Nursing as a Career: NCLEX-RN Study Guide, Exams of Advanced Education

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NURSING AS A CAREER FINAL

STUDY GUIDE

NCLEX-RN test items that require the test taker to prioritize a list of nursing actions in the order by which the nurse would perform them are called: a. sequential questions. b. exhibit questions. c. graph questions. d. drag-and-drop questions. 2 NCLEX-RN test items that require the test taker to select "all options that apply" are called: a. multiple response questions. b. ordered response questions. c. multiple choice questions. d. rank order questions. Which regulatory body devised a National Patient Safety Goal of improving staff communication? a. Institute of Medicine b. State Boards of Nursing c. The Joint Commission d. State Boards of Medicine 4 Which of the following content areas would be tested under the NCLEX-RN psychosocial category? a. Growth and development b. Management of patient care c. End-of-life care

d. Health promotion and screening activities Don't know? Press any key to continue Continue Terms in this set (160) Original All of the following are true about Associate degree programs in nursing except: a. ADN programs provided a way to enter nursing for men, married women, and mature students. b. ADN programs were developed in response to an acute nursing shortage. c. ADN programs were conceived by Mildred Montag as the topic of her doctoral dissertation. d. tests conducted during the 1950s indicated that graduates of ADN programs lacked the knowledge and technical skills to function as registered nurses. tests conducted during the 1950s indicated that graduates of ADN programs lacked the knowledge and technical skills to function as registered nurses. As a result of the Great Depression of the 1930s, the majority of registered nurses in the U.S.: a. sought employment in hospitals, often working for little or no wages. b. were opposed to government relief efforts to provide relief to unemployed persons. c. increasingly found work as self-employed private duty nurses. d. decided to leave nursing to seek work in areas other than health care. sought employment in hospitals, often working for little or no wages. During the late 19th century, advances in science contributed to the growth in nursing education because: a. schools of nursing were increasingly relied upon to aid in the discovery of the causes of disease. b. the need for university preparation of professional nurses had been firmly established. c. improvement in technology required educated nurses for the care of patients with more complex conditions. d. the hospital was determined to be the only place where patients should be treated.

improvement in technology required educated nurses for the care of patients with more complex conditions. Florence Nightingale's most significant contribution to the emergence of nursing as a profession was her: a. discovery that dirt, rather than pathogens, is the primary cause of disease. b. use of political influence to obtain permission to take a group of nurses to the Crimean War. c. establishment of the Nightingale School of Nursing at St. Thomas' Hospital. d. work with Pastor Fliedner to establish the Deaconess Home and Hospital. establishment of the Nightingale School of Nursing at St. Thomas' Hospital. The American Nurses Association Position Paper, which was published in 1965, had a significant impact on the nursing profession because it: a. reaffirmed that nursing education should occur in patient care settings, such as hospitals. b. stated that the minimum preparation for beginning professional nurses should be a baccalaureate degree. c. united U.S. nurses in the belief that significant changes were needed in nursing education. d. stated that no formal education should be required for beginning technical nurses who would practice solely at the patient's bedside. stated that the minimum preparation for beginning professional nurses should be a baccalaureate degree. The chief characteristic of early hospital-based schools of nursing in the U.S. was that: a. student nurses received an education based on sound instructional principles. b. student nurses were required to work long hours with few formal classes and little clinical supervision. c. schools of nursing were few in number so that their quality could be ensured. d. schools of nursing employed well-educated faculty members committed to meeting their students' needs. student nurses were required to work long hours with few formal classes and little clinical supervision. The first nurse practice acts passed in the U.S.: a. allowed anyone in the state to apply for nurse licensure, regardless of their

