerol B) Morphine C) Methadone D) Codeine 95 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL D: Urine sulfa crystals. Silver sulfadiazine is a broad spectrum anti-microbial, especially effective against pseudomonas. When applied to extensive areas, however, it may cause a transient neutropenia, as well as renal function changes with sulfa crystals production and kernicterus. 13. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving procainamide (Pronestyl) intravenously. It is important for the nurse to monitor which of the following parameters? A) Hourly urinary output B) Serum potassium levels C) Continuous EKG readings D) Neurological signs C: Continuous EKG readings. Procainamide (Pronestyl) is used to suppress cardiac arrhythmias. When administered intravenously, it must be accompanied by continuous cardiac monitoring by ECG. 14. The nurse is teaching a parent how to administer oral iron supplements to a 2 year-old child. Which of the following interventions should be included in the teaching? A) Stop the medication if the stools become tarry green B) Give the medicine with orange juice and through a straw C) Add the medicine to a bottle of formula D) Administer the iron with your child's meals B: Give the medicine with orange juice and through a straw. Absorption of iron is facilitated in an environment rich in Vitamin C. Since liquid iron preparation will stain teeth, a straw is preferred. 15. A client with bi-polar disorder is taking lithium (Lithane). What should the nurse emphasize when teaching about this medication? A) Take the medication before meals B) Maintain adequate daily salt intake C) Reduce fluid intake to minimize diuresis D) Use antacids to prevent heartburn B: Maintain adequate daily salt intake. Salt intake affects fluid volume, which can affect lithium (Lithane) levels; therefore, maintaining adequate salt intake is advised. 16. The nurse is assessing a 7 year-old after several days of treatment for a documented strep throat. Which of the following statements suggests that further teaching is needed? A) "Sometimes I take my medicine with fruit juice." B) "My mother makes me take my medicine right after school." C) "Sometimes I take the pills in the morning and other times at night." D) "I am feeling much better than I did last week." C: "Sometimes I take the pills in the morning and other times at night." Inconsistency in taking the prescribed medication indicates more teaching is needed. 17. An elderly client is on an anticholinergic metered dose inhaler (MDI) for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse would suggest a spacer to A) enhance the administration of the medication B) increase client compliance C) improve aerosol delivery in clients who are not able to coordinate the MDI D) prevent exacerbation of COPD C: Spacers improve the medication delivery in clients who are unable to coordinate the movements of administering a dose with an MDI. 18. The nurse is providing education for a client with newly diagnosed tuberculosis. Which statement should be included in the 96 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL information that is given to the client? A) "Isolate yourself from others until you are finished taking your medication." B) "Follow up with your primary care provider in 3 months." C) "Continue to take your medications even when you are feeling fine." D) "Continue to get yearly tuberculin skin tests." C: The most important piece of information the tuberculosis client needs is to understand the importance of medication compliance, even if no longer experiencing symptoms. Clients are most infectious early in the course of therapy. The numbers of acid-fast bacilli are greatly reduced as early as 2 weeks after therapy begins. 19. The nurse is administering an intravenous vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a client. Which assessment would require the nurse's immediate action? A) Stomatitis lesion in the mouth B) Severe nausea and vomiting C) Complaints of pain at site of infusion D) A rash on the client's extremities 97 NURSING 11456 NCSBN Test bank|NCSBN ON-LINE REVIEW, NCSBN TEST BANK - for the NCLEX-RN & NCLEX-PN Examination100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A + LEVEL C: Complaints of pain at site of infusion. A vesicant is a chemotherapeutic agent capable of causing blistering of tissues and possible tissue necrosis if there is extravasation. These agents are irritants which cause pain along the vein wall, with or without inflammation. 20. The nurse is instructing a client with moderate persistent asthma on the proper method for using MDIs (multi-dose inhalers). Which medication should be administered first? A) Steroid B) Anticholinergic C) Mast cell stabilizer D) Beta agonist D: Beta agonist. The beta-agonist drugs help to relieve bronchospasm by relaxing the smooth muscle of the airway. These drugs should be taken first so that other medications can reach the lungs. 21. The nurse is teaching a group of women in a community clinic about prevention of osteoporosis. Which of the following over-the-counter medications should the nurse recognize as having the most elemental calcium per tablet? A) Calcium chloride B) Calcium citrate C) Calcium gluconate D) Calcium carbonate D: Calcium carbonate. Calcium carbonate contains 400mg of elemental calcium in 1 gram of calcium carbonate. 22. The provider has ordered daily high doses of aspirin for a client with rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse instructs the client to discontinue the medication and contact the provider if which of the following symptoms occur? A) Infection of the gums B) Diarrhea for more than one day C) Numbness in the lower extremities D) Ringing in the ears D: Ringing in the ears. Aspirin stimulates the central nervous system which may result in ringing in the ears. 23. A 5 year-old has been rushed to the emergency room several hours after acetaminophen poisoning. Which laboratory result should receive attention by the nurse? A) Sedimentation rate B) Profile 2 C) Bilirubin D) Neutrophils C: Bilirubin. Bilirubin, along with liver enzymes ALT and AST, may rise in the second stage (1-3 days) after a significant overdose, indicating cellular necrosis and liver dysfunction. 24. The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who has been treated with quetiapine (Seroquel) for 1 month. Today the client is increasingly agitated and complains of muscle stiffness. Which of these findings should be reported to the health care provider? A) Elevated temperature and sweating. B) Decreased pulse and blood pressure. C) Mental confusion and general weakness. D) Muscle spasms and seizures. A: Elevated temperature and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare disorder that can occur as a side effect of antipsychotic medications. It is characterized by muscular rigidity, tachycardia, hyperthermia, sweating, altered consciousness, autonomic dysfunction, and increase in CPK. This is a life-threatening complication.