educational preparation. b. barred persons who had not graduated from a school of nursing from the practice of nursing for pay. c. were "permissive" laws that allowed only nurses who were licensed to use the title "Registered Nurse." d. allowed any person who worked as a nurse for pay to use the title "Registered Nurse." were "permissive" laws that allowed only nurses who were licensed to use the title "Registered Nurse." The primary reason that educated nurses first joined together to form the precursor to the American Nurses Association was to: a. require licensure for all graduates of schools of nursing in the U.S. b. establish consistency in the curricula of schools of nursing. c. secure the passage of nurse licensure legislation in each of the states in the U.S. d. establish consistency in the entrance requirements for schools of nursing. secure the passage of nurse licensure legislation in each of the states in the U.S. The profession of nursing strove to develop its own body of knowledge through all of the following mechanisms except: a. use of theoretical frameworks from related healthcare professions. b. development of nursing theory by nurse scholars such as Martha Rogers, Hildegarde Peplau, and Dorothy Orem. c. publication of the journal Nursing Research. d. increased focus on evidence-based practice to improve nursing practice. use of theoretical frameworks from related healthcare professions. Throughout antiquity, prior to the modern era, the safest nursing care was provided in: a. hospitals linked to early European universities. b. almshouses established for the destitute. c. public hospitals that had been established in some large cities. d. one's own home, by one's relatives. one's own home, by one's relatives.

According to the Journal of Patient Safety, the third leading cause of death in the U.S. is what? a. Misdiagnosis b. Patient falls c. Neglect d. Medical errors Medical errors A nursing license is issued by which of the following? a. American Nurses Association b. American Medical Association c. State Board of Nursing d. U.S. Health and Human Services State Board of Nursing At the beginning of the twentieth century, states established ______ to protect the public's health by overseeing and ensuring the safe practice of nursing. a. nurse practice acts b. boards of nursing c. licensing requirements d. nursing schools boards of nursing Boards of nursing can consist of which of the following? a. Licensed practical nurses b. All of these can be on a board of nursing. c. Healthcare consumers d. Registered nurses All of these can be on a board of nursing. Kerry is a nurse in a compact state. As long as she remains in good standing, renews her multistate licensure, and continues to reside in a primary state of residence that is a compact state, what is the time limit for her working in other compact states?

a. One year b. There is no time limit. c. Ten years d. Five years There is no time limit. Statutes that define the legal limits for the practice of nursing, NPAs, are issued by which of the following? a. State nursing boards b. The federal government c. Individual state governments d. American Medical Association Individual state governments To avoid being found negligent or guilty of malpractice, a nurse must provide care that represents a _______ level of practice. a. standard b. safe c. competent d. minimum minimum What is becoming the new standard measure for excellence in nursing care in the ever- changing healthcare system? a. Certification b. Uniform standards c. Recognition d. Licensure Certification Which of the following shows just a minimal level of competency? a. Bachelor's degree b. Certification

c. Licensure d. Associate degree Licensure Why did the NCSBN Board of Directors endorse the goal to remove regulatory barriers between states? a. To increase the supply of qualified nurses b. To increase access to safe nursing care c. To ease the nursing shortage d. To make nursing standards consistent across states To increase access to safe nursing care Accredited nursing programs have demonstrated to external accrediting bodies that they: a. have enough clinical sites to meet the needs of students. b. have enough nursing faculty to serve the needs of students. c. meet professional nursing education standards. d. are fit to prepare nursing students for public health care. meet professional nursing education standards. A key message of the 2011 Institute of Medicine (IOM) report "The Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health" was: a. the PhD in nursing should be phased out and replaced with the DNP. b. all nurses need to obtain a master's degree for entry into practice. c. nurses should work with physicians to redesign healthcare systems. d. more nurses need to be prepared with associate degrees. nurses should work with physicians to redesign healthcare systems. Curriculum in nursing programs reflects the: a. apprenticeship model of nursing education. b. mission and philosophy of the school. c. American Nurses Association codes.

d. Hospital Joint Commission standards. mission and philosophy of the school. Research demonstrates that interprofessional education can result in improved: a. safety, quality, patient education, and collaboration and teamwork. b. morbidity and mortality rates among older adults. c. conflict among disciplines attempting to learn from one another. d. clinical outcomes, patient-centered communication, and collaborative teamwork. clinical outcomes, patient-centered communication, and collaborative teamwork. The 2011 Institute of Medicine (IOM) report "The Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health" recommended increasing the number of baccalaureate-prepared nurses to 80 percent by 2020 because nurses with this degree have greater potential to: a. provide nursing leadership. b. provide better bedside manner. c. improve patient outcomes. d. improve healthcare team communication. improve patient outcomes. The Doctorate of Nursing Practice (DNP) degree focuses on ensuring nurses are competent to: a. design healthcare systems. b. generate nursing theory. c. begin new nursing programs. d. provide bedside nursing. design healthcare systems. The scope and function of the practical/vocational nurse includes providing nursing care: a. under the supervision of a registered nurse or primary care provider. b. under the supervision of nurse practitioners and physicians. c. independently in long term and community care settings. d. only in hospitals and extended care facilities.

under the supervision of a registered nurse or primary care provider. Today's nursing students need to be well versed in evidence-based practice, which involves: a. gathering, analyzing, using, and synthesizing evidence. b. using the nursing process. c. applying interdisciplinary sciences. d. collaborating with healthcare professionals. gathering, analyzing, using, and synthesizing evidence. Use of approaches to teaching and learning in nursing education that are best include those that promote: a. lectures. b. active learning. c. flipped classrooms. d. passive learning. active learning. Which population will grow substantially by 2030 and require nurses to have specialized knowledge? a. Young adults b. Women c. Older adults d. Children Older adults If graduate nurses do not pass the NCLEX-RN, how long must they wait before retaking the exam? a. As soon as they are ready b. Six months c. Three weeks d. A minimum of 45 days A minimum of 45 days

NCLEX-RN test items that require the test taker to prioritize a list of nursing actions in the order by which the nurse would perform them are called: a. sequential questions. b. exhibit questions. c. graph questions. d. drag-and-drop questions. drag-and-drop questions. NCLEX-RN test items that require the test taker to select "all options that apply" are called: a. multiple response questions. b. ordered response questions. c. multiple choice questions. d. rank order questions. multiple response questions. Students who have a documented disability and require test accommodations should do which of the following prior to registering for the NCLEX-RN? a. Contact their physician for anti-anxiety medication as a precaution. b. Evaluate how well they do on the practice examinations without accommodations. c. Contact their state board of nursing to request test accommodations. d. Delay taking the test until they are sure they will be able to pass. Contact their state board of nursing to request test accommodations. The NCLEX-RN test plan category of Safety and Infection Control is focused on which of the following aspects of nursing care? a. Early detection of health problems b. Delegating and supervising client care c. Health and environmental hazards d. Providing care in crisis situations Health and environmental hazards The NCSBN conducts a job analysis every three years for what purpose?

a. Determine how long it takes new RNs to gain confidence in the role b. Measure the expertise of RNs who have practiced for three or more years c. Identify changes taking place in the U.S. healthcare system d. Identify entry level skills and knowledge needed by novice nurses Identify entry level skills and knowledge needed by novice nurses What is the maximum amount of time allowed to take the NCLEX-RN? a. No maximum time limit b. 3 hours c. 6 hours d. 8 hours 6 hours What is the testing concept that underlies computer adaptive testing (CAT)? It is a method of testing that: a. randomizes the test questions so that each test is unique to that test taker. b. adapts to the test taker's responses, altering the complexity level of subsequent test items. c. provides accommodations for students with learning disabilities. d. changes the speed by which the test questions are displayed, based upon how quickly the test taker answers the test items. adapts to the test taker's responses, altering the complexity level of subsequent test items. Which of the following content areas would be tested under the NCLEX-RN psychosocial category? a. Growth and development b. Management of patient care c. End-of-life care d. Health promotion and screening activities End-of-life care Which of the following is the most important step a graduate can take to prepare for the NCLEX-RN?

a. Developing and following a study plan b. Buying a NCLEX-RN test preparation book c. Joining a weekly study group to prepare for the exam d. Asking for study advice from a faculty Developing and following a study plan As a new member of a professional nursing organization, which of the following is an effective way to become involved in the organization's activities? a. Read the electronic newsletters disseminated by the organization. b. Participate in any local chapter events to network with other members. c. Remember to renew annual dues on time. d. Check the organization's website regularly for new initiatives. Participate in any local chapter events to network with other members. Concern over the lack of nursing representation on national healthcare boards recently led to the implementation of which of the following initiatives? a. Providing nurses with talking points on how to get elected to boards b. Advocating for equal numbers of nurses and physicians on boards c. Increasing the number of admissions to graduate nursing school d. Placing 10,000 nurses on boards by the year 2020 Placing 10,000 nurses on boards by the year 2020 In the U.S., which professional nursing organization serves as the primary regulatory body in nursing? a. National Council of State Boards of Nursing b. Nursing Organization Alliance c. American Nurses Association d. American Association of Colleges of Nursing National Council of State Boards of Nursing One example of recent American Nurses' Association (ANA) political advocacy action in Congress is: a. gun control laws.

b. climate control legislation. c. healthy nutrition in elementary schools. d. Nurse Workforce Development Program funding. Nurse Workforce Development Program funding. The National Student Nurses Association (NSNA) is organizationally governed through which type of structure? a. A national board of directors consisting of nursing faculty from across the U.S. b. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) directs the activities of the NSNA c. A national student board elected by students from all U.S. schools of nursing d. A national student board elected by NSNA chapters located in member schools A national student board elected by NSNA chapters located in member schools What is the danger associated with nurses not being adequately represented nationally and internationally in healthcare discussions? a. The interests of nurses and the role they play in patient care will not be represented. b. Nurses will be viewed as not being knowledgeable or effective in their role. c. Physicians and other healthcare professionals will take over nursing's role in the healthcare system. d. The nursing profession will suffer losses of positions in the hospitals and other acute care agencies. The interests of nurses and the role they play in patient care will not be represented. What is the most reliable method by which to obtain information regarding a professional nursing organization's mission and strategic activities? a. Reviewing the organization's official website b. Talking to members of the organization c. Writing the organization's chief executive officer for information d. Asking the nursing faculty to explain the organizations Reviewing the organization's official website Which of the following organizations serves as the global honor society of nursing? a. International Council for Nurses

b. Sigma Theta Tau International c. Institute for Nursing Leadership d. National League for Nursing Sigma Theta Tau International Which of the following represents possible activities that nurses can become involved in through membership in a professional nursing organization? a. Supporting the campaigns of presidential candidates b. Developing standards of practice for a clinical specialty c. Participating in protests to support the civil rights of citizens d. Raising funds to support impoverished nursing schools in the U.S. Developing standards of practice for a clinical specialty Which of the following would be an appropriate reason to join a professional nursing organization? a. Enjoy travel to conferences b. Achieve an increase in salary c. Develop leadership skills d. Earn a promotion Develop leadership skills Choose the response below that is a benefit of students being exposed to IPE and interprofessional teams. a. Experiences that result in team-based positive outcomes for patients b. Not worrying about the way patient care occurs in other areas or departments c. Seeing health professionals who continue to work in silos and are not open to change in the way they practice d. Being able to rely on other professional disciplines to do the work in caring for the patient Experiences that result in team-based positive outcomes for patients Communication as part of the IPE team: a. includes all responses that can be interpreted as giving a message to someone else. b. includes only verbal responses.

c. demonstrates who is the team leader. d. means only what someone intended it to mean. includes all responses that can be interpreted as giving a message to someone else. TeamSTEPPS is a type of training to build teamwork skills that include: a. judging the actions of other members of the team. b. delegation and consent. c. leadership, mutual support, and communication. d. discussion of patient noncompliance. leadership, mutual support, and communication. The purpose of interprofessional education and interprofessional teams is to function well together and to: a. follow the physician as the team leader. b. learn with, from, and about each other. c. practice in the role of the other profession when necessary. d. provide instructions/orders for the patient, who is not a member of the team. learn with, from, and about each other. Three important patient transition tools and interventions developed for improved communication and collaboration are: a. ANA, Joint Commission, and IOM. b. Institute for Health, Triple Aim, and state boards of medicine. c. interprofessional education, early warning systems, and rapid response teams. d. Situation-background-assessment-recommendation, early warning systems, and rapid response teams. Situation-background-assessment-recommendation, early warning systems, and rapid response teams. Two key individual skills needed to function collaboratively are: a. humor and respect. b. communication and conflict management. c. admiration and trust.

d. forgive and forget. communication and conflict management. When working as a team, who can claim total authority over the others on the team? a. No one b. Everyone c. The physician d. The nurse No one Which major piece of health legislation is influencing today's increase in collaborative care? a. Prescription Drug Expansion Act b. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act c. Universal Health Care Act d. Medicare Act Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act Which regulatory body devised a National Patient Safety Goal of improving staff communication? a. Institute of Medicine b. State Boards of Nursing c. The Joint Commission d. State Boards of Medicine The Joint Commission Which type of model is an exemplar team-based model? a. Acute care-centered care b. Specialty practice c. Nurse-centered care d. Medical homes Medical homes

All of the following describe goals for health care identified in the IOM Crossing the Quality Chasm book except which of the following? a. Timely b. Safe c. Cost effective d. Patient centered Cost effective Hindsight bias can lead to: a. learning about a failure. b. learning about how to prevent the next error. c. assigning blame to person involved in active failure in a situation. d. increased safety culture. assigning blame to person involved in active failure in a situation. One of the largest barriers to making improvements in patient safety is: a. fixation. b. lack of accountability on the part of healthcare workers. c. hindsight bias. d. ill-prepared healthcare workers. hindsight bias. Safety is achieved by: a. following policies and procedures in all situations. b. not allowing dynamic and changing situations to influence decisions. c. decreasing complexity for healthcare workers. d. increasing education for healthcare workers. decreasing complexity for healthcare workers. The following are typical examples of organizational layers of defense to prevent failure, except: a. policies and procedures.

b. chain-of-command decision processes. c. budgeted resources. d. report systems. report systems. Which of the following is an example of healthcare organization efforts to create safer care environments? a. Develop formal processes for support of practitioners involved in adverse events b. Appoint patient safety monitors to observe individual workers for unsafe practice c. Clearly outline punitive steps to be taken for persons committing errors d. Protect healthcare providers from patient/family awareness of failures in healthcare delivery Develop formal processes for support of practitioners involved in adverse events Which of the following is an example of the new accountabilities by healthcare providers for patient safety? a. Reporting coworkers when they make a mistake b. Speaking up about barriers to safe practice before errors occur c. Performing perfectly d. Reporting only those errors that result in harm Speaking up about barriers to safe practice before errors occur Which of the following is not a characteristic of a patient safety culture? a. Acknowledgement of human limitations b. Formal systems of follow-up after failures c. Involvement of front-line work d. Use of hindsight bias to quickly identify persons responsible for errors and correction Use of hindsight bias to quickly identify persons responsible for errors and correction Which of the following is not a function of a safe culture reporting system? a. Collects information about adverse events b. Analyzes information about adverse events c. Disseminates information about adverse events

d. Assigns blame based on information about adverse events Assigns blame based on information about adverse events Which of the following represents the traditional approach to patient safety before the 2000 IOM Report was published? a. Healthcare workers should do the best they can. b. There are some situations where perfection is not possible. c. Healthcare workers are expected to perform perfectly in all situations. d. Imperfect situations in health care are rare. Healthcare workers are expected to perform perfectly in all situations. A nurse in an acute care hospital is interested in learning about her unit's performance outcomes. Which of the following best describes the kind of data she may want to examine? a. Mortality rates, number of rooms on the unit, lab technicians b. Mortality rates, patient symptoms, clinical events c. Visiting hours, mortality rates, patient symptoms d. Nurse staffing, number of family visitors, clerical staff Mortality rates, patient symptoms, clinical events A nurse manager is explaining the Magnet Recognition Program to an interprofessional group that includes nurses and other healthcare professionals. The explanation that would be most applicable and relevant to this group is: a. magnet designation is awarded by the American Nursing Credentialing Center and is based on the patient census and reimbursement. b. there are 14 Forces of Magnetism, originally identified more than 25 years ago. c. magnet recognition involves the entire hospital, but the focus is on nursing care and nursing satisfaction. d. magnet designation is awarded by the American Medical Association. magnet recognition involves the entire hospital, but the focus is on nursing care and nursing satisfaction. Hospital Core Quality Measure sets exist for all except: a. Alzheimer's disease. b. pneumonia.

c. acute myocardial infarction. d. heart failure. Alzheimer's disease. NDNQI considers nursing-sensitive client outcomes as: a. outcomes that improve if physicians and ancillary departments communicate better. b. outcomes that reflect the cost of care and reimbursement. c. outcomes that reflect patient health insurance coverage. d. outcomes that improve if there is a greater quantity or quality of nursing care. outcomes that improve if there is a greater quantity or quality of nursing care. Organizations involved in patient safety and quality include: a. The Joint Commission. b. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS). c. All of these are correct. d. Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ). (All of these are correct) The Joint Commission, Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS), Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ). Outcome measures that provide the broadest clinical perspective should include: a. patient laboratory tests, symptoms, and clinical events. b. patient insurance provider, cost of care, and location. c. patient quality of life, biomedical measures, and care experiences. d. patient income, education, and diagnosis. patient quality of life, biomedical measures, and care experiences. Quality data and information are equally vital to: a. healthcare organizations. b. All of these are correct. c. public consumers. d. practitioners. (All of these are correct) healthcare organizations, public consumers, practitioners.

The Institute of Medicine defines quality health care as: a. health services that are based on traditional Western medicine. b. health services that are driven by provider decisions. c. health services which increase the likelihood of desired health outcomes and are consistent with current professional knowledge. d. health services that meet the insurance requirements for each plan. health services which increase the likelihood of desired health outcomes and are consistent with current professional knowledge. Which of the following statements best describes performance outcomes? a. Performance outcomes relate only to the care provided by physicians. b. Performance outcomes are not affected by regulatory and accreditation agencies. c. Performance outcomes are information accessible on the Internet. d. Performance outcomes are a predetermined set of goals that are met consistently when the same standards of care are provided. Performance outcomes are a predetermined set of goals that are met consistently when the same standards of care are provided. Which of the following statements best describes vulnerable populations? a. Ethnic minorities, the poor, frail elderly with multiple chronic health conditions, and immigrants b. Working women, college students, and middle-aged men c. College students, children, and middle-aged men d. Middle-class Asian Americans, individuals with diabetes, and college students Ethnic minorities, the poor, frail elderly with multiple chronic health conditions, and immigrants A cautionary approach to the use of social media in the context of providing health care is strongly advised because: a. the nature of social media creates significant risks of violating HIPAA and state privacy regulations. b. social media is unstructured. c. providers are not allowed to use social media.

d. social media promotes untested healthcare advice. the nature of social media creates significant risks of violating HIPAA and state privacy regulations. An electronic exchange of health information and interoperability between a healthcare provider and independent laboratories, radiology centers, pharmacies, payers, public health departments, and other providers is known as a: a. Patient portal (PP) b. Health information exchange (HIE) c. Social media (SM) d. Patient-centered medical home (PCMH) Health information exchange (HIE) Between which of the following pairs of entities do patient portals facilitate communication? a. Clinicians and patients b. Patients and caregivers c. Patients and insurers d. Clinicians and insurers Clinicians and patients HIPAA is the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996. The primary goal of HIPAA is to: a. support the implementation of meaningful use criteria. b. protect the confidentiality of healthcare information and make it easier for people to keep health insurance. c. organize the healthcare industry. d. provide consumers access to their health records. protect the confidentiality of healthcare information and make it easier for people to keep health insurance. What is the meaning of the acronym PHI? a. Protected health information b. Personal health information

c. Personally high-tech information d. Protected health intelligence Protected health information What is the most recent addition to the components of nursing informatics practice? a. Wisdom b. Knowledge c. Information d. Data Wisdom Which of the following is a major limitation of health information exchanges (HIEs) in the United States? a. Health information often cannot cross state lines legally. b. Health information exchanges are not structured. c. Health information exchanges inherently will never be able to support unstructured information. d. Health information exchanges are too often deployed over social media. Health information often cannot cross state lines legally. Which of the following is an example of protected health information? a. The patient's weight b. A partial picture of the patient's face c. Communicable diseases d. Hair color Communicable diseases Which of the following is an item that healthcare delivery systems (HCDSs) were formed to directly respond to? a. Disparity in access to care b. Rapidly sinking clinician salaries c. Increasing environmental burden from paperwork d. Unhealthy eating habits

Disparity in access to care Which of the following is true about online discussion forums? a. They allow for organized discussion of user-generated topics. b. They allow for organized discussion of expert-generated topics. c. By definition, they never include clinician input. d. The information contained within them is always federally protected. They allow for organized discussion of user-generated topics. A community health nurse plans to develop a health promotion program focusing on primary prevention. Which of the following activities is an appropriate primary prevention strategy? a. A walking program for seniors living in a retirement community b. A cardiovascular rehabilitation program for post myocardial infarction patients c. A transportation program to increase access to acute care facilities d. An educational program to promote breast mammograms A walking program for seniors living in a retirement community Chronic diseases, such as diabetes, cancer, and heart disease, account for the majority of the deaths in the U.S. A chronic disease is: a. a long-lasting disease that typically remains with an individual from onset to the end of life and lasts longer than three months. b. a disease that can easily be self-managed. c. considered both life threatening and terminal. d. typically less costly for the individual than an acute illness. a long-lasting disease that typically remains with an individual from onset to the end of life and lasts longer than three months. Health disparities can be defined as: a. the differences in health status among racial-ethnic characteristics. b. the differences in the incidence, prevalence, mortality, and burden of disease that exist among specific populations. c. the similarities between two or more ethnic-racial or age groups. d. the differences that exist among income and education.

the differences in the incidence, prevalence, mortality, and burden of disease that exist among specific populations. Pender's Health Promotion Model is based on which of the following factors? a. Individual characteristics and experiences, such as prior related behavior and personal factors b. Family of origin c. Genetics d. Perceived fear of negative outcomes Individual characteristics and experiences, such as prior related behavior and personal factors When addressing a client's smoking or tobacco use history, the nurse should: a. avoid the subject unless the clients specifically addresses the issue. b. begin with an assessment to determine whether the client is ready to stop smoking. c. consult with a primary care provider to initiate nicotine replacement therapy prior to the initial client consultation. d. use aggressive scare tactics. begin with an assessment to determine whether the client is ready to stop smoking. Which of the following characteristics is a social determinant of health? a. Religion b. Political affiliation c. Cultural Influences d. Technological skills Cultural Influences Which of the following groups would least likely be considered a vulnerable population? a. Elderly residents in a long-term skilled facility b. New-born infants in a well-baby nursery c. College students residing in a dormitory d. Individuals with disabilities that impair mental cognition College students residing in a dormitory